USCG Safety Questions: Master's License

1: Your vessel is on an even keel. The MT1 of your vessel is 1000 ft-tons. How many tons of cargo must be loaded in number 4 hold which is 100 feet abaft the tipping center, if she is to have a 2 foot drag?

2: An airplane wants a vessel to change course and proceed towards a vessel in distress. The actions of the aircraft to convey this message will NOT include _______________. 3: To turn over an inflatable life raft that is upside down, you should pull on the _____________. 4: A green signal, floating in the air from a parachute, about 300 feet above the water, indicates that a submarine _____. 5: Pollution of the waterways may result from the discharge of _________. 6: Records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systems shall be kept on board __________. 7: You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of 1% to 7% mixture with air. If your instructions say that no one shall enter the tank if the vapor concentration is over 15% of the LEL, what is the maximum allowable percentage of vapors for men to enter? 8: You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence? 9: The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the requirements for ________________________. 10: What is the definition of transverse metacenter? 11: A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position? 12: The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank vessels is to _____. 13: If your life raft is to leeward of a fire on the water, you should FIRST _________________. 14: A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet above the water, would indicate that a submarine ___________. 15: In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when _______________. 17: The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is _____. 18: When administering mouth to mouth resuscitation to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute? 19: The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried voluntarily, must hold at least a ____________________. 20: If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises 1.7 feet, the righting arm (GZ) for the various angles of inclination will _____________________. 21: Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following emergencies be covered at the periodic drills on a fishing vessel EXCEPT ________. 22: An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to _________. 23: Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take? 24: Which single-letter sound signal may be made only in compliance with the International Rules of the Road? 25: You are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade to another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78. Which statement is TRUE? 26: The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. What would fulfill the requirements for fire protection? 27: The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is _____. 28: The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and _____________. 29: In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST __________. 30: Transverse stability calculations require the use of _____. 31: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT _________. 32: Every U.S. crude oil tankship with a keel laying date on or after 1/1/75, shall be equipped with an inert gas system if the tonnage is more than _______________. 33: Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their ________. 34: Which single-letter sound signal may only be made in compliance with the Rules of the Road? 35: Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill? 36: The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker exit is ________. 37: What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion? 38: When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed about _____________. 39: A flame screen __________. 40: Regardless of local requirements/regulations, when in a U.S. port, all oil spills must be reported to ___________. 41: Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must __________. 42: Using an inert gas system on a tank vessel has which advantage(s)? 43: If an inflatable life raft is overturned, it may be righted by ________. 44: The spread of fire is prevented by _____________. 45: Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills? 46: The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers to be carried in the vicinity of the radio room exit for a tank vessel on an international voyage is one ______. 47: What is used to test a tank for oxygen content? 48: You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied? 49: You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then __________. 50: What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled tanker? 51: On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required part of the fireman's outfit? 52: Which statement is TRUE concerning inert gas systems on tank vessels? 53: If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by _________________. 54: On surface type offshore drilling units, each lifeboat and life raft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft when the unit has an adverse trim up to ___________. 55: Most minor spills of oil products are caused by __________. 56: The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for staterooms on cargo vessels is _________. 57: The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is called the ______________. 58: Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done _______________. 59: Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing apparatus be carried? 60: Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates that the vessel _____. 61: You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge. The barge is NOT gas free. Regulations say that the cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates on the barge may remain open without flame screens _______________. 62: The deck water seal of the inert gas system ______________. 63: You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this? 64: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 65: The most serious effect of trapped air in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it ________________. 66: The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,900 square feet. What will fulfill the requirements for fire protection? 67: The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is ________. 68: The MOST important element in administering CPR is ________. 69: Fire hose couplings _________________. 70: What represents the center of gravity? 71: Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with _____________. 72: To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must pull the safety pin and __________. 73: A life raft which has inflated bottom-up on the water ___________. 74: Outlets in gasoline fuel lines are ______________. 75: If you must abandon a rig in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival craft, when should you remove the safety pin and pull the hook release? 76: The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required for a galley having an area of 3,500 square feet is ____________. 77: Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is ______________. 78: Before CPR is started, you should _____________. 79: A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be _________. 80: What represents the metacentric height? 81: Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature? 82: You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________. 83: If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should ________. 84: After using a C02 portable extinguisher, it should be _____. 85: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should ____. 86: On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To comply with regulations, you _____________________. 87: Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a compartment on a tank barge which is NOT gas-free? 88: You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do? 89: To determine what navigation lights and dayshapes must be displayed on mobile offshore drilling units under tow, you should check the _____. 90: Refer to illustration D001SA. Which represents the righting arm? 91: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by ____________. 92: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement in fresh water is 864 tons and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.47. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack? 93: If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is important that the crew members should ________. 94: If you desired to communicate with another station that your navigation lights were not functioning, you would send _______________. 95: A spark arrestor _____. 96: A B-III foam extinguisher contains ___________________. 97: The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is ___________________. 98: Two people are administering CPR to a victim. How many times per minute should the chest be compressed? 99: Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements pertaining to the discharge into the marine environment of ______________. 100: When a vessel has positive stability, the distance between the line of force through B and the line of force through G is called the _____. 101: On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on the tank top. The hold is 40 feet long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is ___________________. 102: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________________. 103: You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should _____. 104: In the International Code of Signals, the code signal meaning "I require immediate assistance" is _________. 105: The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the requirements for ____________________. 106: A B-II fire extinguisher has a minimum capacity of ________. 107: What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good? 108: Antiseptics are used principally to ___________. 109: Your vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons. It is 350 feet long and has a beam of 55 feet. You have timed it's full rolling period to be 15.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM? 110: A vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's center of gravity will ___________________. 111: In the event of a fire, the doors to a stairtower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by ___________. 112: Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by ____________. 113: You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflated. You should _____. 114: If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send? 116: What is classified as a B-II fire extinguisher? 117: Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument ______________________________. 118: A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY _____. 119: What would be considered a vessel under the International Rules of the Road? 120: The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability is called the ___________. 121: Your vessel has a displacement of 24,500 tons. It is 529 feet long and has a beam of 71 feet. You have timed your full charge rolling period to be 25.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM? 122: A negative metacentric height _____________. 123: If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should ________. 124: You wish to communicate information that the swell in your area is 8-10 feet in height and from the northeast. This swell, as defined in the code, would be described as ____________. 125: Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS _____. 126: Which portable fire extinguisher is classified as a type B-III extinguisher? 127: Before welding in a tank that has carried petroleum products, the tank must be certified by ___________________. 128: A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound? 129: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with ____________. 130: When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________________________. 131: A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 16 feet. At this draft, the displacement is 8,000 tons. The length of the vessel is 475 ft., beam is 55 ft., TPI is 45. Calculate KM. (See P-value, K-value table in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book) 132: The most serious effect of air trapped in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it ______________. 133: You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours? 134: What is the International Code signal for a decimal point between figures using flashing light? 135: Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of the U.S. is FALSE? 136: Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's name? 137: The officer responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department is the ____________________. 138: A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb. To remove it you should _____. 139: When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch as low as possible to __________. 140: Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel? 141: Which emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a fishing vessel? 142: You are in the Baltic Sea which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to discharge ground rags, glass, and bottles into the sea? 143: You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft? 144: The unit of duration of a dash in Morse Code is _____. 145: Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of the U.S. is TRUE? 146: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must _____. 147: Your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. The number of sanitary inspections required is _______. 148: First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to _____. 149: A signal indicating zone time is preceded with the letter ________. 150: A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is _________________________. 151: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? 152: What is the function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus? 153: If you reach shore in a life raft, the first thing to do is _________. 154: The standard rate of signalling by flashing light is ______. 155: When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should you do after reporting the discharge? 156: The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat" by applying the __________. 157: On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of the _______________________. 158: A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next? 159: The class A EPIRB transmits a signal ____________. 160: A vessel is tender if cargo weight is ___________. 161: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? 162: The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus is to ____________. 163: You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitutes, the greatest danger is _____. 164: You have called another vessel by flashing light and he has answered your call properly. You now send your call sign "DE KLIS". He should respond with _____. 165: Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire extinguishing agent? 166: On cargo vessels, which fire extinguisher is considered semi-portable? 167: One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplished by _____________. 168: In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by ___________. 169: The signal T 0735 means _____. 170: In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber, you should ____________________. 171: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible you should ____________________. 172: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations would you find the answer? 173: While adrift in an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical weather _____. 174: If you sent out a signal on 12 March 1980, the date would be indicated by ____________. 175: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, a stability test may be dispensed with if the __________. 176: On tank vessels, fully charged fire extinguishers are considered semi-portable when they have a gross weight of more than _______________. 177: Before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its possessions, the responsible person from the vessel should determine that the source _____________. 178: Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by ______. 179: A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 14 feet. At this draft, the displacement is 6000 tons. The length of the vessel is 450 feet, beam is 50 feet, and the TPI is 45. What is the KM? (See the P-K table in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book) 180: Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel? 181: Gas masks __________. 182: Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance between the forward-most and the after-most points on a vessel's waterline? 183: Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable life raft? 184: When signalling by flashing light, the signal "C" should be used to indicate a(n) _____. 185: Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the pollution prevention regulations? 186: Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as "Fire Station No. 1", "2", "3", etc. The height of the letters and figures must be at least ________. 187: What represents poor sanitary procedures? 188: The preferred method of controlling external bleeding is by _______. 189: The purpose of the inclining experiment is to ________. 190: Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll to a stiff vessel? 191: Where will you find the requirements for the lights that must be displayed on a mobile offshore drilling unit that is being towed? 192: When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should __________. 193: Most totally enclosed lifeboats are equipped with which of the following? 194: Which signal given by flashing light changes a statement into a question? 195: As soon as the officer in charge of the vessel has taken steps to stop the discharge of oil or oily mixture into a U.S. harbor, what must he do FIRST? 196: The term "gross tonnage" refers to ___________. 197: Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to the ______. 198: A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries should __________. 199: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? 200: Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel? 201: Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in flames? 202: The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must be __________. 203: The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be _________. 204: When signalling by flashing light, a correctly received repetition of a signal is acknowledged by the signal _____. 205: When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible? 206: Oceangoing dry bulk cargo vessels over 1000 GT must have approved combination-type fire nozzles at all _____________. 207: Which chemical is used to treat water in order to ensure its safety for drinking? 208: What is the primary purpose of a splint applied in first aid? 209: The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be found _________. 210: Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability _______________. 211: The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the __________. 212: In the navigable waters of the United States, Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 is NOT applicable to a(n) _____________. 213: Most lifeboats are equipped with ___________________. 214: In a message sent by flashing light, what group of letters will direct the receiver of a message to repeat the transmission back to the sender? 216: What is the total number of approved low-velocity spray ("water-fog") applicators required aboard a tankship? 217: Which item do you NOT have to provide for the Coast Guard representative at the time of a stability test? 218: A compound fracture is a fracture in which _______________. 219: For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a non-self-propelled mobile offshore drilling unit under tow is considered to be a ______________________. 220: Metacentric height is a measure of _______________________. 221: Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE? 222: On surface type offshore drilling units, each lifeboat and life raft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft when the unit has an adverse list up to _________. 223: The steering oar in a lifeboat is ____________. 224: If there is a possibility of confusion, which signal should be used to send the group "TRUE BEARING 045 DEGREES"? 225: The Federal Water Pollution Control Act requires the person in charge of a vessel to immediately notify the Coast Guard as soon as he knows of any oil discharge. Failure to notify the Coast Guard can lead to a fine of ________________. 226: How many low-velocity spray applicators are required on the weather decks of a tankship? 227: The Emergency Position Indicating Radiobeacon on a cargo vessel must be stowed ____________________. 228: Which is the most serious type of fracture? 229: Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a screen which will stop ________. 230: Initial stability of a vessel may be improved by __________. 231: The Coast Guard inspection required before a Certificate of Ispection can be issued is conducted________________. 232: You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"? 233: Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF the ___________________. 234: What is the meaning of the flashing light signal "D0910"? 235: If you fail to notify the Coast Guard of an oil spill, you may be fined up to ________________. 236: What is the maximum number of sleeping accommodations a barge may have before it is required to have fire pumps, hydrants, hose, and nozzles installed? 237: Where must a Class A EPIRB be stowed? 238: Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and ____. 239: Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE? 240: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the definition of a ferry includes vessels that ________. 241: The signal L1210 means the ______. 242: You are in a tank wearing the self-contained breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean to take up the slack? 243: Which statement concerning storm oil is CORRECT? 244: A vessel is flying the signal "BJ-1" from her starboard halyard. The signal means "_____." 245: Storage batteries should be charged in a well ventilated area because __________. 246: On a vessel of 125,000 GT on an international voyage, how many international shore connections must be provided? 247: During a stability test on a small passenger vessel ______. 248: You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take? 249: Large quantities of gas in the shale shaker area may be an indication of ____________. 250: Which will be a result of removing on-deck containers? 251: Free communication effect is in direct proportion to _____. 252: What, when removed, will result in the extinguishment of a fire? 253: In order to benefit from the use of storm oil in heavy seas, the storm oil should be spread _____________. 254: If you wanted to ask a nearby vessel if he had a doctor on board, you would hoist the flag signal _____________. 255: You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge. Regulations say that cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates may remain open without flame screens ONLY ______________. 256: What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 2,000 GT? 257: Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB. 258: In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and ______________. 259: What does NOT affect the value of the free surface correction? 260: A 12-foot, 2-1/2 inch, low-velocity fog applicator is designed to produce a minimum fog pattern diameter of _____. 261: A person who willfully violates safety regulations may be fined up to $(SA)5,000 and ___________. 262: Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat rise in a compartment? 263: Which oil is not suitable for use as storm oil? 264: While using the International Code of Signals, if the receiving station can distinguish the flag signal of the transmitting station, but cannot understand the meaning of it, the station can hoist the flag signal ____. 265: The term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution regulations, means _____________________. 266: What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 900 GT? 267: Which type EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry? 268: What is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock? 269: To remedy a leaking fire hose connection at the hydrant, secure the valve and ______________. 270: When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck the ___________. 271: A fishing vessel casualty must be reported to the Coast Guard if it involves _______________. 272: Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by __________. 273: Which type of oil is best for use as storm oil? 274: The flag hoist 62.2 would be sent as pennant 6, pennant 2, ________. 275: When cleaning up an oil spill in U.S. waters you must obtain the approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator before using ___________. 276: For a cargo vessel of 1,000 GT or over, on an international voyage, the required minimum pitot tube pressure from the two highest outlets when two fire pumps are operating simultaneously is approximately _______. 277: The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radiobeacon (EPIRB) must be tested _______________. 278: What is a treatment for traumatic shock? 279: The purpose of storm oil in a sea anchor is to ____________. 280: In the regulations that apply to small passenger vessels an "open boat" is a vessel ____________________. 281: The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 bottle in a fixed CO2 system is 220 lbs. When the bottle is empty it weighs 110 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable gross weight of the CO2 bottle before it should be recharged by the manufacturer? 282: The difference in water spray pattern between the high-velocity tip and low-velocity applicator used with the all-purpose nozzle is due to _________. 283: Spreading oil on the open sea has the effect of ___________. 284: What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist G, 4, 2, 1, first substitute. 285: The use of sinking and dispersing chemical agents for removal of surface oil is __________. 286: On cargo vessels, the discharge of the required quantity of carbon dioxide into any "tight" space shall be completed within ___________. 287: The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radiobeacon (EPIRB) is _______________________. 288: A negative metacentric height ______________. 289: You are at the helm of a sailing vessel under sail on the starboard tack, close hauled, and you are instructed to "head up". You should ___________________. 290: What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck into the lower hold of a vessel? 291: A Certificate of Inspection issued to a small passenger vessel describes ____________. 292: High-velocity fog _________________. 293: Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged? 294: If a receiving station cannot distinguish a signal sent by flag hoist it should _______________. 295: The most common type of containment device(s) for spilled oil on the water is(are) ____________________. 296: In weighing CO2 cylinders, they must be recharged if weight loss exceeds _____________________. 297: Which information is NOT required to be posted in or near the wheelhouse? 298: Which is NOT a symptom of traumatic shock? 299: Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE? 300: In the small passenger vessel regulations a coastwise route is defined as one that is __________. 301: Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the free surface correction? 302: If you are fighting a fire below the main deck of your vessel, which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel? 303: Plastic material may be thrown overboard from a vessel which is _______________________. 304: What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist F 2 1 3 second substitute? 305: Which method of oil cleanup is usually NOT allowed? 306: In areas where CO2 piping is installed, such piping may not be used for any other purpose EXCEPT _________. 307: Your ship is returning to New Orleans from a foreign voyage and carrying a bulk cargo of anhydrous ammonia. You must notify the Captain of the Port, New Orleans, ______________. 308: A person being treated for shock should be wrapped in warm coverings to _______________. 309: Life jackets should be marked with the ________________. 310: A vessel's light draft displacement is 7400 tons. The center of gravity at this draft is 21.5 ft. above the keel. The following weights are loaded: (WT. #1-450 tons, VCG #1-17.4 ft.; WT. #2-220 tons, VCG #2-11.6 ft.; WT. #3-65 tons, VCG #3-7.0 ft.). The new CG above the keel is ______. 311: Spontaneous ignition can result from __________________. 312: The spray of water in low-velocity fog will have ________. 313: Kapok life jackets should NOT be _________. 314: The flag hoist 1.33 would be sent as _____. 315: The maximum number of passengers a "T"-Boat may carry ____. 316: The space containing the cylinders for the carbon dioxide(C02) fire extinguishing system must be designed to preclude an anticipated ambient temperature over _______. 317: Your vessel will be entering the navigable waters of the United States. You are required by regulations to ______. 318: The best treatment for preventing traumatic shock after an accident is to ___________. 319: Foam is effective in combating which class(es) of fire? 320: As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental effect of free surface ________________. 321: A signal indicating Greenwich mean time would be preceded with ______. 322: A definite advantage of using water as a fire extinguishing agent is its characteristic of _______________. 323: You must make a written application to obtain or renew your "T-Boat's" Certificate of Inspection _____________. 324: The national distress, safety, and calling frequency is channel _____. 325: For the purposes of cargo oil containment, the fixed container under the manifold of an eight-inch loading line must hold a minimum of ___. 326: CO2 cylinders, which protect the small space in which they are stored must _______________. 327: The maneuvering information required to be posted in the wheelhouse must be based on certain conditions. Which of the following is NOT one of these conditions? 328: A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. How is this injury classified using standard medical terminology? 329: Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE? 330: Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also have a dump tank located under the flume tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you could dump the flume tanks into the dump tank which would _______. 331: One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent is that foam ______________. 332: When using a high-velocity fog stream in a passageway, the possibility of a blow back must be guarded against. Blow back is most likely to occur when _________________. 333: Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets? 334: When are the best times to send the radiotelegraph auto-alarm distress signal? 335: Your vessel is carrying 24,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of eight inches. The container around each loading manifold must hold ______. 336: Carbon dioxide cylinders which protect machinery spaces, paint lockers and tanks may be located within those spaces when the amount of carbon dioxide does not exceed _________. 337: You are sailing the navigable waters of the United States. You must have a currently corrected copy (or extract) of the _____. 338: A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the skin, blistering, and swelling. Using standard medical terminology this is a ______________. 339: If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you would ________________. 340: Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE? 341: The Master or other vessel representative must contact the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety Office within five days of a(n) _________. 342: Every injury aboard a commercial fishing industry vessel must be reported to the __________. 343: An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using _____. 344: The signal that actuates the radio auto-alarms on a vessel is a series of _____________________. 345: A 150-GT vessel (built in 1960) is loading diesel fuel. What is the minimum capacity of the drip pans required for placement under or around each fuel tank vent, overflow, and fill pipe? 346: The supply of carbon dioxide used in the fixed extinguishing system aboard a cargo vessel MUST be at least sufficient for ___________________. 347: The danger of a charged hose left unattended on deck with the nozzle open is ______________. 348: A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, this is a ____________________. 349: A marine radar system for surface navigation must be fitted on all ocean or coastwise vessels of over _______. 350: The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids ____________. 351: What is the meaning of the signal "G1325"? 352: What is an advantage of water fog over a straight stream of water in fighting an oil fire? 353: When a sea anchor is used in landing in a heavy surf, headway is checked by _________________. 354: The distress message of a ship should include considerable information which might facilitate the rescue. This information should ________________. 355: The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the waterplane _____________. 356: The number of pounds of carbon dioxide required for each cargo space on a cargo vessel is equal to _____________. 357: The operator of a vessel's radiotelephone must hold at least a ___________________. 358: When treating a person for third-degree burns, you should ___________. 359: A vessel is floating in saltwater at a mean draft of 14 feet. The length of the vessel is 450 feet, beam 50 feet, TPI 45. The BM is 16.34 feet. What is the vessel's displacement in tons? 360: The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids flowing _________. 361: What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a chain locker? 362: Water fog from an all-purpose nozzle may be used to _______. 363: You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. To prevent broaching, you should _______. 364: What is the international distress frequency for radiotelegraph? 365: What is the minimum fuel-oil discharge-containment needed for a 150 gross ton vessel constructed on January 7, 1976? 366: You have determined that a cargo space on a freight vessel is 45 feet by 36 feet by 62 feet. How many pounds of carbon dioxide is required for this space? 367: A ship's radiotelephone station license is issued by the ________. 368: The FIRST concern in treating a person with extensive burns is _____. 369: A cargo vessel of 9,000 tons displacement is carrying a slack deep tank of molasses (SG 1.4). The tank measures 20 feet long and 30 feet wide. What will be the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface, with the vessel floating in sea water (SG 1.026)? 370: What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full tank onboard a vessel? 371: On a vessel of 12,500 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 35 feet long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is ___________. 372: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 373: Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by _______________. 374: A vessel operating outside of coastal waters must carry an automatically activated Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB) if she __________. 375: Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans and containers. Which is an approved method of disposing of the waste oil? 376: Valves on steam-smothering lines to cargo tanks shall be set with _____________________. 377: The regulations governing the frequencies of the bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone are issued by the ________. 378: The FIRST treatment for a surface burn is to _____________. 379: Plastic material may be discharged overboard from a vessel if it is _____________________. 380: You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel? 381: What is the meaning of the signal "G0325"? 382: A damaged "T-Boat" that is unable to meet the requirements of its Certificate of Inspection but is able to travel to a shipyard under its own power should ____________. 383: The purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor is to ____. 384: The radiotelegraphy groups indicating distress, urgency, and safety, respectively are _____________. 385: If you are operating a non-ocean going 200 GT vessel, how much of the accumulated oily waste must you be able to retain on board? 386: On vessels subject to 46 CFR Subchapter T, Certification Expiration Date Stickers ___________. 387: If your vessel is equipped with a radiotelephone, what must also be aboard? 388: A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. What is the proper treatment for this injury? 389: On a vessel of 9,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on the tank tops. The hold is 20 feet long and 30 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________. 390: A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is _____________________. 391: Foam is a very effective smothering agent and _____________. 392: What should be used to remove corrosion from the swivel on the female coupling of a fire hose? 393: A sea anchor is _____________________. 394: If you are transmitting a distress message by radiotelephone you should _____________. 395: You are operating a 1,000 GT non-ocean going tankship. It must be equipped with _________________. 396: Deck foam systems, designed to protect cargo areas on tank vessels built after January 1, 1975, must have a supply of foam-producing material to operate the system at its designed rate of foam production for _________________. 397: The Departure Report, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent ___________. 398: For small, first-degree burns the quickest method to relieve pain is to __________. 399: What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 2-1/2 inch fire hose? 400: Whenever a "T-Boat" is hauled out for repairs or alterations affecting its safety you must ______________. 401: On a vessel of 12,000 tons displacement, what is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 60 feet long and 60 feet wide is partially filled with water? 402: To lubricate the swivel or remove corrosion from a fire hose coupling, you should use _________________. 403: Due to the shape of the sea anchor, the best way to haul it back aboard is by _________________. 404: The radiotelegraph alarm signal is ______________. 405: A vessel in ocean service that does not have an approved means of processing oily bilge slops or oily ballast must have ________. 406: A SOLAS passenger ship safety certificate is required on all _____________________. 407: Any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone must be able to ___________. 408: If a person is unconscious from electric shock, you should first remove him from the electrical source and then ______. 409: What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 60 feet long and 30 feet wide is partially filled with salt water, and is fitted with a centerline bulkhead? (The vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons.) 410: The effect of free surface on initial stability depends upon ______. 411: Under Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage discharged from vessels that are located between 3 and 12 nautical miles from nearest land must be ground to less than ________. 412: To get low-velocity fog from an all-purpose nozzle, you would _______. 413: Paint and oil lockers on small passenger vessels must be constructed of or lined with ___________. 414: A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the two tone alarm signal followed immediately by the ___________. 415: What must ocean going vessels of 100 GT be fitted with for oily mixtures? 416: Under the regulations for cargo vessels, which statement is TRUE concerning fireman's outfits? 417: By regulation, you MUST keep a record of the use of your radiotelephone for at least __________. 418: Treatments of heat exhaustion consist of _____. 419: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. 420: The most important figure in calculating the free surface constant of a tank carrying liquids is _______________. 421: After the initial AMVER Position Report, sent by a vessel sailing foreign, subsequent Position Reports must be sent no less frequently than every ______________. 422: The all-purpose nozzle will produce a fog spray when you __________. 423: When you stream a sea anchor, you should make sure that the holding line is _____________. 424: What would be used to call all stations in your vicinity by radiotelephone? 425: If you must pump bilges while a vessel is in port, you should pump only ____________. 426: A 2,000 GT tankship is required to carry _______________. 427: Radio station logs involving communications during a disaster shall be kept by the station licensee for at least ____________. 428: Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water would _____. 429: You are at sea and not in a special area as defined in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many nautical miles from land must you be to discharge ground garbage that will pass through a one-inch (25 mm) screen into the sea? 430: The effects of free surface on a vessel's initial stability do NOT depend upon the __________________. 431: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 31'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. 432: One advantage of the "all-purpose nozzle" is that it ______. 433: If passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out, they should _____________________. 434: You are underway in the Gulf of Mexico when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is about 20 miles south of Galveston, TX, and you are about 80 miles ESE of Galveston. What action should you take? 435: If an emergency pump control is used as the emergency shutdown on a tank vessel, it must ___________________. 436: Which item is NOT included in the fireman's outfit on a cargo vessel? 437: On small passenger vessels bunks installed in overnight passenger accommodation spaces _____________. 438: A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet. You should _____. 439: Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew's quarters or _______. 440: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 8390 T. The 40 ton weight is on the pier and its center is 55' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 110' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 45' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 3.5². What is the GM with the cargo stowed? 441: Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by ________________. 442: On the all-purpose nozzle, the position of the valve when the handle is all the way forward is _____________. 443: What does "EPIRB" stand for? 444: A call between any two ship stations on an intership working frequency shall have a maximum duration of _______________. 445: To serve as a person in charge of transfer operations on board a self-propelled tank vessel, an individual must _________________. 446: The number of fire axes required to be carried on a cargo vessel of 14,000 GT and on an international voyage is ______. 447: According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", what is NOT required in the radiotelephone log? 448: Treatment of frostbite includes _____. 449: On a vessel of 9,000 tons displacement there are two slack deep tanks of palm oil (SG .86). Each tank is 40 feet long and 30 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 450: Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire? 451: On surface type offshore drilling units, each lifeboat and life raft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft when the unit has an adverse list up to ___________. 452: When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the forward position, the nozzle will _________________. 453: You must shift a weight from the upper tween deck to the lower hold. This shift will ________. 454: Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call on channel ______. 455: Fuel for use on a vessel (300 GT or more constructed before July 1, 1974) may be carried in independent tanks forward of a collision bulkhead if the _________________. 456: On a vessel of 900 GT, the minimum number of fire axes required is ___________. 457: According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", your radiotelephone log must contain _______________. 458: Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia? 459: What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 1-1/2 inch fire hose? 460: A vessel of not more than 65 feet in length must have a collision bulkhead if it carries more than __________. 461: Which statement about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT? 462: When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the vertical position and without an applicator, the all-purpose nozzle will _______. 463: When water-cooled engines are installed on small passenger vessels, the cooling system ________. 464: You are making a telephone call ship-to-shore using the VHF-FM service. You can tell that the working channel is busy if you hear ___________. 465: A cargo hose is marked with the _________________. 466: Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with ______________________. 467: Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station aboard a vessel to which the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies? 468: The most effective warming treatment for a crew member suffering from hypothermia is _____. 469: A low-velocity fog applicator attached to a 2-1/2 inch all-purpose nozzle is required to produce a fog pattern diameter of at LEAST _________________. 470: A squeeze-grip type carbon-dioxide portable fire- extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be _________. 471: How many lifeboats MUST be carried on a mobile offshore drilling unit with more than 30 people aboard? 472: When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pulled all the way back, it will ________________. 473: Each small passenger vessel that operates on the high seas, or beyond 3 miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes must have a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB that ___________. 474: You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the ___________. 475: The minimum bursting pressure for each cargo hose assembly must be at least _____. 476: What type of gaging is required for a cargo of formic acid? 477: The radiotelephone required by the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" is for the exclusive use of ___________. 478: A crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed. You should _____________. 480: A tanker's mean draft is 32'-5". At this draft, the TPI is 178. The mean draft after loading 1200 tons will be __________. 481: How should the letter "D" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone? 482: The high-velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose fire fighting nozzle should always be _________________. 483: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4184 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. 484: A message warning of a tropical storm should be sent as a(n) ______. 485: The maximum allowable working pressure for each oil transfer hose assembly must be at least _________. 486: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD28'-04", AFT 30'-11". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. 487: Which statement is TRUE concerning radiotelephones on board towing vessels? 488: A rescuer can most easily determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse by checking the pulse at the ___________. 489: An extinguisher with 15 lbs. of CO2 or 10 lbs. of dry chemical is a size _________________. 490: Which statement relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE? 491: Before starting to hoist provisions, which should be checked? 492: The spray of water produced by using the high-velocity fog position on an all-purpose nozzle will have _______________. 493: Why are lifeboats usually double-enders? 494: A message giving warning of a hurricane should have which prefix when sent by radiotelephone? 495: No vessel may use or carry an oil transfer hose larger than 3 inches unless it meets certain requirements. Which of the following is NOT among those requirements? 496: The lifeboat releasing gear lever should be marked with the words ____________. 497: The Coast Guard broadcasts routine weather reports on channels _________. 498: An unconscious person should NOT be _____________. 499: In setting the valves on a steam-smothering system on a tank vessel, the master control valve to cargo tanks should be ___________________. 500: Safety shackles are fitted with ________________. 501: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 502: Penetrations and openings in watertight bulkheads in a small passenger vessel less than 100 gross tons must ____________. 503: Your vessel has lifeboats on both sides. Lifeboat No. 2 is located ______________. 504: If you wished to transmit a message by voice concerning the safety of navigation, you would preface it by the word __________. 505: Which vessel is NOT required to have a Pollution Placard posted on board? 506: The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be determined by ___________________. 507: While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must maintain a continuous listening watch on channel _____. 508: Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious? 509: Placing a lashing across a hook to prevent a fitting from slipping out of the hook is called ____________________. 510: A new crew member, who has not received any safety instructions or participated in any drills, reports on board. The Master must provide a safety orientation __________________. 511: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 512: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-08", AFT 29'-05". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. 513: Number 3 lifeboat would be ___________. 514: You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. This indicates that ___________. 515: Which statement is TRUE concerning the placard entitled "Discharge of Oil Prohibited"? 516: Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment? 517: The VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency is _______. 518: A person who gets battery acid in an eye should IMMEDIATELY wash the eye with ________. 519: A vessel must have at least two fireman's outfits aboard if she ___________. 520: What is the displacement of a barge which measures 85' x 46' x 13' and is floating in salt water with a draft of ten feet? 521: On a vessel of 6,000 tons displacement there are two slack tanks of carbon tetrachloride (SG 1.6). Each tank is 40 feet long and 25 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)? 522: A spanner is a ___________________. 523: The bottom row of plating next to the keel of a lifeboat is known as the _____________. 524: The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with safety of a person would be prefixed by the word _________. 525: What would you consult to determine the number of persons required on duty while loading a cargo of leaded gasoline on your tanker? 526: Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate continuously at 6 knots for how many hours? 527: The VHF radiotelephone frequency designated to be used only to transmit or receive information pertaining to the safe navigation of a vessel is _____. 528: If a person gets something in his or her eye and you see that it is not embedded, you can _____. 529: You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE? 530: The TPI curve, one of the hydrostatic curves in a vessel's plans, gives the number of tons ____________. 531: A CO2 portable extinguisher is annually checked by _____. 532: Fire hose should be washed with _________________. 533: What is the purpose of limber holes? 534: Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require immediate assistance. You would preface a message advising other vessels of your situation with _____. 535: What is NOT required to be contained in the oil transfer procedures? 536: A fully loaded motor-propelled lifeboat must be capable of attaining a speed of at least _____________. 537: What frequency has the FCC designated for the use of bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone communications? 538: A victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial obstruction of the airway. An observer should ___________. 539: On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on tank tops. The hold is 50 feet long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is _______. 540: Of the following, the most important consideration for a tank vessel is ________. 541: The signal "AS" when used in signaling by the International Code of Signals means "________________". 542: Before inserting a low-velocity fog applicator into an all-purpose nozzle, you must ____. (See illustration D004SA) 543: Aluminum lifeboats are subject to damage by electrolytic corrosion (the aluminum being eaten away). In working around boats of aluminum you must be very careful _______. 544: In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that ___________. 545: The oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil are NOT required to contain _______________. 546: Which statement is TRUE concerning a motor lifeboat? 547: Channel 13 (156.65 MHz), the designated bridge-to-bridge channel, may NOT be used to _____. 548: A shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and starts to turn blue. You should _______________. 549: If a vessel takes a sudden, severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST _________________. 550: The normal tendency for a loaded tanker is to ____________. 551: A shaft alley divides a vessel's cargo hold into two tanks, each 20 ft. wide by 60 ft. long. Each tank is filled with saltwater below the level of the shaft alley. The vessel's displacement is 7,000 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface effect? 552: When water pressure of 100 psi is used in conjunction with an inline proportioner for the production of the mechanical foam, a 5-gallon can of liquid foam will last _____________. 553: Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat gripes? 554: When using the International Code of Signals to communicate, the end of a radiotelephone transmission is indicated by the signal ____________. 555: The transfer procedures for oil products are required to be posted ___. 556: All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type life rafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at least once every _______. 557: Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" the frequency for bridge-to-bridge communications is 156.65 MHz or channel ____. 558: A small passenger vessel operating on exposed or partiallly protected waters may not have a port light below the weather deck unless ___________. 559: The maximum draft of the SS AMERICAN MARINER cannot exceed 28'-08" in order to cross a bar. The present drafts are: FWD 28'-00", AFT 29'-00". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum amount of sea water to ballast the forepeak to achieve this condition. 560: On small passenger vessels each inlet or discharge pipe penetrating the hull less than six inches above the deepest load waterline _________. 561: The 12-foot low-velocity fog applicator ________________. 562: One gallon of high expansion foam solution will produce ____. 563: Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away from a moving ship? 564: If you receive the signal over radiotelephone of "Romeo Papa Tango" while using the International Code of Signals, you should ____. 565: Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by ________. 566: Lifeboats must be lowered into the water at least once every _________________. 567: On small passenger vessels if an item of lifesaving equipment is not required but is installed __________. 568: On a small passenger vessel, if an inlet or discharge pipe is not accessible, its shut off valve ____________. 569: A shaft alley divides a vessel's cargo hold into two tanks, each 25 ft. wide by 50 ft. long. Each tank is filled with salt water below the level of the shaft alley. The vessel's displacement is 6,000 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface effect? 570: On a vessel of 5,000 tons displacement there are two slack tanks of acid (SG 1.8). Each tank is 30 feet long and 20 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)? 571: To increase the extent of flooding your vessel can suffer without sinking, you could _______________________. 572: Your tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate aboard. Approximately how much foam solution can be produced from this supply? 573: The sea painter of a lifeboat should be led ______________. 574: You are calling another vessel by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. He responds with the words "Alpha Sierra". This indicates that _____________. 575: Pollution regulations require that each scupper in an enclosed deck area have a _____________________. 576: Each lifeboat must be lowered and maneuvered in the water at least once every ________________. 577: All towing vessels of 26 feet or longer while navigating are required to carry which item? 578: When fighting fires in spaces containing bottles of LPG (liquefied petroleum gas), you should __________________. 579: The letter R followed by one or more numbers indicates _______________. 580: Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the __________. 581: You are ordering ships' stores that are NOT consumer commodities. Which statement is TRUE? 582: Extra chemicals for producing chemical foam should be stored ________. 583: The minimum length of a boat painter for a lifeboat in ocean service is _____________. 584: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD28'-08", AFT 29'-05". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. 585: How long must a "Declaration of Inspection" be kept on board? 586: On small passenger vessels, which material must not be used in a valve or fitting for a hull penetration? 587: Which vessel is NOT required to have a radiotelephone? 588: At night while the ship is tied up to the dock, a fire breaks out in a cargo hatch. After sounding the alarm, what should the person on watch do? 589: Fires are grouped into what categories? 590: The distance between the waterline of a vessel and the main deck is called _________________. 591: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 592: A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in ___________________. 593: The sea painter is secured in the lifeboat by _____________. 595: How long shall the operator of a vessel employed in the transferring of oil to other vessels keep the Declaration of Inspection of those transfers? 596: The Master of a cargo or tank vessel shall be responsible that each lifeboat, except those free-fall launched, is lowered to the water with crew and maneuvered at least once every _____________. 597: The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to __________. 598: A fire must be ventilated ______. 599: When starting CPR on a drowning victim, you should ________. 600: The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on its _______________. 601: Under the International Code, the signal "CQ" is NOT used for signalling by _______________. 602: What does "EPIRB" stand for? 603: The painter which is to be attached to the thwart of a lifeboat should _________________. 604: To prevent loss of stability from free communication flooding you should ____________. 605: The owner of a vessel subject to the pollution regulations shall keep a written record available for inspection by the Captain of the Port, of ________. 606: When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not more than _________________. 607: The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which towboat? 608: A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by __________________. 609: Which small passenger vessel(s) is/are NOT required to carry a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB? 610: The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on its ____________. 611: The maximum mean draft to which a vessel may be safely loaded is called ______. 612: The service life of distress signals must be not more than ________________. 613: The length of the steering oar in a lifeboat is __________. 614: Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. There is ashort rolling period around the angle of list. The portside freeboard is reduced to 1 foot. There is no trim andthe weather is calm. You should FIRST _____. 615: The owner or operator of each vessel subject to the pollution regulations is NOT required to keep written records of _______. 616: Winch drums for lifeboat falls shall have a diameter at the base of the groove equal to at least _______________________. 617: For the purposes of distress signalling, small passenger vessels that operate on runs of more than 30 minutes duration on lakes, bays and sounds, and river routes must carry _______. 618: You are on watch at night in port and discover a fire in #1 hatch. Which action should you take FIRST? 619: A fire in the galley ALWAYS poses the additional threat of ______. 620: A vessel's LCG is determined by _________________. 621: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine about to surface because of an emergency on board is __________. 622: Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF the _________. 623: How many lifeboats MUST be carried on a mobile offshore drilling unit with more than 30 people aboard? 624: Each EPIRB and SART for lifeboats shall be tested _______. 625: When the Captain of the Port or Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection issues an order of suspension to the operator of a vessel concerning oil transfer operations, it ___________. 627: Distress flares and smoke signals for small passenger vessels _________. 628: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be ________________. 629: Sign(s) of respiratory arrest requiring artificial respiration is(are) _____. 630: Reserve buoyancy is _______________. 631: You are at the helm of a ketch-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the starboard tack, close hauled, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "bear off quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should _______________. 632: Portable foam type fire extinguishers are most effective on _______. 633: A sweep oar is an oar that is _________. 634: You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and salt water. Stability may be reduced because of _______________. 635: The person in charge on the vessel and the person in charge at the facility must hold a meeting before starting the transfer of oil. Who must decide to start the transfer? 636: What is required by regulations concerning the stowage of lifeboats on cargo vessels? 637: The date and time kept in the radiotelephone log shall commence at _____. 638: You are on watch at sea, at night, when the ordinary seaman reports a fire in number five upper tween deck. Which of the following should NOT be done immediately? 639: A fire hose with a nozzle attached must be connected to each hydrant except when exposed to heavy weather or when the ______________. 640: The volume of watertight spaces of a vessel above its waterline is the vessel's _______________. 641: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? 642: As an extinguishing agent, foam _____. 643: The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the _________. 644: The difference between the forward and aft drafts is ______. 645: A tug should not come alongside a tank vessel in way of its cargo tanks while it is loading grade A, B, or C cargo without the permission of the ______. 647: Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", the maximum power of all transmitters used shall be not more than ________. 648: Ring life buoys used aboard a small passenger vessels are required to be what color? 649: The lifeline of a life float or buoyant apparatus shall____________. 650: Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy? 651: Small passenger vessels not limited to service during daylight hours must carry __________. 652: How does foam extinguish an oil fire? 653: A tank vessel transferring non-flammable hazardous cargo in bulk must display warning signs. These signs must ________. 654: Which of the following statements about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT? 655: The spread of fire is NOT prevented by _____________. 656: The governor brake shall be capable of controlling the speed of lowering a fully equipped lifeboat with its complement of persons on board at _________________. 657: What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship communications on channel 13? 658: The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE? 659: A vessel carries three slack tanks of gasoline (SG .68). The vessel's displacement is 8,000 tons. Each tank is 50 ft. long and 20 ft. wide. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface with the vessel floating in sea water (SG 1.026)? 660: Reserve buoyancy is _________________. 661: The Master of a fishing vessel must ensure that each crew member participates in at least one fire drill every ________________. 662: Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by _________________. 663: Stretchers are fitted in lifeboats to provide a __________. 664: Your vessel is in distress and you have made radiotelephone contact with a U.S. Coast Guard vessel. The Coast Guard vessel requests that you give him a long count. This indicates that _______________. 665: Who may serve as the "person in charge" of loading and discharge operations aboard a tankship? 667: Failure to comply with, or enforce, the provisions of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" can result in a ______. 668: The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stairtower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stairtower be kept open when underway? 669: You are ordering ships' stores. Which statement is TRUE? 670: Which action will affect the trim of a vessel? 671: When signaling a course using the International Code of Signals, the signal _____________. 672: A foam-type portable fire extinguisher is most useful in fighting a fire in _____________. 673: The grab rail of a metal lifeboat is normally located _____. 674: A distress frequency used on radiotelephone is ____________. 675: Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before loading a tank vessel? 676: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number _______. 677: A vessel which violates the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" may be fined up to _________. 678: Fire may be spread by which means? 679: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT _____________. 680: The ship's tanks most effective for trimming are the ______. 681: Size III, IV, and V extinguishers are considered ________. 682: How are lifelines attached to a life float? 683: The purpose of air tanks in a lifeboat is to __________. 684: The Coast Guard emergency radiotelephone frequency is ______. 685: The operator of each vessel engaged in a vessel-to-vessel oil transfer operation must keep a signed copy of the declaration of inspection for ___________. 686: You should be most concerned about a possible explosion or fire in fuel tanks ___________. 687: The Master or person in charge of a vessel subject to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" who fails to comply with the Act or the regulations thereunder may be fined not more than _______. 688: Which may ignite fuel vapors? 689: After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, he should be _____. 690: Those ship's tanks that are particularly important for trimming the ship are the __________. 691: According to the Code of Federal Regulations, on vessels other than river ferryboats and river vessels, how are periodic lifeboat weight tests required to be conducted? 692: Why should foam be banked off a bulkhead when extinguishing an oil fire? 693: You are operating a fire hose with an applicator attached. If you put the handle of the nozzle in the vertical position you will _____. 694: What is the international distress frequency for radiotelephones? 695: The Declaration of Inspection made before oil transfer operations must be signed by the _____________________. 696: For each person it is certified to carry, a lifeboat on an oceangoing passenger vessel must be provided with all of the following EXCEPT ____. 697: A violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" may result in a _______. 698: The spread of fire is prevented by ______________________. 699: What is the minimum length of a life floats paddle on a small passenger vessel? 700: Intact buoyancy is a term used to describe ________________. 701: Which statement about free surface is TRUE? 702: Which statement about firefighting foam is TRUE? 703: How many life preservers are provided in each lifeboat? 704: Which radiotelephone transmission may be sent over channel 705: Your vessel is at a dock taking bunkers through a pipe laid down on the dock. If oil begins to flow out of a tank vent, what should you do FIRST? 706: The painter on a life float or buoyant apparatus shall _____________. 707: If your bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone ceases to operate, you must ___________________. 708: Removing which will extinguish a fire? 709: What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 60 ft. wide and 60 ft. long is partially filled with saltwater? (The vessel's displacement is 10,000 tons.) 710: Buoyancy is a measure of the ship's ____________________. 711: When administering artificial respiration to an adult, the breathing cycle should be repeated about __________________. 712: Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil fire? 713: Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to prevent _____. 714: A Coast Guard radiotelephone message about an aid to navigation that is off station is preceded by the word ____. 715: Your vessel is taking on fuel when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, you should ___________. 716: The required amount of water for each person in a lifeboat on an oceangoing vessel is _____________. 717: If your radiotelephone fails while underway, __________. 718: Painters fitted to life floats and buoyant apparatus with a capacity of 49 or less persons must _____________. 719: A fire hose has a _______________. 720: The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is called the ________________________. 721: Forces within a vessel have caused a difference between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is called _____. 722: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. 723: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine to indicate an emergency condition within the submarine is __________. 724: Messages concerning weather conditions transmitted by radiotelephone are preceded by ___________. 725: You notice oil on the water near your vessel while taking on fuel. You should FIRST ______________. 726: On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat (without desalting kits) is certified to carry, the boat must be supplied with ______________. 727: Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", failure of a vessel's radiotelephone equipment _______. 728: When water is used to fight a fire on board a ship, the effect of the weight of the water must be taken into account. How much sea water will increase the weight displacement by one ton? 729: At what rate would you render mouth to mouth or mouth to nose artificial respiration to an adult? 730: The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded compartment that can be occupied by water caused by damage is known as ________________________. 731: If Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies to your vessel, you will not be able to discharge __________ anywhere at sea. 732: Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning the use of dry chemical extinguishers? 733: Lifeboat hatchets should be _____________. 734: On small passenger vessels painters fitted to life floats shall be at least _________________. 735: You are fueling your vessel when you notice oil in the water around your vessel. You should immediately stop fueling and _______________. 736: How many litres of water per person must be carried in lifeboats on a tankship sailing a coastwise route? 737: When using the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR's) for Tank Vessels, you see T/O and B/C. What do the T and B tell you? 738: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should ___________________. 739: A 7,000 ton displacement tankship carries two slack tanks of alcohol with a S.G. of 0.8. Each tank is 50 ft. long and 30 ft. wide. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface with the vessel floating in sea water, S.G. is 740: What is NOT a motion of the vessel? 741: You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE? 742: An advantage of an ABC dry chemical over a carbon dioxide extinguisher is _________________. 743: In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly _______. 744: You are using VHF channel 16 (156.8 mHz) or 2182 kHz. You need help but are not in danger. You should use the urgent signal ______. 745: You detect oil around your tank vessel while discharging. The FIRST thing to do is _____________. 746: The quantity of fuel required to be carried in a motor lifeboat is _______________________. 747: Which statement about the use of portable electric lights in petroleum product tanks is TRUE? 748: A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind ________. 749: Small passenger vessels on rivers routes in cold water must be provided with lifefloats of an aggregate capacity to accommodate ____________. 750: The center of flotation of a vessel is _________. 751: Under the International Code of Signals how are geographical locations such as New York City transmitted? 752: Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical? 753: How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a life raft? 754: "PAN-PAN" repeated three times over the radiotelephone indicates which type of message will follow? 755: While your vessel is taking on fuel you notice oil on the water around the vessel. What should you do FIRST? 756: A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of _______. 757: Which tank vessel must carry a signaling lamp? 758: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should ___________. 759: Determine the free surface correction for a fuel oil tank 30 ft. long by 40 ft. wide by 15 ft. deep, with a free surface constant of 3794. The vessel is displacing 7,000 tons in saltwater. 760: A suitable rescue boat is required ___________. 761: Which when removed, will result in the extinguishment of a fire? 762: The most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical is _______. 763: Which item of lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for night signalling to a ship on the horizon? 764: Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone? 765: Hoses used for cargo transfer operations must be tested abd inspected at specified intervals by ____________. 767: On every vessel, distress signals must be stowed ____________. 768: Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide? 769: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with ____________. 770: A vessel is described as a two compartment vessel when it ______. 771: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "F" hoisted. What should you do? 772: What do the small passenger vessel regulations require when installing a hydraulic accumulator or other unfired pressure vessel? 773: When using the lifeboat compass, you must be careful to _______. 774: If you send a flag hoist of MAJ 8, what information are you conveying? 775: During the annual inspection by the owner, each nonmetallic oil transfer hose larger than 3 inches inside diameter must not burst, bulge, leak, or abnormally distort under static liquid pressure at least as great as _________________. 776: When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out class B fires, there is a danger of reflash because dry chemical_________. 777: On small passenger vessels a gasoline engine must be fitted with _____________. 778: An aluminum powder fire is classified as class ___. 779: A bulk freighter 680 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of .84, is floating in salt water at a draft of 21'. How many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft by 1"? 780: The change in trim of a vessel may be found by ____________. 781: How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated? 782: On small passenger vessels what device must you install under carburetors, other than the downdraft type, to allow ready removal of fuel leakage? 783: A person referring to the stern sheets of a lifeboat is speaking of __________. 784: While communicating with a shore station concerning an injured female, your message should indicate the subject's age is 32. Which code would your message contain? 785: 33 CFR 156 deals with matters concerning ____________. 786: Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat? 787: To determine which grades of cargo a tank vessel is permitted to carry you should _____. 788: Fires of which class would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel? 789: An inflatable life raft equipped with a SOLAS B pack must be stowed __________. 790: Which would NOT provide extra buoyancy for a vessel with no sheer? 791: During a training exercise a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired will send up smoke from a float. The smoke's color will be _____. 792: What is an advantage of a dry chemical extinguisher as compared to a carbon dioxide extinguisher? 793: Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be achieved by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing? 794: An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating with a passenger ship that has a doctor and hospital on board. You want to rendezvous in a certain position so the oiler can be evacuated for medical treatment. Which code should your message contain? 795: The authority to grant an alternate procedure for oil transfer operations rests with the ___________________. 796: When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you should NOT hold the horn of the extinguisher because the horn ______. 797: Which statement about the hospital space on a cargo ship is TRUE? 798: A fire starts in a switchboard due to a short circuit. This is which class of fire? 799: Lines or gear NOT in use should be __________________. 800: The "trimming arm" of a vessel is the horizontal distance between the _______________. 801: No person on board any vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage of any type when ______. 802: A portable dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by _________. 803: The abandon ship signal on the ship's whistle is ______. 804: You have an AB who has become violently ill, and you are requesting urgent medical advice. Your message should contain which code? 805: Application for a waiver of any requirements of the regulations for oil transfer operations must be submitted to the _____________. 806: On small passenger vessels electrical equipment in spaces that contain gasoline powered machinery must be ______________. 807: The space containing carbon dioxide cylinders shall be properly ventilated and designed to prevent an ambient temperature in excess of ___________________. 808: A fire in a pile of canvas is classified as class ___. 809: If the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation, the rescuer should FIRST _____________. 810: When a vessel's LCG is aft of her LCB, the vessel will ____. 811: Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by ________________. 812: You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed ____________________. 813: You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal for _____. 814: In the International Code of signals, a group of three letters indicates _________________. 815: Applications for waivers of any requirements of the regulations for oil transfer operations must be submitted _______________________. 816: You are crude oil washing on a tanker with an inert gas system. What percentage of oxygen must the inert gas system produce and deliver to the tanks? 817: An accommodation ladder or other equally safe and convenient means must be provided for a pilot whenever the distance from the sea level is more than _______. 818: A fire in a transformer terminal would be classified as class ____. 819: Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red Sea, how many nautical miles from land must you be to throw wooden dunnage into the sea? 820: The two points that act together to trim a ship are the ________. 821: Bleeding from a vein is _________________________. 822: When electrical equipment is involved in a fire, the stream of dry chemicals should be _____________________. 823: Traditionally,the signal for fire aboard ship is ________. 824: You receive a medical message that contains the code MSJ. This means "_____." 825: ABYC equipment standards are published by the ___________. 826: The number of flashlights required as lifeboat equipment on a seagoing barge is _________. 827: A small passenger vessel's Official Number must be marked___________. 828: A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as class __. 829: A fire starting by spontaneous combustion can be expected in which condition? 830: Your vessel has a midships engine room and the cargo is concentrated in the end holds. The vessel is _____________. 831: The spread of fire is prevented by _______________. 832: Which statement is TRUE concerning the use of a dry chemical extinguisher? 833: While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and 3 short rings on the general alarm bells" is the signal for ___________________. 834: After sending a message describing the symptoms of an ill crew member, you receive a message containing the code MRL. This means "_______". 835: No person may serve as the person in charge of both the vessel and the facility during oil transfer operations unless _____________. 836: What size bilge pump is required for a lifeboat which has a capacity of 675 cubic feet? 837: The largest crew a cargo vessel may carry without having a hospital space is _____. 838: A class C fire would be burning _________________. 839: A small passenger vessel's Official Number must be marked___________. 840: If a vessel is sagging, what kind of stress is placed on the sheer strake? 841: Blood flowing from a cut artery appears _____________. 842: As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemical has which advantage? 843: The signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats is _______. 844: If a crew member that was ill has died, which code should your message contain? 845: Each pressure gage used in an oil transfer operation must be accurate to within _____________. 846: If a lifeboat is stowed 40 feet above the light water draft and 200 feet from the bow, how long must the sea painter be? 847: When testing a Class A EPIRB you will know the EPIRB is working properly if you hear on 99.5 Mhz FM or any vacant frequency on a nearby AM radio_____________. 848: The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential is class ___. 849: You are testing the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit and find it has a very slow leak. Which action should be taken? 850: When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under _______________________. 851: The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire is ____. 852: Which statement concerning the application of dry chemical powder is FALSE? 853: When whistle signals are used for launching lifeboats, one short blast means _______________________. 854: If an ill crew member is beginning to show signs of improvement, what code should your message contain? 855: The term, "cargo tank length", as used in part 157 of the Pollution Regulations, means the _______________. 856: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? 857: Who must ensure that the emergency lighting and power systems on cargo vessels are operated at least weekly? 858: A fire in trash and paper waste is classified as class ____. 860: A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and its after draft is 24'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". This indicates a concentration of weight _____________________. 861: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. 862: Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest extent by _______. 863: A tank 36 ft. by 36 ft. by 6 ft. is filled with water to a depth of 5 ft. If a bulkhead is placed in the center of the tank running fore-and-aft along the 36-foot axis, how will the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be affected? 864: A crew member suddenly becomes blind in both eyes. Which code should your message contain? 865: On board a small passenger vessel, fuel tank vents should ___________. 866: The number of rowing oars that must be carried in a motor-propelled open lifeboat on a cargo vessel is __________________. 867: Cargo vessels being navigated, and fitted with emergency lighting and power systems, shall have their emergency systems tested at least once _________. 868: Burning wood is which class of fire? 869: As a last resort, a tourniquet can be used to ________. 870: The forward draft of your ship is 27'-11" and the after draft is 29'-03". The draft amidships is 28'-05". Your vessel is __________. 871: The bilge pump on a fishing vessel _________________. 872: The safety discs on carbon dioxide cylinders are set to release at 2,700 psi. Under normal circumstances this pressure will be reached at a temperature of ______________. 873: On small passenger vessels which parts of a water-cooled gasoline or diesel engine must be water-jacketed and cooled? 874: If you were being assisted by an icebreaker and he sent you the single letter "Q", he would be telling you ____________. 875: How many bolts are required in a temporarily connected standard ANSI coupling? 876: Which person may command a lifeboat in ocean services 877: A marine chemist issues gas free certificates and is certified by the ___________. 878: A fire in a pile of linen is a class ___. 879: To operate a portable CO2 extinguisher continuously in the discharge mode __________________. 880: A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and its after draft is 23'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". This indicates a concentration of weight _________________. 881: You should FIRST treat a simple fracture by _______________. 882: Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by _____________. 883: On a vessel of 15,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 50 feet long and 60 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________. 884: The single letter G, sent by an icebreaker to an assisted vessel, means ______________. 885: Which type of marine sanitation device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flushwater at ambient air pressure and temperature? 886: What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or certificated persons required for a lifeboat on a vessel in ocean services 887: Carbon dioxide as a fire fighting agent has which advantage over other agents? 888: An oil fire is classified as class _________. 889: Small quantities of flammable liquids needed at a work site should be _____________________. 890: All of the following can be determined by use of a stabilogauge EXCEPT _________________. 891: On small passenger vessels, cooling water for the exhaust lines from an internal combustion engine must be ______________. 892: While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. You should _______________. 893: On a vessel of 12,000 tons displacement, a tank 60 feet long, 50 feet wide, and 20 feet deep is half filled with fresh water (SG 1.000) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (SG 1.026) What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface? 894: Signals between an icebreaker and an assisted vessel may NOT be given by _____________. 895: Air-cooled gasoline auxiliary engines are allowed on vessels not more than 65 feet in length, carrying not more than 12 passengers if ____________. 896: Your cargo vessel's Certification of Inspection expires 30 April 1992. One of your inflatable life rafts was last serviced in January 1992. The raft must be reinspected no later than ___________. 897: Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide? 898: A galley grease fire would be classified as which class of fire? 899: EXCEPT when suffering from a head or chest injury a patient in shock should be placed in which position? 900: All of the following can be determined by use of a stabilogauge EXCEPT ___________________. 901: A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be __________. 902: Your vessel is equipped with a fixed CO2 system and a fire main system. In the event of an electrical fire in the engine room what is the correct procedure for fighting the fire? 903: On a vessel displacing 8,000 tons, what is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 45 feet long and 45 feet wide is partly filled with salt water? 904: If you are on the beach and are signalling to a small boat in distress that your present location is dangerous and they should land to the left, you would _______________. 905: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine coming to periscope depth is __________. 906: Inflatable life rafts shall be serviced at an approved servicing facility every 12 months or not later than the next vessel inspection for certification. However, the total elapsed time between servicing cannot exceed ________. 907: An advantage of a dry chemical over a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is its ________________. 908: If ignited, which material would be a class B fire? 909: Which part of the inert gas system is designed to relieve sudden large overpressures that exceed the capacity of the mechanical P/V valves? 910: When using a stabilogauge, unless the density correction is applied, the center of gravity of a loaded compartment is assumed to be located _________________________________. 911: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? 912: A "fifteen-pound" CO2 extinguisher is so called because ________. 913: On a vessel of 8,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 40 feet long and 20 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________. 914: What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"? 915: Which is/are required for engine exhaust pipe installations on small passenger vessels? 916: Who should inspect and test an inflatable life raft? 917: Foam-type portable fire extinguishers are most useful in combating fires involving ____________________. 918: Fires which occur in energized electrical equipment, such as switchboard insulation, are class ___. 919: After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent shock? 920: If a vessel lists to port, the center of buoyancy will ____. 921: You can determine that a CO2 fire extinguisher is fully charged by _______. 922: An upright vessel has negative GM. GM becomes positive at the angle of loll because the ___________. 923: You are at sea on a vessel whose beam is 60 feet and full period of roll is 20 seconds. What is the estimated metacentric height of the vessel? 924: What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - assistance will be given as soon as possible"? 925: The center of flotation of a vessel is the geometric center of the _______. 926: Inflatable life rafts must be overhauled and inspected at a U.S. Coast Guard approved service facility every ______. 927: The extinguishing agent most effective for combating wood fires is ________. 928: A fire in the Loran gear would be of what class? 929: According to Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage containing plastic is permitted to be disposed of by ____________. 930: Semi-portable extinguishers used on inspected vessels are sizes _____. 931: The major cause of shock in burn victims is the ________. 932: Portable CO2 fire extinguishers should NOT be used to inert a space containing flammable liquids due to the danger of _________. 933: You are at sea on a vessel whose beam is 40 feet and the full rolling period is 20 seconds. What is the estimated metacentric height of the vessel? 934: The signal used with shore lifesaving equipment to indicate, "Affirmative" is _______. 935: If an airplane circles a vessel 3 times, crosses the vessel's course close ahead while rocking the wings, and heads off in a certain direction, what does this indicate? 936: If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, how should they be maintained? 937: On a class "B" fire, which portable fire extinguisher would be the LEAST desirable? 938: A magnesium fire is classified as class ___. 939: CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system must be pressure tested at least every _____________. 940: When a vessel is inclined by an external force, the ______. 941: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? 942: A fifteen-pound CO2 extinguisher ___________________. 943: You are at sea on a vessel that has a beam of 60 feet, and you calculate the period of roll to be 25 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height? 944: The lifesaving signal indicating "You are seen - assistance will be given as soon as possible" is the _____. 945: The color of rockets, shells, or rocket parachute flares used to indicate that the vessel is in distress and requires immediate assistance is ______________. 946: What material is allowed in construction of the hull of a vessel with an integral diesel fuel tank ? 947: When fighting an oil or gasoline fire in the bilge, which of the following should NOT be used? 948: Fires in combustible metals, such as sodium or magnesium, are classified as class ________. 950: Your vessel has taken a slight list from off-center loading of material on deck. The _____. 951: If a crewman suffers a second-degree burn on the arm, you should ____________________. 952: Which is the proper method of determining whether a portable CO2 fire extinguisher needs recharging? 953: You are at sea on a vessel that has a beam of 50 feet, and you calculate the period of roll to be 22 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height? 954: Which is the lifesaving signal for, "This is the best place to land"? 955: If another station sent you the signal "KG", he would be _________. 956: Inflatable life rafts on vessels on an international voyage must be able to carry between __________________. 957: An engine compartment gasoline fire requires which type of extinguisher? 958: Which substance might be subject to spontaneous combustion? 959: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? 960: Your vessel has just finished bunkering and has a small list due to improper distribution of the fuel oil. This list will cause _____. 961: Safety is increased if _____________________. 962: A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be recharged ____. 963: Your vessel has a displacement of 19,800 tons. It is 464 feet long, and has a beam of 64 feet. You have timed its full rolling period to be 21.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM? 964: Which signal is used by a rescue unit to indicate, "Avast hauling"? 965: What statement about immersion suits is TRUE? 966: On vessels on an international voyage, each inflatable life raft shall have a carrying capacity of not less than __________. 967: Gasoline fuel tanks on small passenger vessels must be installed ____________. 968: Which condition is necessary for a substance to burn? 969: That center around which a vessel trims is called the _______. 970: During cargo operations, your vessel develops a list due to the center of gravity rising above the transverse metacenter. To correct the list, you should _____. 971: When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or life raft? 972: Which statement concerning carbon dioxide is FALSE? 973: You are on a vessel that has a metacentric height of 1.0 foot and a beam of 40 feet. What can you expect the rolling period of the vessel to be? 974: On board small passenger vessels the minimum fill pipe size for a gasoline or diesel tank is ____________. 975: The waiting signal in code for all forms of signaling is _______. 976: Inflatable liferafts carried on passenger vessels must be annually ____________. 977: Which type of fire is the foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher effective on? 978: You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride? 979: When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or life raft? 980: Assuming an even transverse distribution of weight in a vessel, which condition could cause a list? 981: Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may ___________________. 982: In continuous operation, the effective range of the 15 pound CO2 extinguisher is limited to _______________. 983: Your vessel has a metacentric height of 1.12 feet and a beam of 60 feet. Your average rolling period will be _____. 984: The lifesaving signal indicated by a horizontal motion of a white light or white flare means ___________________. 985: What should be used to send the group BEARING 074ø TRUE? 986: According to Coast Guard Regulations (CFR 33), the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan must include __________. 987: Which extinguishing agent will cool down a heated bulkhead in the least amount of time? 988: Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on board a vessel? 989: First-, second-, and third-degree burns are classified according to the _____________________. 990: If your vessel will list with equal readiness to either side, the list is most likely caused by ____. 991: Fire extinguishing agents used on Class C fires must be ________. 992: On small passenger vessels gasoline tanks must be _______. 993: If your vessel has a GM of one foot and a breadth of 50 feet, what will be your full rolling period? 994: The signal to guide vessels in distress, which indicates, "This is the best place to land" is the ________________. 995: If you receive a message "A243" by any method of signaling, it would be referring to _________________. 996: What is the penalty for failure to enforce, or comply with, the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations? 997: Which fire-fighting agent is most effective at removing heat? 998: Fire extinguishers of sizes III, IV, and V are designated as ________. 999: A documented vessel operating over 50 miles offshore must carry an inflatable life raft with a __________. 1000: A vessel continually lists to one side and has a normal rolling period. Which statement is TRUE? 1001: Which statement about entering into a tank which has been sealed for a long time is TRUE? 1002: How do you operate a portable CO2 fire extinguisher? 1003: You are on a vessel that has a metacentric height of 4 feet, and a beam of 50 feet. What can you expect the rolling period of the vessel to be? 1004: The lifesaving signal used to indicate, "Landing here highly dangerous" is _________________. 1005: Which signal should be used to send the group "Distance 750 nautical miles"? 1006: An immersion suit must be equipped with a(n) ____________. 1007: What is the BEST conductor of electricity? 1008: A minor heat burn of the eye should be treated by _________. 1009: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 1010: Which action will best increase the transverse stability of a merchant vessel at sea? 1011: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating? 1012: The discharge from a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be directed __________________. 1013: If it is impractical to use the fill line to sound the fuel tank, then the tank should be fitted with _________. (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations) 1014: Which signal would be used by a shore rescue unit to indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"? 1015: Which group should be used to send the signal Longitude 109ø34' West? 1016: What is the maximum length of time that distress flares are approved for? 1017: The extinguishing agent most likely to allow reignition of a fire is _____________________. 1019: You are operating 10 miles offshore with three people aboard. What kind of survival craft must you carry? 1020: Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating? 1021: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating? 1022: When fighting a fire on a bulkhead using a portable carbon dioxide extinguisher, the stream should be directed at the ________. 1023: Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red Sea, how many nautical miles from land must you be to throw packing materials that will float into the sea? 1024: The firing of a red star signal may mean __________________. 1025: Which group should be used to send the signal "Latitude 73ø25' North"? 1026: A life raft with a capacity of 8 people used in ocean service is required by regulations to carry ________. 1027: What is the most important characteristic of the extinguishing agent in fighting a class "C" fire? 1028: Symptoms of heat stroke are _____. 1029: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating? 1030: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while navigating? 1031: What is the major function of the deck water seal in an inert gas system? 1032: When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide _____. 1033: Your vessel has been in a collision. After assessing the damage, you begin down flooding. This will cause the KB to do what? 1034: Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating? 1035: The letter G, when sent with a complement, may be followed by ______. 1036: Life preservers must be marked with the _________________. 1037: What is the minimum size power-driven vessel, not engaged in towing, required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations? 1038: You are piloting a vessel, which is required to have a radiotelephone, on the navigable waters of the United States. You must _____. 1039: On board small passenger vessels, fill lines and sounding pipes of gasoline tanks must extend directly _____________. 1040: General requirements for a vessel's radiotelephone station log are that _______________________. 1041: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 2685 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.4 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. 1042: Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a small enclosed space? 1043: Your vessel is damaged and on an even keel. There is no trim. The freeboard is reduced to less than 1 foot. The rolling period is very long, and the vessel is sluggish in returning from a roll. Which action would you take FIRST to improve stability? 1044: What is the lifesaving signal for, "You are seen - assistance will be given as soon as possible"? 1045: Which group would be used to send the signal Greenwich mean time 11:35 pm? 1046: On small passenger vessels a gasoline tank vent pipe must ___________. 1047: The main advantage of a steady stream of water on a class "A" fire is that it _________________. 1048: The angle of maximum righting arm corresponds approximately to the angle of _________________. 1049: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 1050: A gasoline fuel tank vent on a small passenger vessel should terminate ___________. 1051: The fresh air intake of the inert gas system _____, 1052: The danger associated with using carbon dioxide in an enclosed space is ______________. 1053: Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. The rolling period is long, and the vessel will occasionally assume a starboard list. Which action should you take FIRST? 1054: By day, the signal meaning, "This is the best place to land" is a _________________. 1055: The signal K4 sent by any method means _____________. 1056: U.S.C.G. approved buoyant work vests are considered to be items of safety equipment and may be worn by members of the crew ________. 1057: The primary method by which water fog puts out fires is by ______. 1058: Which statement describes the relationship between flash point and auto-ignition temperature? 1059: Provided every effort is made to preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without water? 1060: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. 1061: What are the symptoms of sun stroke? 1062: Weight is considered during the periodic required inspection and servicing of _______________. 1063: Gasoline tank vent lines on board small passenger vessels must be fitted with removable flame screens _____________. 1064: By day, the horizontal motion of a white flag, or arms extended horizontally, by a person on the beach indicates _____________. 1065: Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your life jacket and report to your station. After the cover is removed you board your open lifeboat boat. The FIRST thing to do is to _______. 1066: Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________________. 1067: A large oil fire on the deck of a ship can be fought most effectively with _____________. 1068: The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the ___________. 1069: After the initial AMVER Position Report, sent by a vessel sailing foreign, subsequent Position Reports must be sent no less frequently than every _____________. 1070: On small passenger vessels, fuel lines may be made of _____. 1071: Aboard small passenger vessels, which material may be used for diesel fuel line installations but not for gasoline fuel lines? 1072: A combustible gas indicator will NOT operate correctly when the _________. 1073: Your vessel is damaged and partially flooded. It is listing 12ø to port and trimmed 8 feet down by the head. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll. Which action should you take FIRST? 1074: Which one of the following signals is made at night by a lifesaving station to indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"? 1075: Prior to lowering the lifeboat, the most important item to check is the _______________. 1076: The life jackets on all vessels shall be _________. 1077: A vessel's KG is determined by _____. 1078: The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is ______. 1079: What alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system? 1080: A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located in a MARPOL designated special area, 14 nautical miles from nearest land. What type of garbage is permitted to be discharged? 1081: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT _________. 1082: Which statement is TRUE concerning combustible gas indicators? 1083: On board small passenger vessels, fittings used in a gasoline supply line must be ___. 1084: On small passenger vessels, what type of devices are required at both the tank and engine connections of all internal combustion engine fuel lines? 1085: When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines ____________________________. 1086: Required lifesaving equipment on existing vessels may be continued in use on the vessel if ____________________. 1087: A combination or all-purpose nozzle produces ___________. 1088: The flash point of a liquid means the temperature ________. 1089: During counterflooding to correct a severe list aggravated by an off-center load, your vessel suddenly takes a list or trim to the opposite side. You should ________________. 1090: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 1091: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 1092: Which statement is TRUE concerning a combustible gas indicator? 1093: On small passenger vessels, which device(s) must be fitted to a fuel line's tank connection? 1094: A small craft advisory forecasts winds of up to what speed? 1095: When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged _____. 1096: What is the minimum number of ring life buoys required on board a 275-foot self-propelled cargo vessel engaged in coastwise trade, operating 15 miles off the east coast of the United States? 1097: Foam extinguishes a fire by ________________. 1098: Which statement is TRUE concerning the "flash point" of a substance? 1099: On small passenger vessels, shut-off valves must be installed on both gasoline and diesel fuel supply lines _____________. 1100: The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the _________. 1101: A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of the right foot. Which is NOT an acceptable first aid measure? 1102: While using a combustible gas indicator, if the hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere exceeds the U.E.L., the needle of the indicator will ___________________________. 1103: A vessel is "listed" when it is ______________________. 1104: When there is a small craft advisory winds are predicted up to ______. 1105: In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released? 1106: On small passenger vessels, when may a flexible hose be used in gasoline or diesel fuel lines? 1107: In the production of chemical foam by a continuous-type generator __________________. 1108: The vapor pressure of a substance ______________. 1109: On small passenger vessels, drains or outlets for drawing off diesel fuel from water traps or strainers must ____________. 1110: Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by ______. 1111: On small passenger vessels, outlets in fuel lines are permitted ___________. 1112: A combustible gas indicator meter is calibrated to read the percentage of ___________________. 1113: Releasing oil from the sea anchor of a lifeboat may ________. 1114: The National Weather Service differentiates between small craft, gale, whole gale, and hurricane warnings by the _____. 1115: When launching a lifeboat, the tricing pennants should be released _________________. 1116: Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain ________. 1117: Production of mechanical foam by a portable in-line foam proportioner _______________. 1118: The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by it's ________________. 1119: A fill pipe for a gasoline tank on board a small passenger vessel must be ________. 1120: You will find a limit switch on a __________. 1121: In illustration DO11SA, number 1 operates the __________. 1122: A combustible gas indicator will operate correctly ONLY when the ________. 1123: On small passenger vessels, all spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks must be ventilated with _____________. 1124: Spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks on small passenger vessels should have ventilator ducts that extend to the bilges because _____________. 1125: What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter? 1126: Aboard small passenger vessels which type(s) of ventilation must be provided for enclosed spaces containing gasoline engines or gasoline fuel tanks? 1127: Compared to the amount of concentrated foam liquid used, the amount of low expansion mechanical foam produced is _______. 1128: Most small passenger vessels have an auxiliary steering arrangement. According to the regulations, which is acceptable as a substitute for the auxiliary steering system? 1129: What is NOT a function of the scrubber of an inert gas system? 1130: What is the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits? 1131: If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations, what action should you take FIRST? 1132: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, how long should exhaust blowers be operated in enclosed spaces containing gasoline powered machinery before starting the engine? 1133: If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, you should _______________. 1134: On board small passenger vessels, ducts for compartments which contain gasoline powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks ________________. 1135: Which statement about the bilge piping system of "T-Boats" that are more than 26 feet in length is NOT correct? 1136: The breaking strength of the service lines of the rockets used with line throwing appliances is ________________. 1137: One gallon of low expansion foam solution will produce about _________. 1138: What is LEAST likely to cause ignition of fuel vapors? 1139: You are at the helm of a sloop-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the port tack, on a beam reach, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "head up quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should ___________________. 1140: Limit switches are used on which davits? 1141: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? 1142: While testing a cargo tank, your oxygen indicator reads 25% oxygen in the tank. You would then _______. 1143: For pumping the bilges, a 54 foot long "T-Boat", which is not a ferry, but is certificated to carry 30 passengers, must be fitted with at least ____________________. 1144: Aboard a 60 foot long small passenger vessel (other than a ferry) which is certificated to carry 33 persons, the minimum capacity required per bilge pump is ____________. 1145: When hoisting a boat on gravity type davits using an electric motor driven winch, the davit arms should be brought up __________. 1146: Which vessel is NOT required to carry a rocket-type line throwing appliance? 1147: In addition to a portable hand-operated bilge pump, a 55 foot long ferry must have a fixed power operated bilge pump capable of pumping at least ___________. 1148: Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in _________. 1149: If the metacentric height is small, a vessel will ________. 1150: After the boat is at the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks and are stopped by the ____. 1151: Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of _____. 1152: Hand tillers are only accepted as an auxiliary means of steering if __________. 1153: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, rigid plastic and other non-metallic piping materials __________. 1154: On a small passenger vessel, backfire flame arrestors are installed on a/an __________. 1155: When picking up a lifeboat at sea with way on the ship, the sea painter should be secured ______________________. 1156: Which statement is TRUE concerning the testing of the line-throwing appliance? 1157: When using the combustible gas indicator, a special filter for filtering the incoming sample must be used if the atmosphere being tested contains vapors of ______________. 1158: Spontaneous combustion is caused by __________________. 1159: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3315 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.0 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. 1160: Frapping lines ___________. 1161: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "A" hoisted. What should you do? 1162: Which instrument is suitable for determining the presence of explosive concentrations of fuel oil vapors in tanks? 1163: Individual wires, used in systems greater than 50 volts, ___________________. 1164: A drill must be conducted in the use of the line throwing appliance at least once in every _________________. 1165: When in command of a lifeboat under oars, the command "Backwater" means to _______________________. 1166: What is NOT a requirement for testing the line throwing appliance on a vessel? 1167: A pumproom is suspected of accumulating gases after a ventilation machinery breakdown. Where should the combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing the pumproom atmosphere for combustible gases? 1168: What is the maximum oxygen content below which flaming combustion will no longer occur? 1169: Your vessel's draft is 24'-06" forward and aft. The MT1 of your vessel is 1000 ft-tons. How many tons of cargo must be loaded in number 4 hold, which is 100 feet abaft the tipping center, if she is to have a 2 foot drag? 1170: When operating gravity davits, the _______________. 1171: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 1172: What could result in an incorrect oxygen concentration reading on the oxygen indicator? 1173: On small passenger vessels all connections to electrical conductors MUST be ________. 1174: In general, batteries aboard small passenger vessels should be ________. 1175: When in command of a lifeboat under oars, the command "Toss oars" means to ___________________. 1176: Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. The auxiliary line must _________. 1177: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? 1178: The lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of ignition is called ______. 1179: Storage batteries on T-Boats must be located __________. 1180: When using the hand crank on gravity davits, you should ALWAYS _____. 1181: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4145 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 25.5 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. 1182: An oxygen indicator can be used to determine if there is _________. 1183: The engine in a covered lifeboat is fueled with __________. 1184: If an inflatable liferaft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord be attached before throwing the raft overboard? 1185: If the steersman of your lifeboat gives the command "Way enough", you should _____________. 1186: On a rigid life raft which is equipped with all of the required equipment you may NOT find a ___________. 1187: A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to ___________. 1188: The most effective way to apply a foam stream if the fire is on deck or is a running fire, is to direct the stream _____. 1189: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 1190: What could be a result of insufficient lubrication of lifeboat winches and davits? 1191: According to the T-Boat regulations the reason for providing adequate ventilation for a battery storage area is to prevent ___________. 1192: Which statement is TRUE concerning the oxygen indicator? 1193: On small passenger, vessels spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because it _______________. 1194: Which operation should be done when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand? 1195: The command "Oars" means to ___________________________. 1196: The knife on an inflatable liferaft will always be located ________. 1197: A squeeze-grip type carbon-dioxide portable fire- extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be ____________________. 1198: Lead-acid batteries used aboard "T-Boats" must have terminal connections that are ___________. 1199: To prevent damage by and to storage batteries aboard small passenger vessels they should be located ___________. 1200: What is TRUE concerning frapping lines? 1201: While taking on fuel oil, the transfer hose leaks causing a sheen on the water. You should ________________. 1202: Which is the most accurate instrument for measuring the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere of a confined space? 1203: You are discharging cargo and the inert gas system is in operation to inert the tanks. The pressure in a tank being pumped starts to drop below the allowable limit. What action should you take? 1204: Generally, when lifting an inflatable life raft back aboard ship you would use the ___________________. 1205: On board small passenger vessels, storage batteries containing an electrolyte must be set in trays constructed of _____________. 1206: Inflatable life rafts are provided with a _______________. 1207: Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress fire? 1208: A vessel aground may have negative GM since the _________. 1209: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to ________. 1210: The tricing pendants should be released ___________________. 1211: A crew member suffering from hypothermia should be given ____________________. 1212: Ambient air, which you normally breathe, contains what percent of oxygen? 1213: When a wind force causes a vessel to heel to a static angle, the ______. 1214: An inflatable life raft should be lifted back aboard the ship by using _______________. 1215: According to the regulations for small passenger vessels, fuses and circuit breakers are used in electrical circuits to ___________. 1216: After launching, an inflatable raft should be kept dry inside by ________. 1217: Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for use on electrical fires? 1218: To safely enter a compartment where CO2 has been released from a fixed extinguishing system, you should ____________. 1219: 46 CFR Subchapter T requires that rigid plastic or other non-metallic piping __________. 1220: Lines passed around the falls to hold the boat while passengers are boarding are _________________. 1221: Which operation may cause the pressure in an inert tank to fall below the prescribed limits? 1222: After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument should be purged with _________________. 1223: The survival craft carried aboard a commercial fishing vessel must safely accommodate _____________. 1224: In order to retrieve an inflatable life raft and place it on deck, you should heave on the _____________. 1225: If the coxswain of your lifeboat gives the command "HOLD WATER" you should _________________. 1226: For what purpose may gasoline be used on small passenger vessels? 1227: Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires? 1228: When approaching a fire from leeward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using ___________________. 1229: Which T-Boat must be fitted with a suitable compass? 1230: The purpose of the tricing pendants is to _________________. 1231: A "T-Boat" accident resulting in loss of life, serious injury or more than $25,000 property damage must be reported to ______________. 1232: A marine chemist issues gas free certificates and is certified by which organization? 1233: The owner, agent, Master or person-in-charge of a small passenger vessel involved in a marine casualty is NOT required to notify the Coast Guard in cases where there is ____________. 1234: When landing a lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from seaward) the recommended procedure is to _____________. 1235: Which procedure should NOT be done for a person who has fainted? 1236: Inflatable liferafts are provided with _____________. 1237: Portable-foam fire extinguishers are designed for use on what classes of fires? 1238: When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method of applying water is best? 1239: With the air supply on, the air pressure in an enclosed lifeboat will be _____________. 1240: On open lifeboats, the purpose of the wire stretched between the davit heads is to ______. 1241: Your ship of 12,000 tons displacement has a center of gravity of 21.5 feet above the keel. You run aground and estimate the weight aground is 2500 tons. The virtual rise in the center of gravity is _____________. 1242: The bosun has thrown the liferaft into the water before abandoning the vessel. The operating cord ___________. 1243: What is TRUE about hoisting operations? 1244: The painter on a rigid life raft shall be of _____. 1245: The Master of a small passenger vessel fitted with loading doors must ensure that the doors are closed, watertight and secured ______________. 1246: Inflatable life rafts are provided with ___________________. 1247: The BEST method of applying foam to a fire is to __________. 1248: In the event of fire in a machinery space, ________________. 1249: Which area is designated a special area by Annex V to MARPOL 1250: The falls on gravity davits are ___________. 1251: The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is _______. 1252: When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical fire extinguisher, the stream should be directed _______________. 1253: If there are no alternatives for escape, what is the maximum height that the survival craft could be dropped into the water? 1254: The painter of the inflatable life raft has a length of __________. 1255: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is ____________. 1256: The water pockets located on the underside of inflatable liferafts _____. 1257: Providing you are not sailing in the Red Sea or another special area as listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL, how many miles from land must you be to throw garbage including bottles, rags, and glass that has not been ground up into the sea? 1258: On a bulk chemical carrier, water should NOT be used as an extinguishing agent to fight a fire if the water may come into contact with the chemical called _____________. 1259: Who must make or supervise the changeover from automatic to manual steering and vice versa? 1260: The type of davit on which you must turn a crank in order to swing the lifeboat out over the ship's side is a __________. 1261: On small passenger vessels, when must watchmen patrol throughout the vessel to guard against and give alarm in case of fire or other danger? 1262: Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility? 1263: When chipping rust on a vessel, the MOST important piece of safety gear is ________________________. 1264: The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft should be renewed by _____________________. 1265: The Master of a small passenger vessel must conduct sufficient drills and give sufficient instruction as necessary __________. 1266: A life line must be connected to the life raft __________. 1267: According to the Code of Federal Regulations, how is a lifeboat weight test required to be conducted on a river passenger vessel? 1268: Where must the draft or loading marks be placed on a small passenger vessel? 1269: Life floats and buoyant apparatus used aboard small passenger vessels shall be marked in clearly legible letters and numbers _____________. 1270: The most common type of davit found on merchant vessels today is the ___________. 1271: The primary danger in helicopter fires is _____________. 1272: When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using _______________. 1273: In launching a covered lifeboat, what would safely lower the lifeboat from inside the lifeboat cabin? 1274: On inflatable life rafts, the operating cord should be renewed by _______. 1275: A documented vessel's name is marked on a clearly visible exterior area of both sides of the bow and on the stern in block letters not less than _______________. 1276: The lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable life raft operate _____. 1277: When possible, what is the FIRST step in fighting an engine fuel-pump fire which results from a broken fuel line? 1278: An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors, removes oxygen, and provides a heat and smoke screen is ______. 1279: On a documented small passenger vessel, what information must be permanently affixed in block-type letters and/or numerals to the main beam or other clearly visible interior structural part of the hull? 1280: On which type davit does the davit head stay at the same height? 1281: You are in the process of righting an inflatable life raft that has inflated in an upside down position. Which statement is TRUE? 1282: When approaching a fire from leeward you should shield fire fighters from the fire by using ____________. 1283: The liquid-filled PV breaker has acted to relieve a vacuum in a tank. What action must be taken in regards to the breaker before continuing operations? 1284: The operating cord on an inflatable life raft also serves as a _______. 1285: You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. To prevent broaching, you should _________________. 1286: The inside light in an inflatable life raft is turned on _______. 1287: When possible, what should be the FIRST step in combating a fire on deck resulting from a cargo overflow or a leaking cargo line? 1288: Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires? 1289: An undocumented vessel with 10 people aboard and operating 25 miles off the seacoast must carry a survival craft of the _________________. 1290: Which davit type may be operated by one man? 1291: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of THe Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 1292: What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire? 1293: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 1294: According to the "T-Boat" regulations, the permanent marks placed on each side of a vessel forward, aft, and amidships to indicate the maximum allowable draft and trim are called _____________. 1295: If you must land on a beach with an oar-propelled lifeboat through a heavy surf, the recommended method is to ________. 1296: Hand holds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are provided _____________________. 1297: A small passenger vessel of not more than 65 feet in length must have a collision bulkhead if it _____________. 1298: If a powdered aluminum fire is being fought, the correct extinguishing agent would be _____________________. 1299: In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, what would you AVOID doing? 1300: Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum safety factor of _________________________. 1301: A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is 24 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged? 1302: A class B fire is most successfully fought by _____________. 1303: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, where practicable carburetor drip collectors should drain to ________________. 1304: The painter of an inflatable life raft should be ________. 1305: When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-hand propeller) with the rudder amidships, the stern will back _________. 1306: Water pockets on the underside of an inflatable life raft are for _________. 1307: Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam _________. 1308: What would be the most effective agent to use to extinguish a fire in drums of inflammable liquids stowed on the weather deck of a vessel? 1309: On small passenger vessels which type of internal combustion engine carburetor does not require a drip collector? 1310: Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to __________. 1311: Which statement about pneumatic chipping tools is TRUE? 1312: The best method of extinguishing a class A fire is to _____. 1313: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3224 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 29.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. 1314: Under normal conditions a liferaft is released from its cradle by ___________. 1315: In heavy seas you decide to heave to. The lifeboat should be ______. 1316: The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft will provide protection against ____________________. 1317: The most effective way of applying carbon dioxide from a portable extinguisher to a fire is by _____________________. 1318: The most effective fire extinguishing agent to use on burning linen is _____________. 1319: Where should muster lists be posted? 1320: Fire extinguishers on inspected vessels are numbered by size I through V, with I being _________________. 1321: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged? 1322: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged? 1323: How should latitude 51²48.7' S be written when preparing an AMVER report? 1324: A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft __________. 1325: If absolutely necessary, the best way to land on a beach in a motor lifeboat is to ___________. 1326: All inflatable life rafts have _________________. 1327: If you are forced to abandon ship in a life raft, your course of action should be to ___________. 1328: Any extinguishing agent used on a Class "C" fire must have which important property? 1329: The sprinkler system of a covered lifeboat is used to _____. 1330: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged? 1331: A Certificate of Financial Responsibility attests that the vessel _______. 1332: An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to _______. 1333: If you reef a marconi mainsail, the sail area ____________. 1334: An inflatable liferaft should be manually released from its cradle by ______. 1335: What prevents an inflated life raft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet in depth? 1336: A feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people stationary in rough weather is _____________________. 1337: It is desirable to have screens on the vents of potable water tanks to _______________. 1338: Regular foam can be used on all but which flammable liquid? 1339: The static stability curve for a given vessel peaks at 34ø. For this ship, the danger angle for a permanent list would be about _______. 1340: When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam will _____. 1341: Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water to ________. 1342: If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST ____. 1343: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 26'-09", AFT 28'-03". The KG is 25.4 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline). 1344: What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable life raft? 1345: An inflatable life raft can be launched by _____________. 1346: The canopy of an inflatable liferaft should ______________. 1347: A quick and rapid motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a(n) ___________. 1348: Dry chemical fire extinguishers are effective on which type(s) of fire? 1349: What type of liquid is used in the liquid P/V breaker? 1350: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? 1351: While operating off the coast of Greece, a seaman is injured. What indicator should be in the preamble of a radiotelegram asking for medical advice from a Greek station? 1352: If you have a fire in the engine room, your FIRST act should be to ___________________. 1353: In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the motor lifeboat ________. 1354: If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperative, it will NOT ___________. 1355: As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet, the hydrostatic trip releases the life raft container from its cradle by _____________________. 1356: What is placed on the under side of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the wind or overturned? 1357: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 2.9 feet and drafts of: FWD 17'-10", AFT 19'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tanks you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.9 feet. 1358: Which extinguishing agent is best for use on a magnesium fire? 1359: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as boat number ___. 1360: When lowering a boat with gravity davits, it will be pulled into the embarkation deck by the ___________. 1361: What is the minimum diameter allowed for bilge piping on small passenger vessels which are more than 65 feet in length? 1362: On small passenger vessels, backfire flame arrestors are installed on ___________. 1363: Before entering the chain locker, you should ____________. 1364: Signaling devices required on inflatable life rafts include a(n) ________. 1365: The most important thing to remember when launching an inflatable life raft by hand is to ____________________. 1366: The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable life raft will provide protection against _____________________. 1367: Determine the free surface constant for a fuel oil tank 30 ft. long by 40 ft. wide by 15 ft. deep. The specific gravity of the fuel oil is .85 and the ship is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). 1368: A fire in electrical equipment should be extinguished by using ______. 1369: A cargo of 50 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's centerline. The vessel's displacement including the 50 ton cargo will be 3,000 tons and the GM three feet. The list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be _______. 1370: The regulations that were passed to implement MARPOL 73/78 apply to a U.S. flag vessel on which waters? 1371: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? 1372: It is necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire to __________________. 1373: You are reading draft marks on a vessel. The water level is halfway between the bottom of the number 5 and the top of the number 5. What is the draft of the vessel? 1374: Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using ______. 1375: To launch a life raft by hand you should _____________. 1376: Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean service and could be effectively used to attract the attention of aircraft at night? 1377: On a vessel of 34,000 tons displacement, a tank 80 ft. long, 60 ft. wide and 30 ft. deep is half filled with fresh water (SG 1.000) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (SG 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank? 1378: The most effective cooling agent among those normally used to fight fires is ___________. 1379: Which statement about inert gas pressures in a cargo tank is TRUE? 1380: A cargo of 100 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the 100 tons of cargo will be 10,000 tons and the GM two feet. The list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be _________. 1381: Large volumes of carbon dioxide are safe and effective for fighting fires in enclosed spaces, such as in a pumproom, provided that the ____________. 1382: Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is burning are normally closed to prevent the rapid spread of the fire by _________________. 1383: Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE? 1384: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, rigid plastic or other non-metallic piping ____________. 1385: An inflatable life raft is hand-launched by ___________. 1386: If the metacentric height is large, a vessel will ________. 1387: In painting a lifeboat following its overhaul, which parts must be painted bright red? 1388: Which extinguishing agent will absorb the most heat? 1389: Which statement about the inert gas system is TRUE? 1390: Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed in gravity davits? 1391: Halon extinguishes fire primarily by _____. 1392: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by ___________________. 1393: You are reading the draft marks. The water level is about 4 inches below the bottom of the number 11. What is the draft? 1394: In each inflatable raft, what piece of equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to a large hole in a raft? 1395: After you have thrown the life raft and stowage container into the water, you inflate the life raft by ______________. 1396: If you find an inflatable life raft container with steel bands around the case, you should _________________. 1397: To reduce mild fever the MOST useful drug is __________. 1398: The size of fire hydrant hose connections on a cargo vessel must be either 1-1/2 inches or _________________. 1399: How should longitude 116²24.3' W be written when preparing an AMVER report? 1400: In rough weather, when a ship is able to maneuver, it is best to launch a lifeboat _________________________. 1401: Which statement about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT? 1402: When using carbon dioxide to fight a fire on a bulkhead, the CO2 should be applied _____________________. 1403: What action must be taken when an individual cargo tank is closed off from the inert gas system by the tank isolation valve? 1404: Signaling devices which are required on inflatable life rafts include _____________. 1405: When launching an inflatable life raft, you should make sure that the operating cord is _____________________. 1406: The principal danger from ice collecting on a vessel is the____________________. 1407: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by what letter? 1408: What is NOT a characteristic of carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing agents? 1409: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-04", AFT 13'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed as LOAD 109 will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 1411: Which statement about entry into a space that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE? 1412: By regulation, cargo tanks must be inert before and during what operation? 1413: Your vessel is damaged, and there is no list or trim. The rolling period is short. The freeboard before the damage was 12'02" (3.7 meters). It is now reduced to 3'00"(1 meter). Which action would you take FIRST? 1415: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The water level forward is at the top of the 8, and the mean water level aft is at the top of the 8. What is the mean draft? 1416: You will extinguish a fire when you remove _____________. 1417: A vessel is "listed" when it is __________________. 1418: Which is the MOST important consideration for a tank vessel? 1419: Your vessel is listing 4ø to port and has a short rolling period. There is loose firefighting water in the hull. The ship is trimmed down by the head with one foot of freeboard at the bow. Which action should you take FIRST? 1420: Which statement about the pressure in a tank being inerted by an inert gas system is TRUE? 1422: Mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or boat hoists should ___________________________. 1423: A weight of 250 tons is loaded on your vessel 95 feet forward of the tipping center. The vessel's MT1 is 1000 ft-tons. What is the total change of trim? 1424: Halon gas will decompose and may form very hazardous toxic fumes when discharged _________________. 1425: Which advantage does dry chemical have over carbon dioxide (CO2) in firefighting? 1426: A vessel aground may have negative GM since the __________. 1427: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars indicated in illustration D007SA. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by which letter? 1428: A Halon 1301 cylinder contains 100 pounds of liquid at 360 psi. It must be recharged when the pressure drops below how many psi? 1429: When collecting condensation for drinking water, _________. 1430: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 6422 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 26.6 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. 1431: Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon 1301? 1432: You are reading the draft marks. The top 2 inches of the 9 forward is visible above the water level, and the water level is four inches below the 10 aft. What is the mean draft? 1433: You should NOT use a power tool if _________________. 1434: Halon fire extinguishers are NOT effective when used on which types of fires? 1435: After the initial cleaning of flue gas in an inert gas system the gas is passed through what device for final cleaning? 1436: Your vessel's draft is 16'-00" fwd. and 18'-00" aft. The MT1 is 500 ft-tons. How many tons of water must be shifted from the after peak to the forepeak, a distance of 250 feet, to bring her to an even draft forward and aft? 1437: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by which letter? 1438: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine to indicate an emergency condition within the submarine is ___________. 1439: Safety goggles or glasses are NOT normally worn when ______. 1440: A ship is inclined by moving a weight of 30 tons a distance of 30 ft. from the centerline. A 28-foot pendulum shows a deflection of 12 inches. Displacement including weight moved is 4,000 tons. KM is 27.64 feet. What is the KG? 1441: On small passenger vessels, how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks? 1442: If the cause of severe list or trim is off-center ballast, counterflooding into empty tanks will _______________. 1443: When jumping into water upon which there is an oil-fire, you should ________________________. 1444: A stored-pressure water extinguisher is most effective against fires of class _____________. 1445: When instructing a crew member concerning the right way to lift a weight, you would instruct him to _________________. 1446: A vessel's mean draft is 29'-07". At this draft, the TPI is 152. The mean draft after loading 1360 tons will be ___________. 1447: Why is carbon dioxide (CO2) better than dry chemical for fighting a class "C" fire? 1448: After making the required notification that a large oil spill into the water has occurred, the FIRST action should be to _____________. 1449: A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located 10 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged? 1450: When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under _____. 1451: Before counterflooding to correct a list, you must be sure the list is due to _____________. 1452: First aid means __________________________. 1453: The hoods over galley ranges present what major hazard? 1454: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars indicated in illustration D005SA. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by what letter? 1455: Which statement about AMVER reports is TRUE? 1456: You are reading the draft marks. The water level is at the bottom of number 11. What is the draft? 1457: When choosing extinguishers to fight a Class "B" fire do NOT use _____. 1458: Your vessel displaces 14,500 tons, with a longitudinal CG 247.5 ft. aft of the FP. If you pump 80 tons of ballast from forward to aft through a distance of 480 feet, your new CG will be ___________________. 1461: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by what letter? 1462: In cleaning up an oil spill, chemical agents would ________. 1463: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should ____. 1464: What is NOT a function of the air supply of a covered lifeboat? 1466: You used a carbon dioxide (CO2) fire extinguisher but did not empty the extinguisher. You must have it recharged if the weight loss exceeds ____________________. 1467: Your vessel has a forward draft of 26'-11" and an after draft of 29'-07". How many tons of cargo can be loaded before the vessel reaches a mean draft of 28'-06 inches if the TPI is 69? 1468: You are on the SS American Mariner and involved in a collision. Your draft has increased uniformly and there is about 4 feet of freeboard remaining. The vessel is on an even keel and has a long rolling period. The roll is sluggish, and the vessel hangs at the ends of a roll. Which of the following actions would you take first to correct the situation? 1469: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? 1470: If your vessel has a list to port due to negative GM and off-center weight, the first corrective measure you should take is to _______. 1471: What do regulations allow to be marked with EITHER the name of the fishing vessel OR the name of the person to whom it is assigned? 1472: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The water level forward is 4 inches below the 11, and the water level aft is 2 inches below the top of the 11. What is the mean draft? 1473: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars indicated in illustration D005SA. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by which letter? 1474: In cleaning up an oil spill, straw is an example of a ____. 1475: You need to pull the sea anchor back aboard your liferaft. What part of the anchor do you pull on? 1477: A fire starts on your vessel while refueling. You should FIRST _____. 1478: There is a fire in the crew's quarters of your vessel. You should _______________. 1479: If your vessel is aground at the bow, it would be preferable that any weight removals be made from the _________. 1480: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? 1481: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The water level is at the top of number 8. What is the draft? 1482: Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress fire? 1483: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 3.1 feet and drafts of: FWD 19'-06", AFT 21'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tank(s) you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.7 feet. 1484: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 3.1 feet and drafts of: FWD 16'-00", AFT 18'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tank(s) you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.6 feet. 1485: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? 1486: A cargo of 30 tons is to be loaded on deck 30 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the 30 tons cargo will be 9,000 tons and the GM will be 5 feet. The list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be _______. 1487: A vessel's heavy displacement is 24,500 tons with light displacement of 13,300 tons. Fully loaded it carries 300 tons of fuel and stores. What is the vessel's deadweight? 1488: When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam will ____________. 1489: The boat command that means complete the stroke and level the oars horizontally with the blades trimmed fore and aft is ________________________. 1490: You are reading the draft marks as shown. The water level forward leaves about 4 inches of the 11 visible, and the water level aft is at the top of the 10. What is the mean draft? 1491: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading almost due north when you head for Polaris which is marked by what letter? 1492: You have abandoned ship. There are several rafts in the water. One of the FIRST things to do is ________. 1493: A new liferaft has been installed on your vessel. The operating cord should be _____________. 1495: A weight of 350 tons is loaded on your vessel 85 feet forward of the tipping center. The vessel's MT1 is 1150 foot-tons. What is the total change of trim? 1496: Your vessel has been holed in #1 hold and partially flooded. The hole is plugged against further flooding. In calculating the effect of the flooding on your transverse stability, you should use which method? 1497: While operating off Panama a seaman is injured. What indicator should be included in the preamble of a radiotelegram requesting medical advice from a Panamanian station? 1498: The spread of fire is prevented by _____________. 1499: A cargo of 60 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's centerline. The vessel's displacement including the 60 ton cargo will be 6,000 tons and the GM two feet. The list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be _______. 1500: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of THe Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 1501: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading almost due north when you head for Polaris which is marked by which letter? 1502: A portable foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in _____________. 1503: If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be _________________. 1504: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The water level is about 4 inches below the bottom of 10. What is the draft? 1505: What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft? 1506: Before hydraulic starting of an engine on a covered lifeboat, what need NOT be checked? 1507: A thrust block is designed to _____________. 1508: Portable foam fire-extinguishers are designed for use on class ______. 1509: You are using an oxygen indicator. How long should you wait after the sample is drawn into the instrument before reading the meter? 1510: You have received a General Emergency message announcing the outbreak of war in Europe without the use of nuclear weapons and are directed to comply with the instructions in DMAHTC PUB 117, Chapter nine. Which statement is TRUE? 1511: Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency? 1512: Where would you find the draft marks on a ship? 1515: You see an iceberg that has not been reported. What kind of radio message do you transmit to warn others? 1516: While operating off the coast of Portugal, a seaman is injured. What indicator should be used in a message requesting medical advice from a Portuguese station? 1517: A double male coupling is one that ______________. 1518: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "J" hoisted. What should you do? 1519: All oil spills must be reported to the ________________. 1520: When operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat the ________. 1521: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading almost due north when you head for Polaris which is marked by what letter? 1522: The pollution prevention regulations in MARPOL apply to U. S. flag vessels _____. 1523: The term "oil" as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations means ________. 1524: A U.S. merchant vessel in ocean service is NOT subject tothe requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 _____. 1525: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The top 2 inches of number 9 are visible above the waterline. What is the draft? 1526: Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires? 1527: You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________. 1528: You are offloading garbage to another ship. Your records must identify that ship by name and show her __________. 1529: Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must be kept ____________. 1530: Which vessel in ocean service is not subject to Annex V of MARPOL 73/79? 1531: You intend to discharge medical or hazardous wastes ashore. MARPOL Annex V requires you to notify a receiving port or terminal in advance. How much advance notice is required? 1532: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars indicated in illustration D005SA. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris, which is indicated by what letter? 1533: Which statement is TRUE? 1534: Which statement is TRUE? 1535: Limit switches _________________. 1536: Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for putting out electrical fires? 1537: How should longitude 119ø56.3' W be written when preparing an AMVER report? 1538: Your oceangoing vessel is required to have a waste management plan. This plan must be in writing and describe procedures for ____________________. 1539: The AMVER system requires _____________. 1540: Which statement concerning the collection of fresh water is FALSE? 1541: Which would be considered pollution under the U.S. water pollution laws? 1542: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-04", AFT 13'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of THe Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 1543: The ship station license for your radiotelephone is valid for ____________. 1544: While operating your oceangoing vessel you must keep a record of any discharge or disposal of garbage. These entries shall be made __________________________. 1545: Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing hooks to prevent ____. 1546: What are the most important reasons for using water fog to fight fires? 1547: If you must swim through an oil fire, you should NOT _____. 1548: You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to ______________. 1549: You are sailing in a strong wind and may accidentally jibe when _______________. 1550: The purpose of a water spray system on a covered lifeboat is to _____. 1551: On inspected cargo vessels, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose which has a nominal diameter of _____. 1552: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND A sailing vessel must keep course and speed when ______________. 1553: What is an advantage of using foam in fire fighting? 1554: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 32'-04", AFT 34'-02". The KG is 31.5 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline). 1555: Seawater may be used for drinking ______________. 1556: Which fire extinguishing agent has the greatest capacity for absorbing heat? 1557: When a sea anchor for a lifeboat is properly rigged, it will _____. 1558: A Halon 1301 cylinder is periodically tested for weight loss and pressure loss. What minimum percentage of the full pressure can be lost before the cylinder must be recharged? 1559: The capacity of any life raft on board a vessel can be determined by ______________________. 1560: The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to ______. 1561: Which is NOT a mandatory part of the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan? 1562: Drinking salt water will _______________. 1563: Who should inspect and test an inflatable life raft? 1564: Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated portable fire extinguisher? 1565: What correctly expresses the time of 1122 (ZD +6) on 6 April 1981, for use in an AMVER report? 1566: CO2 extinguishes a fire by _____. 1567: Your vessel is carrying 84,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of 14 inches. When four hoses are connected to the manifold, the container around the manifold must hold a total of how many barrels? 1568: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 2464 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.3 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. 1569: Which list is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendices of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan? 1570: Which is a mandatory section of the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan? 1571: A Halon 1301 cylinder is periodically tested for weight loss and pressure loss. It must be recharged if it has lost more than what minimum percentage of its weight? 1572: Your fishing vessel operates more than 25 miles from the coastline on the Great Lakes. Which distress signal is NOT required to be on board? 1574: Your vessel is more than 3 miles off the coast. What is the maximum civil penalty PER DAY that you may be fined for any violation of the MARPOL 73/78 Act to Prevent Pollution from Ships? 1575: Foam extinguishes a fire by ___________________________. 1576: What is the minimum number of bolts required in a permanently connected flange oil hose coupling? 1577: What is the minimum number of bolts required in a temporary bolted flange oil hose coupling? 1578: You may not act as person-in-charge of oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at a time _____________. 1579: During oil transfer operations, who is responsibe for ensuring that the posted transfer procedures are followed? 1580: Which statement is TRUE concerning the placard entitled "Discharge of Oil Prohibited"? 1581: When using the oxygen indicator, which reaction from the needle should you expect as a sample is drawn into the instrument? 1582: You are off the coast of South Africa, when a seaman is injured. What indicator should be used in a message requesting medical advice from a South African station? 1583: You are having a Coast Guard inspection. All carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard will be _____. 1584: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the port side is designated as boat number _____. 1586: The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the __________. 1587: A lifeboat is weight tested by lowering to near the water and loading to capacity with weight evenly distributed. It is then lowered into the water and released. This test must be done at least once every _____________. 1588: How should longitude 119²16.7' E be written when preparing an AMVER report? 1589: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3284 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 26.4 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. 1590: After a vessel transmits the original distress message, what signal should be sent to allow ships to take RDF bearings? 1591: You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________. 1592: A vessel has a cargo hold divided by a shaft alley into two tanks, each 35 feet long and 20 feet wide. Each tank is half filled with sea water. The vessel displaces 5,000 tons. The reduction in GM due to free surface effect is _________. 1594: Which statement is TRUE concerning buoyant work vests aboard tank vessels? 1597: Which characteristic is an advantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing medium? 1598: On board a small passenger vessel connections to electric conductors MUST be ___________. 1599: All self-propelled vessels on an international voyage must be equipped with how many Emergency Position Indicating Radiobeacons (EPIRB)? 1600: You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo. You must complete topside repairs involving hot work before sailing. Which of the following statements is TRUE? 1601: Channel 13 is primarily used for ship to ship communication. Channel 13 is also authorized for _____. 1603: During loading and discharging operations, in addition to when the cargo tanks have been properly filled, each inert gas system must be capable of maintaining a minimum gas pressure of ________________. 1605: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report? 1606: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-04", AFT 13'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 1607: A bilge suction line, in a fishing vessel with more than 16 individuals aboard, must have a strainer with an open area not less than how many times the open area of the suction line? 1608: Cold water, in commercial fishing, means water where the monthly mean low water temperature is normally ___________. 1610: An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST effective against a fire in __________. 1611: How should longitude 116²54.09' E be written when preparing an AMVER report? 1612: Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated portable fire extinguisher? 1613: Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to _____________________. 1614: You may have to give artificial respiration after an accidental ____________. 1615: When administering artificial respiration, it is MOST important to _____. 1617: When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will ____________. 1618: Which characteristic of Halon is a disadvantage when it is used as a fire extinguishing medium? 1619: A conscious victim who has suffered a blow to the head has symptoms that indicate the possibility of concussion. If the patient feels no indication of neck or spine injury, recommended treatment would include _____________________. 1620: One disadvantage of using regular dry chemical (sodium bicarbonate) in firefighting is that _____. 1621: Why is spare fire hose rolled for storage? 1622: You are preparing to take another vessel in tow. Which signal indicates, "Hawser is made fast"? 1623: When testing a class A EPIRB, you need to use _____. 1624: A sail plan, including the vessel's itinerary, name, number, and persons aboard, should be filed with _____________. 1625: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must ___________________. 1626: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must _____. 1627: The canvas covering of fire hose is called the _________. 1628: You are running before a rough sea and a strong wind. Your sailing vessel is yawing. If the wind should catch the mainsail on the reverse side you will ______________. 1629: Which statement is TRUE about fire fighting foam? 1630: A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take? 1631: According to Coast Guard Regulations (CFR 33), all ships are required to prepare, submit, and maintain a(n) __________. 1632: When joining the female coupling of the fire hose to the male outlet of the hydrant, you should make sure that the _________________. 1633: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 18'-07", AFT 19'-05". The KG is 33.6 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline). 1634: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________. 1635: Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire? 1636: How should latitude 54²18.9' N be written when preparing an AMVER report? 1637: Which is a disadvantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing medium? 1639: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report? 1640: A Halon 1301 cylinder contains 100 pounds of liquid at 360 psi. It must be recharged when the weight drops below how many pounds of liquid? 1644: Tankers of 100,000 DWT (metric) or more, built after January 1, 1975, carrying grade "A" cargo must have a Coast Guard approved inert gas system capable of supplying ___________. 1646: What is the report identifier code for an AMVER departure point? 1648: What is an advantage of using foam in fire fighting? 1649: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the _______________. 1650: When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will _____. 1651: Machinery lube oil sumps are NOT permitted to be drained into the bilges of _____. 1652: An inland oil barge must have equipment available to remove an on-deck oil spill of at least _____________________. 1653: Before operating a non-oceangoing ship greater than 100 gross tons it must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily mixtures ashore. This system must include_______________. 1654: You are operating a ship greater than 400 gross tons. You are NOT permitted to carry oil or hazardous materials in a(n) ___________. 1655: Which space(s) on your cargo vessel must have a fire detection system? 1657: Where do you obtain approved placards containing instructions for the launching and inflation of an approved inflatable liferaft? 1658: Class C EPIRBs may be carried on board ________. 1659: You have berthed in a port area with other tank vessels. What signal is displayed by a vessel to indicate it is transferring flammable or combustible liquid cargo? 1660: If the meter needle of the oxygen indicator cannot be set to zero, what should be done? 1661: What is the maximum number of crew members that may be berthed in one room aboard your cargo vessel? 1662: By regulation, your cargo vessel must have _____________. 1663: Which tank barges require draft marks? 1664: The number of fire extinguishers required on an uninspected "motor vessel" is based on the vessel's _____. 1665: Which statement about stowing spare hose is TRUE? 1666: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-04", AFT 13'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 1667: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must _____________. 1668: What is the report identifier code for an AMVER deviation report? 1669: You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________. 1670: You are testing a class A EPIRB. You will know the EPIRB is working properly when the indicator light comes on, and you hear over the test frequency ___________. 1671: When should the full power test of a class A EPIRB be made? 1672: Which of the following would be considered downflooding on a fishing vessel as defined in regulation? 1673: In commercial fishing, "cold water" means water where the monthly mean low water temperature is normally _________. 1674: You are requisitioning stores for your tank vessel. What type of matches are permitted aboard? 1675: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report? 1676: Before you start an engine in a compartment, it's MOST important to _____. 1677: After an engine is started you should _____________. 1678: Your vessel is 79 feet long with 20 people aboard. Thecoaming of a deck above the lowest weather deck (except anexposed forecastle deck) must be at least _________. 1679: You are on a 92 foot fishing vessel with 35 individuals on board. Which one of the following items are you NOT required to have on board? 1680: The lifeboat compass is usually ____________. 1681: An LWT anchor often has difficulty tripping in ________. 1682: Which radio call-in plan is the most prudent? 1683: You are running before a strong wind in a sloop. The most dangerous thing to do is ___________________. 1684: You are sailing before the wind in heavy weather. The failure of what will affect the vessel's safety most? 1685: A storm is forecast for the area where your vessel is moored. For its safety you should put _________________. 1686: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2300 brake horsepower? 1687: The old sailors admonition "Beware the lee shore" warns of the danger due to _____________________. 1688: Each commercial fishing vessel must have at least one immersion suit, exposure suit, or life preserver for each _______________. 1689: You must pick up an individual who has fallen overboard from a sailboat The final approach should be ___________________. 1690: The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which color? 1691: When anchoring a small sailing vessel in rough weather, the best anchor line would be composed of _________________. 1692: You are preparing for what promises to be a rough ocean passage. Your 120-foot schooner carries a yard on the foremast, about 50 feet above the water. The yard weighs about 1000 pounds. If you take the yard down and stow it on deck for the trip, you will _______________________. 1693: Every different type of sailing rig can be dangerous in certain circumstances. Which situation would most likely be dangerous? 1694: When repairing a torn sail at sea, you should ___________. 1695: In order to prevent galvanic corrosion, an aluminum boat must be insulated from the davits and gripes. Which of the following is acceptable as an insulator? 1696: Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE? 1697: The difference between a class A and a class B EPIRB is that the class A EPIRB ___________. 1698: To prevent a wooden hull from leaking you caulk it ________. 1699: On small sailing vessels, the PRIMARY reason for using nylon in a combination chain-nylon anchor line is to ____________. 1700: How often must the impulse-projected line throwing appliance be test fired? 1701: Movement of liquid in a tank when a vessel inclines causes an increase in _______________. 1702: You are sailing at 8 knots on a beam reach in an apparent wind of 25 knots. Which statement is TRUE? 1703: With regard to aerodynamic lift, which statement is TRUE? 1704: Which statement is TRUE about sail shape? 1705: How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks? 1706: The major lift-producing part of a sail is the ____________. 1707: Your 40-foot auxilliary sailing vessel has just run aground on a bar. She has a relatively long, deep keel and the tide is falling. You have checked the bilges for damage and found none. Which is the most prudent action to take immediately? 1708: A chemical additive to LPG gives it a characteristic ______. 1709: Why is gas-freeing rarely required for LPG cargo tanks? 1711: Which precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun? 1713: Line throwing equipment should not be operated __________. 1715: After allowing for pressure losses, the pressure-volume capacity of an inert gas blower must be able to maintain a pressure, in any cargo tank, with a minimum of ____________. 1716: The control lever for the mechanical disengaging apparatus in a lifeboat shall ______________________. 1717: An inert gas system on a tanker should be used to _________. 1719: Which data is NOT painted on the bow of a lifeboat? 1720: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number _______________. 1721: An inert gas system is designed to reduce the possibility of tank explosions by _____________. 1722: Where are remote readouts for oxygen concentration, pressure, and temperature of an inert gas system required to be located? 1726: The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be determined by ___________________. 1727: Which of the following methods is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas system to the cargo tanks? 1728: Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be achieved by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing? 1729: The purpose of the deck seal in an inert gas system is to prevent ________________. 1730: Each inert gas system must be designed to supply the cargo tanks with a gas, or mixture of gasses, that has an oxygen content by volume of ____________. 1731: Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) permit which of the following systems to be used for fire prevention and the simultaneous inerting of cargo tanks on tank vessels? 1732: The blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker, will be automatically secured if _____________. 1797: The upper limit of sulphur dioxide permitted to be maintained in the inert gas should not exceed ___________. 1798: The combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is related to the ______. 1799: Each inert gas system gas main must have an automatic shut down valve at the outlet of the gas production plant. This valve must close automatically upon ___________. 1800: Which U.S. agency issues a Certificate of Financial Responsibility? 1801: Each ship having an inert gas system must have a portable instruments to measure concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert atmospheres and also to measure ____________. 1802: The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulphur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the _____________. 1803: On offshore drilling units when two means of escape are provided from a space above the main deck, one means of escape must be required for rapid escape to _______. 1804: Your vessel displaces 869 tons and measures 136'L x33'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck which measures 52'Lx 33'B. The weight of the water is estimated at 52.8 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard? 1805: A sloop is a sailing vessel with _______________. 1806: Your vessel displaces 562 tons and measures 121'L x 29'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 46'L x 29'B and the weight of the water is 41 tons? 1807: Which is standing rigging? 1808: Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a gas scrubber in an inert gas generation system? 1810: Halon extinguishes a fire by ____________. 1811: What should be your FIRST action if you discover a fire aboard ship? 1812: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the _________________. 1813: On offshore drilling units all sleeping areas, mess areas, recreational and hospital areas that are adjacent to or immediately above a storage area or machinery space, paint locker, washroom, or toilet space must be made __________. 1814: Your vessel displaces 840 tons and measures 146'L x 38'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 65'L x 38'B and the weight of the water is 76 tons? 1815: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the _______________. 1816: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Except where specifically required by the rules, a sailing vessel is NOT required to keep out of the way of a _________. 1817: Offshore drilling units that carry twelve or more persons on a voyage of more than three days must have a _________. 1819: Your vessel displaces 968 tons and measures 158'L x 40'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 65'L x 40'B and the weight of the water is 80 tons? 1820: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49²16.3' E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report? 1821: On offshore drilling units where natural ventilation is provided, each porthole or window must be fitted with _________. 1822: Which hazard probably would NOT be encountered when entering an empty but uncleaned fish hold? 1823: What is the MINIMUM distance a vessel subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 must be located from nearest land to legally discharge paper trash? 1824: Most recreational sailing craft have triangular sails and are said to be ______________. 1825: Each drilling unit equipped with helicopter fuel storage tanks must have the tanks installed as far as practicable from the ______. 1826: Your vessel displaces 747 tons and measures 136'L by 34'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 56'L x 34'B and the weight of the water is 58.6 tons? 1827: The helicopter deck on an offshore drilling unit is required to be fitted with perimeter lights in alternating colors of _______. 1828: A gas-free certificate would usually be issued by a(n) ___________. 1829: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 220ø relative would be __________. 1830: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 149²16.3' E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report? 1831: A slow and easy motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a _________________. 1834: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 20'L by 18'B by 7'D. The vessel's displacement is 986 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.6. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack? 1835: On surface type offshore drilling units, each lifeboat and life raft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft when the unit has an adverse trim up to ____________________. 1836: A ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing to windward with the wind about 50ø on the port bow. All the sails are set and drawing properly. Which statement is TRUE? 1837: Each life raft, which does not have an indicated maximum stowage height indicated on the life raft, must be ______. 1838: When a sail is reefed, the sail area is _______ . 1839: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 020² relative would be __________. 1840: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 149ø16.3' W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report? 1844: Your vessel displaces 368 tons and measures 96'L x 28'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 42'L x 28'B and the weight of the water is 36 tons? 1845: What is the minimum number of hand held, rocket propelled, parachute, red flare, distress signals required on board offshore drilling units? 1846: You are under sail, and the wind is steady. While steady on course, you reef the mainsail and your speed slows. The apparent wind _____________. 1847: An offshore drilling unit must be equipped with a first aid kit approved by the ____________________________. 1848: Your vessel displaces 477 tons and measures 116'L x 31'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 54'L x 31'B and the weight of the water is 51.5 tons? 1849: Which line would NOT be used in handling a mainsail? 1850: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49²16.3 W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report? 1851: When using a hand held smoke signal from a lifeboat, you should activate the signal ___________. 1852: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 32'L by 15'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement is 640 tons and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack? 1853: On offshore drilling units each fire station is identified by letters and numbers at least ______________________. 1854: How is the Master or operator of a vessel required to keep the crew informed of the regulations concerning the discharging of garbage overboard? 1855: An offshore drilling unit is required to carry on board an operations manual approved by the _________________________. 1856: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 180² relative would be ___________. 1858: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 180² relative would be ______________. 1859: The parts of the sail shown are correctly labeled EXCEPT the ___________________. 1860: You are underway at sea when a fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should _______________________. 1861: On offshore drilling units, emergency lighting and each emergency power system must be tested at least once a ________. 1862: All electrical appliances aboard a vessel should be grounded to _____. 1863: On offshore drilling units, each storage battery for emergency lighting and power systems must be tested every six months under actual connected load for a period of at least __________________. 1864: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 40'L by 20'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement is 996 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.7. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack? 1865: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 2.6 feet and drafts of: FWD 13'-07", AFT 15'-01". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tanks you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.4 feet. 1866: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 1867: Under the Pollution Regulations, when you dump garbage in to the sea you must __________. 1868: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 22'L by 16'B by 7'D. The vessel's displacement is 568 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.6. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack? 1869: The three corners of the main sail are called __________. 1870: When should a fire be ventilated? 1871: If the cause of a sudden severe list is negative initial stability, counterflooding into empty tanks may _____. 1872: Your vessel displaces 641 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 3.6 feet above the deck and weighs 36 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.0 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo? 1873: Offshore drilling units that are equipped with electric powered lifeboat winches, require inspections of the control apparatus, including motor controllers, and switches, at least once every ______. 1874: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of a ____________. 1875: After abandoning ship which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY upon entering a liferaft? 1876: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 140² relative would be ___________. 1878: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 20'L by 18'B by 7'D. The vessel's displacement is 866 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack? 1879: Your vessel measures 127 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-10" is 5 seconds, what is the GM? 1880: The primary reason for placing covers over storage batteries is to __________. 1882: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 260ø relative would be ____________. 1883: On offshore drilling units, the station bill must be posted in conspicuous locations and signed by the __________. 1884: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Unless the rules require otherwise, a sailing vessel must keep out of the way of ______. 1885: In the case of an injury causing a person to be incapacitated, the Master or person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must submit a report to the ________. 1886: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 30'L by 15'B by 6'D. The vessel's displacement is 968 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack? 1887: When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan, the revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________. 1888: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 18'L by 10'B by 6'D. The vessel's displacement is 944 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.9. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of the tanks being slack? 1890: Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because ______. 1894: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement in salt water (specific gravity 1.025) is 864 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.47. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack? 1896: The edge of the sail labeled "A" is called the ________. 1897: Which is a part of a vessel's standing rigging? 1898: Your vessel displaces 585 tons and measures 128'L by 26'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (30'L by 18'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.8 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 15.4 tons) 1899: Your vessel displaces 684 tons and measures 132'L by 31'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (32'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 2 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 26.5 tons) 1900: The accumulation of dangerous fumes generated by the storage batteries is best prevented by _____________. 1903: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "W" hoisted. What should you do? 1904: A sailing vessel with the wind coming over the port side is said to be on a _____________. 1905: What fitting on the mast works in conjunction with the shrouds to control side bend of the mast? 1906: Your vessel displaces 930 tons and measures 156'L by 38'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (46'L by 28'B by 8'D) is filled with 1.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 36.8 tons) 1907: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine to indicate an emergency condition within the submarine is ___________. 1908: Your vessel displaces 750 tons and measures 151'L by 35'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (60'L by 31'B by 10'D) is filled with 3.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 53.1 tons) 1909: On a passenger vessel, the vessel's name must appear on ______. 1910: Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only? 1911: A ketch is a sailing vessel with _________________. 1912: Your vessel displaces 640 tons. The existing deck cargo has center of gravity of 2.3 feet above the deck and weighs 18 tons. If you load 12 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 21 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo? 1913: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-04", AFT 15'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 1914: Your vessel displaces 728 tons and measures 138'L by 31'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (36'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 3.6 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 29.8 tons) 1915: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the _______________. 1916: What is part of a vessel's standing rigging? 1919: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 050² relative would be ___. 1920: Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers? 1921: Certificates of Inspection for offshore drilling units are issued for a period of __________________. 1922: BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND A sailing vessel shall not impede the safe passage of a _____________. 1923: Except as provided by approved special examinations, each offshore drilling unit must be dry-docked at least once during every ____. 1924: Your vessel displaces 645 tons and measures 132'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (30'L by 26'B by 8'D) is filled with 3.0 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 22.3 tons) 1925: A construction portfolio prepared for each new offshore drilling unit must be approved by the ______________. 1926: A "reaching" course is one in which the wind __________. 1927: On offshore drilling units, the minimum number of inclined ladders which must be fitted between each weather deck is ______. 1928: Your vessel displaces 740 tons and measures 141'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (41'L by 30'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 35.1 tons) 1930: You must ensure that lifesaving equipment is ________. 1931: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 17'-03", AFT 19'-03". The KG is 23.6 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline). 1932: Which statement about sailing close-hauled is TRUE? 1933: The Departure Report, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent _____________. 1935: Temporary Certificates of Inspection for offshore drilling units are effective until the _______________. 1936: Your vessel displaces 696 tons and measures 135'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (32'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.0 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 26.5 tons) 1937: On offshore drilling units, a fire drill must be conducted at least once a ______________. 1938: A wobbling tail shaft is an indication of _____________. 1939: You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud. If you have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.2, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? 1940: Life preservers should be stowed in ____________. 1941: On offshore drilling units, a boat drill must be conducted at least once a _______________. 1944: You have 640 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (see illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) 1946: You have 8 containers of steward's supplies each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 6'H and weighing 1.5 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (Refer to trim and stability letter for M.V. Surveyor.) 1947: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Your 18-meter vessel is under sail at night displaying sidelights, sternlight, and a red light over a green light at the masthead. If you start the auxiliary engine and engage the propeller, you must_______. 1948: You have 600 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) 1950: The lifesaving equipment on all vessels shall be ________. 1951: If you must jump from a vessel, the correct posture includes ____________. 1952: Your vessel displaces 497 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck and weighs 24 tons. If you load 18 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 18 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo? 1953: Which fitting is used to connect the boom to the mast? 1955: How often must the emergency generator be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit? 1956: You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 225 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? 1957: The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of departure? 1958: You have 710 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.1 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) 1959: You have approximately 34 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7.5 feet? (total displacement is 638 tons) 1960: What characteristic is an advantage of the self-contained demand-type breathing apparatus as compared to the canister- type breathing apparatus? 1962: You have 200 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 140 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 4.2 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? 1964: When crossing a bar in rough weather, you should enter on a(n) ________. 1966: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 090² relative would be ___________. 1969: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 290² relative would be _________. 1970: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes? 1972: Which statement about sailing close-hauled is TRUE? 1974: When experiencing heavy winds, you should reef sails to _____________. 1975: On a commercial fishing vessel, a wearable personal flotation device must be marked with the name of the ______. 1976: A capsized small sail vessel is best righted when what part of the vessel is downwind? 1977: A stay is _____________. 1978: How should you try to right a capsized small sailing vessel? 1979: A documented oceangoing fishing vessel is required to have emergency instructions posted if it _________________. 1980: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes? 1981: On a mobile offshore drilling unit it is required to _________________. 1983: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire? 1984: You have 550 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 120 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.6 feet. What is the maximum additional deck cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) 1985: Each emergency generator on a mobile offshore drilling unit, when tested, must be run under a full load for at least ______________. 1986: Which statement is TRUE? 1987: When a fire drill is conducted on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the designated person in charge must ensure that ____________. 1988: You have 590 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 84 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) 1989: What is the proper method to fix running rigging to a cleat? 1990: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes? 1991: It is the responsibility of the person in charge to _______________. 1992: A deep keel on a sailing vessel increases the_____________. 1993: The person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must insure that _________________________. 1995: Who is responsible for insuring that each survival craft on a mobile offshore drilling unit is cleaned and inspected once a year? 1996: You have 240 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 360 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.9 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) 1997: Vessels to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage containing plastics _____________. 2000: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes? 2001: The person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must insure that ______________. 2002: You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 150 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 135 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See the trim and stability letter for M.V. Hudson, illustration D036DG.) 2003: Who is responsible for maintaining the logbook on a mobile offshore drilling unit? 2004: You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 180 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 140 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) 2005: If there is unsafe machinery on a mobile offshore drilling unit, who is responsible for reporting the existence of the unsafe condition to the Coast Guard? 2006: You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage and 100 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 160 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) 2007: The bottom of the mast rests on the ______________. 2008: Your vessel measures 119 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 5'-05" is 6 seconds, what is the GM? 2009: Your vessel measures 114 feet long by 16 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 5'-06" is 6 seconds, what is the GM? 2010: Your vessel measures 128 feet long by 21 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-06" is 6 seconds, what is the GM? 2013: What is the minimum number of lifeboats which MUST be carried on a mobile offshore drilling unit that is allowed to carry more than 30 persons? 2014: Your vessel measures 131 feet long by 20 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8'-03" is 6 seconds, what is the GM? 2015: A shroud is _____________. 2016: Your vessel measures 125 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-09" is 6 seconds, what is the GM? 2017: A shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan is required of ___. 2019: You have 38 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 5'H and weighing 0.6 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) 2020: Free communication will adversely affect transverse stability only when the flooded space is ___________. 2021: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the _______________. 2022: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-02", AFT 6'-06". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 5 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 15 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can legally be loaded and still maintain the same trim? 2023: If you were to jibe in a strong wind, the part of the rigging most likely to fail would be the ______________. 2025: BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are under sail with the auxiliary engine running and the propeller engaged on a 15 meter sail vessel. Which statement is TRUE? 2026: Which statement is TRUE concerning the gooseneck? 2028: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-10". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? 2029: A yawl is a sailing vessel with _____________. 2030: You have 60 tons of below deck tonnage and 220 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 240 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) 2031: Which condition is NOT necessary for a combustible liquid to burn? 2032: What is the primary hazard, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire? 2034: You have 12 containers of rig supplies each measuring 10'L by 4'B by 5'H and weighing 2.0 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? 2039: You have approximately 14 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 6 feet? (total displacement is 210 tons) 2040: You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 145 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) 2041: You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of garbage disposed must be stated in __________. 2042: Which line would be used to hoist a sail? 2044: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are under sail making 5 knots. The apparent wind is broad on the port beam at 10 knots. You see another sailing vessel dead ahead on a meeting course. What action is correct? 2046: Your drafts are: FWD 5'-11", AFT 6'-11". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 16 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? 2047: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 2048: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-02", AFT 6'-08". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 23 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? 2049: The bottom of the mast rests on a part of the keel called the mast __________. 2050: You have 160 tons of below deck tonnage and 300 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 110 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) 2051: You are standing a radio watch aboard the rig. A crew boat calls you on VHF channel 16. When you reply with your vessel name and call letters, you should request the crew boat to switch to an intership channel such as channel _________. 2052: Which radio call-in plan is the most prudent? 2053: What is the international calling and distress channel found on all VHF-FM equipped drilling rigs? 2054: Your vessel measures 126 feet (38 meters) long by 21 feet (6 meters) in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8 feet (2 meters) is 6 seconds, what is the GM? 2055: What agency issues the Ship Station license for the VHF marine radio on a mobile offshore drilling unit? 2057: You cannot operate a VHF or SSB radiotelephone aboard a rig unless that station is licensed by the __________. 2059: What standing rigging supports the mast in the fore-and-aft and athwartships directions? 2060: You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage and 230 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) 2061: Where would you find the "call sign" or "call letters" of the radio station on your rig? 2062: You are running before the wind in a fresh breeze. The boom may be prevented from accidently jibing by using a(n) _____. 2063: If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, they should ________________. 2064: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are under sail and overtaking a tug and tow. Which action is correct? 2066: A boom vang _______________. 2067: You are standing radio watch and monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you receive a call to your rig, TEXAS STAR, from a supply boat. What is the proper way to answer this call? 2069: The metal horseshoe-shaped pieces used to bend a sail onto a stay or boom are called_________. 2070: You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 210 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 100 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) 2071: The generators on your rig have shut down, leaving you without navigation lights. Which emergency signal would you transmit over the VHF radio to alert vessels in the area of your predicament? 2073: If your rig is equipped with a SSB radio, what frequency would you use to initiate a distress call? 2074: You have 4 containers of rig supplies each measuring 8'L by 8'B by 8'H and weighing 1.2 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) 2075: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 28'-06", AFT 29'-10". The KG is 27.4 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline). 2077: BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are proceeding under sail with the auxiliary engine running and the propeller engaged. Which statement is TRUE? 2079: Your vessel displaces 479 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 3.0 feet above the deck and weighs 16 tons. If you load 23 tons of anchor and anchor chain with an estimated center of gravity of 9 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG above the deck? 2080: You have 260 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 150 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.2 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) 2081: On offshore drilling units, each inflatable life raft must be serviced every _____________________. 2082: On a tank barge constructed on or after July 1, 1951, regulations require that each cargo tank be equipped with a vent that has a diameter of not less than _______________. 2083: On offshore drilling units each inflatable life raft that is not intended for davit launching must be stowed so as to float free or be _______________. 2084: The sea painter of a lifeboat should be secured ___________. 2085: An offshore drilling unit must have enough inflatable life rafts to accommodate at least what percentage of the persons allowed? 2086: A partially full tank causes a virtual rise in the height of the _____. 2087: The davit aboard a MODU is used to ________________. 2089: On a vessel carrying grades A, B, C or D cargoes, enclosed spaces where sources of vapor ignition are normally present shall NOT be segregated from cargo tanks by _______________. (vessel constructed after 1970) 2090: You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 160 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet. What is the maximum cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See the stability letter for the M.V. Hudson illustration D036DG.) 2091: To inflate a davit launched life raft you ________________. 2092: According to regulations, cargo pumps in tank vessels carrying grade A, B, C, or D liquid cargo, shall be isolated from sources of vapor ignition by ___________________. (vessel constructed 1970) 2093: The davit launched life raft can be boarded _______________. 2094: Your vessel measures 122 feet long by 18 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 6'-09" is 5 seconds, what is the GM? 2095: Sails may be wing and wing when _____________. 2096: Steam driven pumps are considered, by regulations, sources of vapor ignition if the steam temperature is at least __________. 2097: If you reef a marconi mainsail, the sail area ___________. 2098: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 2099: Cargo hose carried on tank vessels shall be able to withstand a pressure of at least __________. 2100: You have 180 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 300 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) 2101: A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration located 10 nautical miles from nearest land MAY discharge ________. 2102: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close-hauled the _______________. 2104: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 25.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 27'-11", AFT 28'-09"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability? 2105: If a davit-launched life raft aboard a MODU cannot be launched because of damage to the davit, you should ______. 2106: In special cases, the Commandant of the Coast Guard may permit cargo piping to pass through machinery spaces, provided that the only cargo carried through such piping is(are) ____________________. 2107: What is NOT running rigging? 2108: Air compressors are NOT permitted in which space(s) on a tank barge carrying grade A cargo? 2109: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should _________. 2110: You have 650 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 140 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.5 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) 2111: The hinge fitting used to attach the boom to the mast is the _______. 2113: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 2865 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. 2114: You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of your FIRST actions upon boarding the liferaft? 2116: You have 10 containers of rig supplies each measuring 10'L by 6'B by 6'H and weighing 1.8 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) 2118: You have 50 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 4'B by 3'H and weighing 0.4 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? 2119: Your vessel displaces 475 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 2.6 feet above the deck and weighs 22 tons. If you load 16 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 8 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo? 2120: You have 480 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) 2121: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with _____________. 2122: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-00", AFT 6'-06". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 17 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? 2123: Your oceangoing vessel has medical waste to be disposed of ashore. How many hours advance notice must you give the port or terminal? 2124: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 25.8 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 15'-02", AFT 15'-10"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability? 2126: Which spaces are required to be segregated from cargo tanks carrying grades A, B, C, or D cargoes? 2128: Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-04". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 10 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? 2129: Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE? 2130: You have 300 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 180 tons with a VCG above the deck of 1.9 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) 2131: When a person is in shock, their skin will be ________. 2133: If a vessel is sagging, which kind of stress is placed on the sheer strake? 2134: The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of the air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample registers 55 on the instrument. What is the concentration of gases? 2135: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 2136: A vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 20'-10". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 195 tons of cargo are discharged 76 feet forward of amidships. 2137: Where would you find the FCC authorization for transmitting on your rig's EPIRB? 2138: A class C EPIRB _____________. 2139: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 24.0 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 28'-01", AFT 28'-06"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability? 2140: You have 700 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) 2141: How often is a drill on the use of the the line throwing appliance required to be held on a mobile offshore drilling unit? 2142: What is meant by the term "overhaul" in firefighting? 2143: How many life preservers must be carried on an offshore unit that is certified to carry 80 persons? 2144: A class C EPIRB ___________. 2145: Offshore drilling units must have enough adult life preservers for at least ____________________________. 2146: Aboard damaged vessels, the MOST important consideration is preserving ______________. 2147: Each life preserver must be readily accessible to the person for whom it is intended while he or she is _________. 2148: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-07". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 142 tons of fuel are pumped 86 feet aft. 2149: On a barge carrying grade A cargo, who determines where smoking may be permitted during a loading operation? 2150: You have approximately 6 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7 feet? (total displacement is 422 tons) 2151: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with Lthe load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 2152: You have 6 containers of ship stores each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 6'H and weighing 0.5 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) 2153: On offshore drilling units each ring life buoy must be marked, in a contrasting color, with the unit's _____. 2155: When sailing with the wind aft, a vessel may carry sails on both sides at the same time. The sails are _____________. 2156: The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of the air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample registered 55 on the instrument's dial. What is the concentration of flammable gases? 2157: On offshore drilling units, each EPIRB or SART must be tested once every _____________________. 2158: You have approximately 15 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 300 tons) 2159: Your vessel displaces 528 tons. The existing cargo has a center of gravity of 2.9 feet above the deck and weighs 28 tons. If you load 14 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 9 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo? 2160: You have approximately 29 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 5 feet? (total displacement is 483 tons) 2161: You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers? 2162: Which tank barges require draft marks? 2163: You are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "T" hoisted. What should you do? 2164: Your vessel is damaged, listing to port and on occasion flopping to the same angle to starboard. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll around the angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little freeboard aft. What action should you take FIRST to correct this situation? 2165: A schooner is a fore-and-aft rigged vessel with __________. 2166: A class C EPIRB ____________. 2167: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine about to surface is _______________. 2168: When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under which type of stress? 2169: The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial and remain there. What is the concentration of flammable gas? 2170: You have approximately 60 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 960 tons) 2171: The approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan expires after __________. 2172: Your vessel displaces 560 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 4.5 feet above the deck and weighs 34 tons. If you load 10 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.8 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo? 2174: You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial then fall to zero. What is the concentration of flammable gas? 2175: To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should _____________. 2176: According to regulations, cargo pump rooms, on the tank vessels handling grades A, B, or C liquid cargo, shall be equipped with power ventilation of the exhaust type having capacity sufficient to effect a complete change of air in not more than ___________________. 2178: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-05". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft by 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 20 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded while maintaining the same trim? 2179: If a vessel is sagging, what kind of stress is placed on the sheer strake? 2180: You have approximately 16 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 640 tons) 2181: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should ____. 2182: Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-02". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 8 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? 2183: On offshore drilling units, all lifeboats are required to be marked with the _________________________________. 2184: Your vessel is damaged and is listing to port. The rolling period is short. There is sufficient freeboard so that deck edge submersion is not a problem. What corrective action should be taken FIRST in regard to the vessel's stability? 2185: On offshore drilling units, all lifeboats are required to be marked with the _____________. 2186: Which statement is TRUE concerning cargo hose on tank barges? 2188: You have 6 containers of rig supplies each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 3'H and weighing 1.6 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? 2189: Changing direction by bringing the stern of the vessel through the eye of the wind is known as _____________. 2190: You have approximately 24 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 540 tons) 2191: A fishing vessel that is required to have a fireman's outfit, must have all of the following in the outfit except a _________________. 2192: Your vessel displaces 689 tons and measures 123'L x 31'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck which measures 65'Lx 31'B. The weight of the water is estimated at 62 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard? 2193: On offshore drilling units, the lifeboats' fuel tanks must be emptied and the fuel changed at least once every _______________________. 2194: Your vessel is damaged with no list, but down by the stern. There is progressive flooding and trim by the stern is increasing. What is the effect on transverse stability after the deck edge at the stern is submerged? 2195: Who is charged with appointing persons to be in command of the lifeboats and(or) life rafts on a mobile offshore drilling unit? 2196: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are on a sailing vessel with the wind on the starboard side and are approaching another sailing vessel that has the wind on the port side. Which action should you take? 2197: A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel _______. 2198: Which statement is TRUE concerning a sailing vessel with the sails properly trimmed? 2199: Your vessel displaces 564 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 1.5 feet above the deck and weighs 41 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo? 2200: To check stability, a weight of 35 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, whose head is 35 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a list of 7.0² with the weight suspended. Displacement including the weight is 14,000 tons. The GM in this condition is ______. 2201: The name of the fishing vessel is NOT required to be marked on a(n) ____. 2202: Which approved lifesaving device is required for each person on board a motor vessel carrying passengers? 2203: Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft? 2205: You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the liferaft? 2206: Which action will NOT reduce heeling of a vessel when sailing on a tack? 2207: You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of garbage disposed must be stated in __________. 2208: Your 20-ton ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing close hauled on the port tack in a moderate breeze with all sails properly trimmed. You wish to bear off quickly to avoid a floating hazard. To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should ___________________. 2209: What are the health hazard ratings for a product of triethylbenzene? 2210: To check stability, a weight of 10 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom whose head is 45 ft. from the ship's centerline. The clinometer show's a list of 5.0² with weight suspended. Displacement including the weight is 9,000 tons. The GM while in this condition is _____. 2211: You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________. 2212: In order to maintain speed while changing course from a close reach to a broad reach, the sails should be _________. 2213: When abandoning a MODU, after launching the survival craft you should _________________. 2215: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a MODU in a survival craft, you should ______________. 2217: Steering a survival craft broadside to the sea could cause it to ____. 2218: The maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel is referred to as the ______________. 2219: Each buoyant work vest must be _______________. 2220: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 2221: In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft _____. 2223: Knowing the compass heading that is 90² to the side of a MODU will enable the operator of a survival craft to initially steer _________. 2224: Your vessel is drifting with the wind broad on the port beam. The marconi sail is set and flapping free. As you sheet in the maximum drive is attained when the sail ______. 2226: You are sailing on a close reach when a strong wind suddenly heels the vessel hard over. To reduce the heeling and yet maintain speed, you should _____________. 2227: When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air they are used for ________________. 2228: Your sails are properly trimmed while on a reaching course. Changing to a close hauled course will _____________. 2229: To get the best speed when tacking and using a mainsail and jib, the sails should be trimmed such that ______________. 2230: To check stability, a weight of 40 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, whose head is 40 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a list of 6.5² with the weight suspended. Displacement including weight is 16,000 tons. The GM while in this condition is ___________. 2231: With the air supply on, the air pressure in the survival craft will be __________________. 2232: Your vessel is sailing on a port tack when a sudden gust of wind heels the vessel sharply to starboard. Which action will reduce the heeling of the vessel? 2233: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________________. 2234: As a vessel falls off the wind from close-hauled to a beam reach, the tendency for the vessel to move sideways through the water will ______. 2235: You are aboard a vessel which is near a platform engaged in oil exploration. Under U.S. pollution regulations, you may NOT discharge garbage if you are within _____. 2236: A vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 25'-11". The present drafts are: FWD 24'-10", AFT 23'-02". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 18 inches is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2237: Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it increases _________________. 2239: You can slow or stop a sailing vessel by _____________. 2240: What is classified as a combustible liquid? 2241: If the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the personnel should be ________________. 2242: An example of a grade B product is ___________________. 2243: Aboard a survival craft, ether can be used to __________. 2244: According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flash point for the grade B flammable liquid piperylene is ________________. 2245: The backup system on an electric start survival craft is a _________. 2246: What would be classified as grade "C" petroleum product? 2247: When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should _______. 2248: A product is classified at grade B when it has a Reid vapor pressure of _____________________. 2249: A cargo of 40 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 40 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the suspended cargo is 8,000 tons and the GM is 2 feet with cargo suspended. What will the list of the vessel be with the cargo suspended? 2250: Which cargo is considered volatile? 2251: What will NOT decrease the stability of a vessel? 2252: According to the Chemical Data Guide, piperylene possesses which characteristic? 2253: Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will __________. 2254: According to the Chemical Data Guide, 1,3 - pentadiene possesses which characteristic? 2255: The survival craft is manufactured with fire retardant ____. 2256: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 2257: The survival craft's engine is fueled with __________. 2258: According to the Chemical Data Guide, to what chemical family does 1,3 - pentadiene belong? 2259: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 24.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 23'-00"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability? 2260: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 18,000 T. The 50-ton weight is on the pier, and its center is 75 feet to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 112 feet above the base line, and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 56 feet above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain, the ship lists 3.5². What is the GM when the cargo is stowed? 2261: If the engine of a survival craft does not start, check to see ______. 2262: What is the Vapor pressure of ethylene oxide at 46 ² C? 2263: The sprinkler system of a survival craft is used to _______. 2264: Where a propeller shaft passes through the hull, water is prevented from entering by means of a _____________. 2265: A right-handed propeller will cause the survival craft to _______. 2266: Which fire extinguishing agent can NOT be used on an ethylenediamine? 2267: During the towing of a survival craft, a lookout should be on station to ________________. 2268: To what chemical family does chlorallylene belong? 2269: To what chemical family does ethylene oxide belong? 2270: When a vessel is inclined at a small angle the center of buoyancy will _______________. 2271: When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should ____________. 2272: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a characteristic of allyl chloride? 2273: During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the survival craft should _______________. 2274: A virtual rise in the center of gravity may be caused by ________. 2275: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Your 18-meter vessel is propelled by sail and power. What action is required when the engine is stopped? 2276: What is the Reid vapor pressure of allyl chloride? 2278: A cargo of 75 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 50 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the suspended cargo is 6,000 tons and GM is 6 feet. The list of the ship with the cargo suspended from the boom will be _______________. 2279: According to the Chemical Data Guide, when burning, the grade B flammable liquid, carbon disulfide produces _______. 2280: A vessel displaces 140,000 cubic feet of saltwater in a light condition. After loading 7500 tons of cargo and 200 tons of fuel, water and stores, she is "full and down". The vessel's light displacement is ______________. 2281: When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the winch and check ______________. 2282: Class A EPIRBs are required on _________________. 2283: Sails may be wing and wing when_____________. 2284: The flammable limits for crude oil are ____________________. 2285: When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman should instruct the crewman to ________________. 2286: What is the boiling point of carbon disulfide? 2287: The limit switches on a MODUs survival-craft winch system ___________________. 2288: A major health hazard of the product tert-butylamine is that it______. 2289: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is the Reid Vapor Pressure of tert-butylamine? 2290: In order to calculate the TPI of a vessel, for any given draft, it is necessary to divide the area of the waterplane by ______. 2291: The purpose for the bag or box on top of some survival craft is to ________________. 2292: Grade D liquids are those having flash points of __________. 2293: Releasing oil from the sea anchor of a survival craft may ______. 2294: Which extinguishing agent is NOT recommended in the Chemical Data Guide for use on a cyclohexane fire? 2295: All MODU personnel should be familiar with the survival craft's ______. 2296: Regulations require that cargo pumps in tank vessels carrying grade D liquid cargo shall be isolated from sources of vapor ignition by _______. 2297: Each fire pump on a tankship must have a pressure gauge located at ______. 2298: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3684 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 28.4 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. 2299: The first treatment given to a person overcome by benzene vapor should be to _____________________. 2300: A bulk freighter 580 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of .84 is floating in fresh water at a draft of 21 ft. How many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft 1"? 2301: If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first __________. 2302: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 2303: The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with ____________________. 2304: Regulations require that cargo pumprooms handling grades D and/or E liquid cargo only shall be fitted with at LEAST how many ducts extended to the weather deck? 2305: With the sprinkler system and air system on and all hatches shut, the survival craft will provide protection from a _____. 2306: Which flash point would indicate a grade D combustible liquid? 2307: Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming? 2309: Your vessel is preparing to lift a weight of 30 tons with a boom whose head is 30 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement not including the weight lifted is 8,790 tons. KM is 21.5 ft; KG is 20.5 ft. The angle of list when the weight is lifted will be _____________. 2310: A fire pump may be used for other purposes if __________. 2311: What causes cavitation in a centrifugal pump? 2312: Which statement is TRUE concerning the short exposure tolerance for Benzene? 2313: A hydraulic accumulator aboard a MODU is designed to ____. 2314: Cargo tanks on barges fitted with goose neck vents and flame screens are limited to carrying which grade of cargo? 2315: What is the function of an air receiver in the compressed air system on a MODU? 2316: The flammable limits for motor gasoline are _____________. 2317: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. 2318: A vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-02", AFT 23'-10". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 98 tons of fuel is pumped 116 feet forward. 2319: What is NOT generally a characteristic of inhaling light naphtha? 2320: You are attempting to recover a mooring buoy. If you approach the object on the port tack, how would you slow the vessel as you draw near? 2321: A Class A EPIRB is NOT _______________________. 2322: What is NOT a requirement of cargo piping installed in tank vessels carrying grade D or E cargo ONLY? 2323: Why is electrical power preferred over mechanical power for driving heavy machinery on drilling rigs? 2324: How many fire extinguishers, and what type, are required on an unmanned oil barge during transfer operations, if the barge has no cargo pumps aboard? 2325: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 2326: In order to carry a cargo of triethanolamine, what hull type is required? 2327: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 600 brake horsepower? 2328: Which of the flash points would indicate a grade D combustible liquid? 2329: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 2330: What is the purpose of a centerboard when sailing on a tack? 2331: What prevents water running along the shaft of a leaking centrifugal pump from entering the shaft bearing? 2332: The amount of LFG that may be loaded into a given tank is determined by _______________________. 2333: You are sailing into a harbor with the intention of picking up your mooring. There is no current. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE? 2334: Which flash point would indicate a grade E combustible liquid? 2335: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire? 2336: While loading bulk oil in a barge, you notice oil on the water alongside. What should you do FIRST? 2337: Sideways movement of the mast is resisted by the _______. 2338: In order to check your vessel's stability, a weight of 40 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, the boom head being 50 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer is then carefully read and shows a list of 5ø. The vessel's displacement is 8,000 tons including the suspended weight. What will be the metacentric height of the vessel at this time? 2339: Sixty tons of cargo are raised with a boom 45 feet from the centerline. The vessel's displacement including the weight lifted is 16,400 tons. The angle of list caused by the suspended weight is 1.5ø. KM is 28.75 ft., and BM is 17.25 ft. What is the KG? 2341: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 2342: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 13'-11", AFT 11'-09". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2343: A marker pole, with a horseshoe buoy and a sea anchor attached, should be used to ___________________. 2344: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 25.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 23'-01"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability? 2346: Grade E liquids are those having a flash point of _________. 2348: Regulations require that venting for cargo tanks in which only grades D or E liquids are to be transported shall, as a MINIMUM, be of which type? (tank barge constructed on or after July 1, 1951) 2350: What is NOT required of the cargo tank venting on a tank barge carrying grade A liquids? 2351: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2200 brake horsepower? 2352: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 19'-01". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2356: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 21'-06". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if: (1) 300 tons are loaded 122 feet forward of amidships; (2) 225 tons are loaded 150 feet aft of amidships; and 122 tons of fuel are pumped 72 feet aft. 2358: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-00". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 195 tons of cargo are discharged 76 feet aft of amidships. 2359: An example of a grade D product is ____________________. 2360: According to regulations, ethylene oxide shall be loaded at a temperature below ____________________. 2362: A tankerman who permits or causes oil to go into a navigable waterway may be punished federally by __________________. 2363: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 22.0 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 23'-06", AFT 24'-03"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability? 2364: Your vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 27'-06". The present drafts are: FWD 24'-10", AFT 26'-00". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 1 foot is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2365: The space around a pipe in a wellbore, the outer wall of which may be the wall of either the borehole or the casing, is the ______________. 2366: What type of vent is required on a barge transporting No. 6 fuel oil? 2367: The person or company, either proprietor or lessee, actually operating an oil well or lease is the ______________. 2368: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. 2369: Which temperature would indicate a grade B flammable liquid? 2370: According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flammable limits of ethylene oxide are ________________. 2371: What does the term "head" mean when applied to a fire pump? 2372: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 23.0 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 15'-03", AFT 15'-09"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability? 2373: An uncontrolled flow of gas, oil, or other well fluids into the atmosphere is called a ____________. 2374: You are offloading garbage to another ship. Your records must identify that ship by name and show her __________. 2375: An entry of water, gas, oil, or other formation fluid into the wellbore is called a ____________. 2376: A vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 26'-03". The present drafts are: FWD 21'-04", AFT 24'-06". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 1 foot is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2377: The operation of hoisting the drill stem out of and returning it to the wellbore is called a ______________. 2378: A vessel's drafts are FWD 23'-01", AFT 24'-11". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if: (1) 142 tons are discharged 122 forward of amidships; (2) 321 tons are loaded 82 feet forward of amidships; and (3) 74 tons are discharged 62 feet aft of amidships. 2379: Regulations require that access to a cargo pumproom in a tank vessel carrying grade D liquid cargo, shall be ___________________________. 2380: Access to a cargo pumproom on a tank vessel carrying grades A, B, C or D liquid cargoes shall be _____________________. 2381: Beyond the area of state ownership in the U.S. outer continental shelf, the right to drill is controlled by the _________________. 2382: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-03". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2384: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 24.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 23'-04", AFT 24'-05"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability? 2385: When drilling from a MODU, the conductor casing is landed with its top extending to just ______________. 2390: According to the Chemical Data Guide, ethylene oxide exhibits which fire and explosion hazard? 2391: When fire pumps are used for other than firefighting services, each pipe connecting the other service (except for branch lines used for deck washing) must have a __________. 2392: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 13'-11", AFT 16'-05". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2393: An integral part of a blowout preventer that serves as the closing element on an open hole, and whose ends do not fit around the drill pipe but seal against each other and shut off the space below completely is the _______________. 2394: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-01". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 122 tons are discharged 76 feet aft of amidships, 128 tons are discharged 54 feet forward of amidships, and 68 tons of fuel is pumped 48 feet aft. 2395: A negative metacentric height __________. 2396: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-05", AFT 20'-01"; and the KG is 25.6 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 45²? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2399: Sixty (60) tons of cargo are raised with a heavy lift boom 45 feet from the centerline. The vessel's displacement including the weight lifted is 18,400 tons. The angle of list caused by the suspended weight is 1.5ø, KM is 28.75 ft., and BM is 17.25 ft. What is the KG? 2400: You are transferring a cargo of ethyl chloride and a small amount spills into the water around your vessel. The Chemical Data Guide indicates that the solubility of ethyl chloride in water will be ___. 2401: A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when _________________. 2402: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged? 2403: A frame with two, or sometimes four, arms through which are threaded the guidelines and which is used to keep the drill stem and bit in line with the center opening in the temporary guide base is the _______. 2404: Regulations require that cargo tanks carrying grades D or E liquids on tank barges be vented with _____________________. 2405: The heavy three-, four-, or six-sided length of pipe suspended from the swivel through the rotary table and connected to the topmost joint of drill pipe to turn the drill stem as the rotary table turns is called the ________. 2406: Your vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 26'-03". The present drafts are: FWD 22'-10", AFT 23'-08". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 18 inches is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2408: If your asphalt barge has operated more than 12 months in saltwater in the 24 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again? 2409: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 15'-02"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.0 foot off the centerline. 2410: Grade A flammable liquids are those with a Reid vapor pressure of _________________. 2411: The storage device for nitrogen-pressurized hydraulic fluid, which is used in closing the blowout preventers is called the _________________. 2412: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 5 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent? 2413: Signaling by flag hoist is completed by the vessel hoisting the ____. 2414: The flash point of a product is 100² F. What can happen if it is heated above 110² F? 2415: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 2418: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-07", AFT 25'-09"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 45²? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2420: What is an example of a grade A flammable liquid? 2422: What is the threshold limit value (TLV) for a product of PHTHALIC ANHYDRIDE? 2423: A large valve, usually installed above the ram preventers, that forms a seal in the annular space between the pipe and wellbore or, if no pipe is present, on the wellbore itself is called the ____________. 2425: Every seaman injured on a fishing vessel must report the injury to the Master, individual in charge, or other agent of the employer _____________. 2426: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-05", AFT 20'-01"; and the KG is 22.4 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15²? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2427: What is the female section of a tool joint called? 2428: What is the flash point of iso - Hexane? 2429: A vessel trimmed by the stern has a _____________. 2430: What is an example of a grade A flammable liquid? 2431: A device used to enlarge the size of an existing bore hole, having teeth arranged on its outside circumference to cut the formation as it rotates is a(n) ________________. 2432: You are loading propanolamine and spill a small quantity on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, you would expect its odor to be ______________________. 2433: The pipe and special fittings used on floating offshore drilling rigs to establish a connection between the top of the wellbore, which is on the ocean floor, and the drilling equipment, located above the surface of the water, is called a _________. 2434: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 16'-01"; and the KG is 24.4 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 30²? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2435: The joint of the riser in a marine riser system that compensates for heave, the up-and-down motion of a floater, is the ____. 2436: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-09", AFT 21'-01". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if: (1) 320 tons are loaded 47 feet forward of amidships; (2) 82 tons are discharged 110 feet forward of amidships; and (3) 50 tons of fuel are pumped 60 feet forward. 2437: A heavy steel device that is set on the sea floor and used as a drilling template in offshore drilling operations is called a _______. 2438: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-00". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 95 tons of cargo are loaded 76 feet forward of amidships. 2439: If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations which action should you take FIRST? 2440: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what does ethyl chloride produce when ignited? 2441: A set of clamps that are latched onto the drill pipe to allow the driller to raise or lower the drill string out of or into the hole are the _________________. 2442: The international shore connection _____. 2443: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. 2447: The connected joints of pipe, usually made of three joints of pipe approximately 90 feet long, racked in the derrick when making a trip are called a ___________. 2448: A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration MAY discharge food waste into the sea when the distance from the nearest land is at least _____________. 2449: You are loading epichlorohydrin onto your barge. According to the Chemical Data Guide, you could expect to detect a leak by smell if the concentration in air was at least ________________. 2450: During transfer operations, ethyl chloride spills into the water. According to the Chemical Data Guide, the ethyl chloride will boil off if the water temperature is above ___________________. 2451: The end of the joint with the exterior threads is called the _____. 2452: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 22'-09"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 30²? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2453: A tool consisting of a handle and releasable chain used for turning pipe or fittings of a diameter larger than that which a pipe wrench would fit is called ___________. 2454: In order to determine the fire and explosion hazard data for naphtha, you would use that information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for which chemical? 2455: The element used to keep weight on the bit at a constant value in spite of up-and-down movement of a MODU during floating drilling operations is the heave or drill string _______________. 2456: According to the Chemical Data Guide, epichlorohydrin is a(n) ________. 2457: What is a grooved pulley? 2458: To find the product Valeral in the Chemical Data Guide, you would have to look up the product _____________________. 2459: A virtual rise in the center of gravity may be caused by ______. 2460: During transfer operations, a quantity of propylamine spills on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, the correct procedure would be to _________________. 2461: A special device that, when fitted into the rotary table, transmits torque to the kelly and simultaneously permits vertical movement of the kelly to make the hole is called a _________________. 2462: If a leak occurred while loading diethylenetriamine, the chemical data guide indicates you would smell an odor similar to ________. 2463: A heavy, thick-walled tube, usually steel, used between the drill pipe and the bit in the drill stem to weight the bit in order to improve its performance is called a ______. 2464: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. 2465: The element that supports the weight of the drill stem, allows the drill stem to rotate, and provides a pressure-tight seal and passageway for the drilling mud to be pumped down the inside of the drill stem is called the ___________________. 2466: According to regulations, access to a cargo pumproom in a tank vessel carrying grades C or D liquid cargo shall be __________________. 2467: To prevent the riser system from buckling under its own weight, upward tension is provided by the ___________. 2468: What is NOT classified as a flammable liquid? 2469: According to the regulations, cargo pumprooms on tank vessels (constructed in 1965) handling grade C liquid cargo shall have power ventilation systems which can completely change the air in ______. 2470: According to the Chemical Data Guide, propylene oxide is assigned a health hazard rating of 3,2,2. The last digit "2" of the rating means ___________________. 2471: The device that allows a floating MODU to sway without bending the marine riser system is the _______. 2472: Which cargo grade(s) are permitted by regulations to be carried on a barge in tanks fitted only with gooseneck vents and flame screens? 2473: In very deep water drilling, it becomes necessary to reduce tension caused by the weight of the riser joints. This is accomplished by using a(n) __________________. 2474: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-07". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 142 tons of cargo are loaded 86 feet forward of amidships. 2475: Your fishing vessel is required to have a compass. It must also have a(n) _________________. 2476: Which tank barges require draft marks? 2478: Depending on its concentration, which product(s) can be classified as either grade D or E? 2479: Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan to be reviewed __________. 2480: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethyl chloride fire? 2482: If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to explode, then it must be ________________________. 2483: You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of garbage disposed must be stated in __________. 2484: Who may approve cargo piping to pass through a machinery space for a barge designed to carry only grade E products? 2485: A drilling bit which is doughnut shaped to permit recovery of the center portion of the hole drilled is called a _________________. 2486: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 2487: The wire ropes of the riser tensioning system are attached to the ________________. 2488: If a crew member is exposed to phenol by way of skin or eye contact, you should IMMEDIATELY _______________________. 2489: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent should be used on a petrolatum fire in an open area? 2490: Which extinguishing agent is effective in combating an isoprene fire? 2491: The platform that supports the derrickman when tripping pipe is called the __________________. 2492: At sea, you are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "P" hoisted. What should you do? 2493: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 2494: An example of a grade C product is ___________________. 2495: A series of trays with sieves that vibrate to remove cuttings from the circulating fluid in rotary drilling operations is called the _____. 2496: What type of vent system would a barge of acrylonitrile have? 2497: In MODU drilling operations, the term tripping means ______. 2498: Which product is volatile? 2499: What is an example of a grade B flammable liquid? 2500: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent is NOT recommended for use in fighting an ethylamine fire? 2501: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 20'-06", AFT 24'-00". The KG is 29.6 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline). 2502: The international shore connection ________. 2504: A reinspection of the vessel shall be made between which of the following months while the Certificate of Inspection is valid? 2505: The helicopter deck of a MODU must be marked with the units identification, appropriate aiming circles, and a continuous line on the perimeter which is _______. 2506: Grade E combustible liquids are those having flash points of ______. 2507: When using a crane for transferring personnel in a basket, the load hook must be equipped with a ________________. 2508: What is the TLV of cyclohexanol? 2509: How many portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area of an unmanned tank barge during cargo transfer, if the barge has no cargo pumps of her own? 2510: Camphor oil is classified as a ___________________. 2511: When lowering a personnel net to pick up personnel from a boat, the personnel basket should be __________________. 2512: Which of the following product(s) would be classified as grade E? 2513: The maximum number of personnel allowed on a personnel transfer basket is ____________________. 2514: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 16'-01"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15ø? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2515: Before personnel are lifted from a vessel in a personnel basket, the vessel should be ________________________ 2516: When heated to breakdown, tetraethyl or tetramethyl lead compounds emit highly toxic fumes of ___________________. 2517: When may a personnel net be used to bring heavy equipment aboard an offshore drilling unit? 2518: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. 2519: What are the venting requirements for a barge with a cargo of adiponitrile? 2520: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material is not compatible with vinylidene chloride (inhibited)? 2521: To enable tying down a helicopter on the landing area of a MODU, the landing deck must be fitted with _____________. 2522: What best describes benzene? 2523: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2000 brake horsepower? 2524: What characteristic determines when a grade "C" product will start to vaporize? 2525: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 2526: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 2527: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 2529: What is a grade B flammable liquid? 2530: Regulations require that cargo pumprooms on tank barges (constructed in 1965) carrying grades B or C liquid cargoes have power ventilation systems which can completely change the air in _____________. 2532: THe appearance of Bunker C and fuel oils are dark colored liquids, and __________ . 2533: An obstruction on a helideck is any object that might present a hazard to the ______________. 2534: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which reactive group(s) is/are not compatible with the products polybutene and o-xylene? 2535: The connection facilities for the international shore connection must be located to provide access _____________. 2536: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should _____________. 2537: Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE regarding heaving-to? 2538: According to the Chemical Data Guide, fuel oil number 6 has a flash point (degrees F) of __________________. 2539: If you came into contact with nitrobenzene while disconnecting the cargo hose, you should be aware that it is __________________. 2540: The MINIMUM ventilation requirements for pumprooms on tank vessels (constructed in 1960) carrying grades B or C liquid cargo with machinery spaces located below the freeboard deck specify _________. 2541: When lifting loads from a boat in heavy weather, the load should be taken when the boat ______________________. 2542: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 24'-02". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 15 inches? (Use the selected stability curves in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2543: The boom stops are installed on an offshore crane to ______. 2544: Triethylene glycol fires may be extinguished by _________. 2545: On a MODU crane, the boom indicator tells the operator what the boom angle is compared to the _______________. 2546: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-07", AFT 25'-09"; and the KG is 24.0 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15²? (Use the selected stability curves in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2547: On a MODU crane, the load chart relates the allowable load to the combination of boom length and _______. 2548: According to regulations, which grade(s) of cargo may be carried in tanks that are vented only with gooseneck vents and flame screens? 2549: Vessels A and B are identical; however, "A" is more tender than "B". This means that "A" relative to "B" has a _____. 2550: According to regulations, how many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area of an unmanned, cargo pump-equipped tank barge engaged in transferring grade B flammable liquids? 2551: The load chart of a MODU crane enables the operator to combine the load radius with boom length to determine the __________________. 2555: When hoisting personnel from a vessel, with the MODU cranes, the crane operator must assure that ____________. 2556: Regulations require that pumprooms on tank vessels carrying grade C liquid cargo with machinery spaces below the freeboard deck be ventilated with ____________. 2557: When transferring personnel with a MODU crane, the weight of the loaded personnel carrier must not exceed ________. 2558: Grade C liquids are those having a Reid vapor pressure of _____. 2559: What is NOT a grade B flammable liquid? 2560: Regulations require that cargo tanks in which grades B or C liquids are carried must be vented with which of the following? 2561: The weight of the loaded personnel carrier, when transferring personnel from a MODU with a crane, must not exceed ________. 2562: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 4000 brake horsepower? 2563: The hoist line primarily used for lifting personnel on MODU cranes is called the ___________. 2564: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability, and holds 1 and 2 flood, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent? 2565: Annual inspection of MODU cranes shall be conducted by ____. 2566: LFG tank and pipeline maintenance should include _____. 2567: A MODU crane which has been idle for a period of over six months shall be inspected to the same standards as a ______. 2568: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 21.3 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 15² inclination. 2569: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 22'-09"; and the KG is 24.4 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15²? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2570: What is NOT a requirement of the reinspection for a tank barge with a certificate of inspection valid for two years? 2571: You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next? 2573: Medical treatment aboard a MODU should not go beyond examination and emergency care without first consulting __________________. 2574: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 60² inclination. 2578: Your vessel displaces 9,000 tons and has a KG of 21.2 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 30² if the center of gravity shifts 2.6 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2580: If your JP-5 barge has operated in saltwater for less than 1 month in the 12 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again? 2581: A continuous watertight bulkhead on a MODU is normally also a(n) ________. 2582: When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to ________. 2584: The grade C flammable liquid phenylethane is found in the Chemical Data Guide under the chemical name _______________. 2585: Vertical partitions which provide strength and compartmentalization on a MODU are called ___________. 2586: To which group of hydrocarbons do Benzene and Toluene belong? 2587: Joiner bulkheads on a MODU provide _________________. 2588: Which extinguishing agent is recommended in the Chemical Data Guide for use on a carbon disulfide fire? 2589: If you discharge garbage overboard in violation of the regulations you are liable for up to _____________________. 2590: Regulations require that tank vessels handling grade B liquids shall have their cargo pumps separated from all sources of vapor ignition by ___________________. 2591: Structural bulkheads on a MODU are usually _____________. 2593: Bulkheads which form part of the tanks on a MODU are stiffened to withstand ___________________. 2594: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 3 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent? 2596: Drinking salt water will _______________. 2597: Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a MODU are called _______. 2598: A vessel displaces 12,000 tons and has a KG of 22.8 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 60ø if the center of gravity shifts 1.8 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2599: Oil fires are best extinguished by _____________. 2600: If your Bunker-C barge has operated in salt water for more than 12 months in the 24 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again? 2601: In MODU construction, a greater number of watertight bulkheads results in ___________________. 2602: In order to determine the health hazard data for carbolic acid, you would use that information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for which chemical? 2603: Where is the keel generally located on a MODU? 2604: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability, and holds 2 and 3 flood, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent? 2605: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 24'-02", AFT 24'-04". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 295 tons of cargo are loaded 122 feet aft of amidships. 2607: The tendency of a grade "B" product to vaporize is indicated by its ______. 2608: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 2610: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 21'-06.5", AFT 23'-05.4". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. 2611: The central longitudinal structural hull strength member of the lower hulls of semisubmersible MODU's is called the __________________. 2612: What is NOT listed as a synonym for crude oil in the Chemical Data Guide? 2613: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire? 2614: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire? 2615: On a MODU, the keel is the primary strength member of the lower hull form in which direction? 2616: According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flash point for motor gasoline is _________________. 2617: Which is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78? 2618: What would NOT be a good extinguishing agent for a grade B product of 1,3-Pentadiene? 2619: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 2620: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent is NOT recommended for use on a retinol fire? 2621: The decks of a MODU are supported by transverse members called _________. 2622: Liquefied flammable gas is defined as any flammable gas having a Reid vapor pressure exceeding how many pounds? 2623: Between the side frames on a MODU, support for the deck beams is provided by ___________________. 2624: The primary concern(s) for safely transporting and handling LFG is(are) _________________________. 2625: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should _________________. 2627: Deck beams on a MODU are generally spaced at equal intervals and run ____. 2628: What normally helps in detecting escaping gas? 2629: Severe exposure to chlorine gas can be fatal. Chlorine gas is primarily a _________________. 2630: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethylene cyanohydrin fire? 2631: In MODU construction, beam brackets are triangular plates that join the deck beam to a ____________________. 2632: What is the proper first aid for LPG in the eye? 2633: A load line for a MODU is assigned by the ________. 2634: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 4 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent? 2635: In MODU construction, beams are transverse girders which provide support to __________________. 2636: When providing first aid to a victim of gas poisoning, the MOST important symptom to check for is ___________________. 2637: The maximum draft to which a MODU can legally be submerged is indicated by the _________. 2639: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-10", AFT 26'-00". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2640: What is NOT a grade E product? 2641: The deck plating on a MODU is supported primarily by deck longitudinals and deck ________________. 2642: When properly set and drawing, a fore-and-aft sail has a cross-section that ______________. 2643: Stanchions prevent the entire deck load on a MODU from being carried by the ______________. 2644: When working on a tow, a good safety precaution is to _______________. 2645: Keeping the draft of a MODU at or below the load line mark will insure that the unit has adequate _________. 2646: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 3200 brake horsepower? 2648: Flames from small leaks of LFG may be extinguished by _____________________. 2649: Vinyl chloride reacts dangerously with ____________________. 2650: Which product(s) is(are) compatible with the product ethylene cyanohydrin? 2651: Load line regulations are designed to insure that a MODU has adequate structural strength and sufficient ________. 2652: Which towboat is required to carry an efficient daylight signaling lamp? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations) 2653: The deck loads on a MODU are distributed through the deck beams to the _________________. 2654: Name one major advantage of transporting gas under refrigeration. 2655: Support of MODU side plating is provided primarily by transverse _____. 2657: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-2", AFT 6'-8". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 23 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? 2659: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 2660: A synonym for chloroform is _________________________. 2661: When the longitudinal strength members of a MODU are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is ________. 2662: A vessel with a large GM will _______________. 2663: Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the MODU side plating are called __________________. 2664: Gasoline fumes tend to ___________. 2665: You are in the North Sea, which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to throw broken plywood dunnage over the side? 2666: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 15² inclination. 2667: Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plans must be reviewed ______________. 2669: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-10", AFT 26'-00". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 1 foot? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2670: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material would corrode upon contact with aniline? 2671: To meet the regulations governing manning requirements outside U.S. jurisdiction, a person holding a foreign license can serve in any of the following positions EXCEPT ________. 2672: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 16'-08", AFT 17'-06"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 60² inclination if the center of gravity is 1.7 feet off the centerline. 2673: A MODU having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is ____________________. 2674: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 2 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent? 2675: The heavier outboard strake of deck plating on a MODU is called the deck ____________. 2676: A safe fuel system must ______________. 2677: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. 2678: What happens to the pulling power of a winch when retrieving wire rope? 2679: The primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas is _______________________. 2680: You are loading benzyl chloride and a small quantity spills on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, which of the following may be used as a substitute for water for the cleanup procedure? 2681: You are offloading garbage to another ship. Your records must identify that ship by name and show her __________. 2682: The purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to ____________. 2683: On a MODU, the deck stringer is the outboardmost deck ________. 2684: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and holds 4 and 5 flood, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent? 2685: The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on a MODU is determined by the ________. 2686: Which tank barges require draft marks? 2688: The vapor pressure of a gas is the pressure necessary to keep it in a(n) _____. 2689: A vessel with a large GM will __________________. 2690: Heavy fuel oils when spilled are _____________________. 2691: Two individuals authorized to serve as a lifeboatman must be assigned to any lifeboat that has a capacity of more than ________. 2692: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 22'-10"; and the KG is 22.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 45² inclination. 2693: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stabiliry Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 2695: A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat must _____. 2696: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-09", AFT 28'-03"; and the KG is 22.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.6 feet off the centerline. 2697: In order to withstand fluid head pressure on a MODU, stiffeners are often attached to the bulkhead ____________. 2698: Using a sea anchor will _________________. 2699: Your vessel displaces 10,000 tons and has a KG of 22.6 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 45ø if the center of gravity shifts 2.0 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2700: According to the regulations, what fire safety control feature is required in quick-closing shut off valves? 2701: Compared to internal structural plating, the exterior hull plating on a MODU is usually __________. 2702: Your vessel displaces 12,000 tons and has a KG of 22.6 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 30² if the center of gravity shifts 1.8 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2703: The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on a MODU is stated in the __________. 2704: What must be located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire main system? 2705: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. 2706: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 15'-09", AFT 16'-08"; and the KG is 23.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 0.9 foot off the centerline. 2707: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 2708: Upon release to the atmosphere, LFG readily _______________. 2709: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-08"; and the KG is 22.9 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 50² inclination if the center of gravity is 0.5 foot off center. 2710: Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are required in how many location(s)? 2711: The number of able seamen required on a MODU is stated in the _____. 2712: A vessel with a small GM will ___________________. 2713: On a semisubmersible MODU, reserve buoyancy is increased by the presence of void spaces above the waterline in the ________. 2714: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 1 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent? 2715: The certificate of inspection of a MODU will specify the __________. 2716: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with _______. 2717: Horizontal subdivision decks forming watertight compartments in the columns of a semisubmersible MODU increase the unit's __________. 2718: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 22'-10"; and the KG is 18.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30² inclination. 2719: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-08". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 2 feet? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2720: To determine the pressure and temperature limitations under which LFG is required to be transported on a barge, you should look at the ________. 2721: You are at the helm of a schooner-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the port tack, on a beam reach, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "bear off quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should ___________________. 2722: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 24'-02". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2723: The prohibition against exceeding the load line draft may be considered temporarily not applicable when ________. 2724: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-03", AFT 18'-09"; and the KG is 22.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.4 feet off the centerline. 2725: The stability of a semisubmersible MODU would be seriously reduced if flooding occurred in the __________. 2726: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-02", AFT 23'-10". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 98 tons of fuel is loaded 116 feet forward of amidships. 2727: For optimum stability during jacking operations, mat ballast tanks or spud cans should be ____________________. 2728: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-00", AFT 14'-08"; and the KG is 25.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 30² inclination if the center of gravity is 1.5 feet off the centerline. 2729: You are approaching another vessel and see that it has the signal flag "O" hoisted. What is your next action? 2730: According to the regulations, normally, manholes in LFG tanks are located _________________________. 2731: The document that certifies the correctness of the load line marks on a MODU is called the ____________. 2732: According to the regulations, to prevent excessive pressure buildup in cargo tanks containing LFG, they are fitted with ______. 2733: Buoyancy associated with empty or partly empty ballast tanks in the mat of a mat supported jackup MODU during jacking operations can cause ___. 2734: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 24.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 15² inclination. 2735: A load line is assigned to a MODU to insure adequate stability and _________. 2736: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 23'-06"; and the KG is 22.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 19² inclination if the center of gravity is 1.3 feet off center. 2737: During jacking operations and transit, empty void spaces in the hull of a jack up MODU provide _________________. 2738: Generally, the first action in extinguishing an LFG fire caused by escaping gas is to ___________________. 2739: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-03". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2740: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 19'-06.6", AFT 20'-05.6". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference book to determine the final drafts. 2741: A record of the types and strengths of steels used on a MODU must be included in the ______________. 2742: A vessel with a small GM will _________________. 2743: Compliance with the terms of the load line certificate on a MODU is the responsibility of the _________. 2744: Radar reflectors are required for _____________. 2745: The construction portfolio may be included as part of the MODU _______. 2746: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30² inclination. 2747: Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment for a MODU must be made at intervals not exceeding ______. 2748: Most covered lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing if the __________. 2749: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-03". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 1 foot? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2750: According to regulations, a cargo hose used for transferring liquefied gases must have a bursting pressure of___ _______. 2751: The requirements for special welding procedures on a MODU must be contained in the ___________________. 2752: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30² inclination. 2753: For MODU's operating under the U.S. flag, the construction portfolio must contain _______________. 2754: Which lifesaving equipment must be tested monthly? 2755: What repair or modification to a MODU would most likely require consulting the construction portfolio? 2756: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 26² inclination if the center of gravity is 1.0 foot off center. 2757: A simplified construction plan may be included in the MODU construction portfolio provided it adequately defines the ______________________. 2758: A vessel is equipped with cross-connected deep tanks. In which situation should the cross-connection valve be closed? 2759: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-08". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2760: According to the regulations, what type of gaging is required for a cargo of butadiene? 2761: In the MODU construction portfolio, materials which do not conform to ASTM or ABS specifications must also include the _______. 2762: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-04", AFT 25'-10"; and the KG is 23.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 37² inclination. 2763: A welding procedure used for joining dissimilar metals used on a MODU would be recorded in the _________________. 2764: If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning ship it will _______________. 2765: The maximum draft to which a drilling unit may be safely loaded is called ________________________. 2766: How do you know how many passengers you may carry? (small passenger vessel regulations) 2767: Forces within a drilling unit have caused a difference between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is _________. 2768: Small passenger vessels of less than 65 ft. in length must be inspected by the Coast Guard when they carry more than _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2769: Starting motors, generators, and any other spark producing devices shall be ____________________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2770: Branch venting from safety relief valves on barges shall be constructed to discharge the gas at a vertical height above the weather deck to a minimum of _________________. 2771: The angle to which a floating MODU, with a negative initial metacentric height, lies while at rest in still water is the angle of ______. 2772: Tour vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-09", AFT 23'-07"; and the KG is 24.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 18² inclination. 2773: The required portable radio apparatus on an international voyage must be stowed in ______________. 2774: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 2775: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-08", AFT 29'-05". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. 2778: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-04"; and the KG is 17.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 75² inclination if the center of gravity is 2.5 feet off the centerline. 2780: The carriage of a liquefied gas not appearing in table 4 of 46 CFR Part 154 must be approved by the _______________. 2781: For a floating MODU, the center of flotation is the point in the waterplane __________. 2782: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-04"; and the KG is 22.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 20² inclination. 2783: The angle of loll is a stability term which applies to a floating MODU with ______________. 2784: When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height without a life jacket, you should _________________. 2785: The intact volume above the waterline of a floating MODU is __________. 2786: Certain equipment aboard vessels, inspected under the small passenger vessel regulations, is required to be marked with the vessel's name. This includes ___________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2787: You are on a commercial fishing vessel 78 feet long. At least one of your ring buoys or throwable flotation devices must have a line of what minimum length attatched? 2788: Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed during the loading of LFG? 2789: As appropriate for the voyage, all vessels must carry adequate and up-to-date _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2790: The weight of liquefied petroleum gas vapors as compared to air is _____. 2791: Seawater may be used for drinking ____________________. 2792: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-06", AFT 19'-01"; and the KG is 18.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 35² inclination. 2793: The mean draft of a MODU is the draft _____________. 2795: The true mean draft of a MODU is the draft _____________. 2796: Aboard vessels subject to the "Rules and Regulations for Small Passenger Vessels", cooking and heating equipment _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2797: A semisubmersible with a positive GM, and TCG located starboard of the centerline, inclines to an angle of ______. 2798: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 30² inclination if the center of gravity is 0.9 foot off the centerline. 2799: One of the principal dangers inherent in liquefied petroleum gas is ___________________________. 2800: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 8² after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 18'-03". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM. 2801: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2000 brake horsepower? 2802: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 15'-09"; and the KG is 18.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 2.0 feet off the centerline. 2804: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-09", AFT 20'-09"; and the KG is 24.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 15² inclination if the center of gravity is 0.5 foot off the centerline. 2808: A Certificate of Inspection for vessels not more than 65 feet in length and of less than 100 gross tons carrying more than six passengers will be issued for a period of _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2809: Acid batteries shall be located in a _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2810: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 6² after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 16'-00", AFT 16'-05". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM. 2812: What is correct with respect to required watertight bulkheads on small passenger vessels less than 100 GT? 2814: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-04", AFT 21'-08"; and the KG is 20.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 45² inclination if the center of gravity is 1.2 feet off the centerline. 2816: The length of a line which is required to be attached to a ring life buoy must be at least _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2818: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 10² after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 15'-11", AFT 16'-06". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM. 2819: Distress flares and smoke signals are not required on vessels operating on short runs. A "short run" is limited to _____________. (small passenger vessel regulation) 2820: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. 2822: Survival craft required on a steel small passenger vessel operating in cold water must _____________________________. 2824: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-01", AFT 24'-05"; and the KG is 22.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 30² inclination if the center of gravity is 1.9 feet off the centerline. 2825: The purpose of the inclining experiment is to ___________. 2826: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should ___________. 2827: For a floating MODU, true mean draft is always the ______. 2828: How often shall the steering gear of each vessel be tested by the Master or Mate? (small passenger vessel regulations) 2829: The vessel's steering gear, signaling whistle, controls, and communication system shall be tested by the operator ______. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2830: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 14² after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 13'-01", AFT 13'-11". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM. 2832: Which fuel cannot be used for cooking on vessels carrying passengers for hire? (small passenger vessel regulations) 2834: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 60² inclination if the center of gravity is 24 feet off the centerline. 2836: The remote control for a fixed fire extinguishing system should be _____________________. 2837: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. 2838: How many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of a 260 GT tow vessel with 2400 B.H.P.? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations) 2839: What type of cooking equipment may NOT be used aboard vessels subject to The Rules and Regulations for Small Passenger Vessels? 2840: If a vessel loads 400 tons of deck cargo resulting in a GM of -0.2 feet on 9000 tons of displacement, what will be the angle of loll? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2841: The distance from the still water level (corrected for tides and storm surge) to the bottom of the hull of a MODU is the _______. 2842: A "T-boat" of 65 feet or less in length, however propelled, must not be operated with more than six passengers aboard _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2843: Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must be kept __________. 2844: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 37² inclination if the center of gravity is 1.8 feet off center. 2845: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. 2846: A vessel operating on international voyages would have to dry-dock at least once every ___ months. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2847: The required portable radio shall be stored in the proper location and be _________________. 2848: The inspection of a 50 ft. vessel of 65 gross tons carrying more than six passengers is required by the Coast Guard once in every _______. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2850: If a vessel loads 400 tons of deck cargo resulting in a GM of -0.3 foot on 9000 tons displacement, what will be the angle of loll? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2851: Kevlar sails, when not in use, may be damaged if __________. 2852: The collision bulkhead is _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2854: The sailing drafts are: FWD 14'-08", AFT 15'-06" and the GM is 4.8 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 40² inclination. 2858: Under 46 CFR subchapter T, a 50-foot passenger vessel not limited to daylight operation is required to be equipped with at least _______.(small passenger vessel regulations) 2859: For emergency communications, vessels operating on oceans, coastwise,or Great Lakes routes, on runs of more than 30 minutes shall carry in a portable watertight container at or near the operating station _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2860: If a vessel loads 250 tons of deck cargo resulting in a GM of -0.3 foot on 8000 tons displacement, what will be the angle of loll? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2862: A wooden small passenger vessel operating on a coastwise route in cold water shall carry sufficient inflatable buoyant apparatus for _____________ or meet alternate requirements regarding collision bulkhead standards and the provision of life floats.(small passenger vessel regulations) 2864: The sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-08", AFT 23'-04" and the GM is 4.6 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 20² inclination. 2866: If a vessel is not equipped with an automatically-activated emergency lighting system, the vessel must be _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2867: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for amidships is ____________. 2868: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stabiity Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 2870: If a vessel loads 250 tons of deck cargo resulting in a GM of -0.4 foot on 8000 tons displacement, what will be the angle of loll? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2871: In illustration D041DG, the symbol 3 represents __________. 2872: A tank barge equipped with an internal-combustion engine-driven cargo pump on the weather deck shall be provided with a minimum of one remote manual shutdown station. What is the correct location of the shutdown station? 2873: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for the reference from which transverse measurements are made is _____________. 2874: The sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-06", AFT 23'-06" and the GM is 3.3 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 22² inclination. 2875: In illustration D041DG, symbol 5 represents _____________. 2876: The minimum number of portable B-II fire extinguishers required in the machinery space of a 199 GT motor towing vessel of 8000 B.H.P. is _____. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations) 2877: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for the vertical plane midway between the fore and aft perpendiculars is ______________. 2878: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should _____________. 2879: While underway and towing an unmanned tank barge you are required to _______________. 2880: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 6² list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-05", AFT 16'-07". If you then load 1150 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 12.0 feet) and take on 520 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2882: Whenever an inspected vessel is dry-docked for major repairs, the person in charge of the vessel, the owner or the agent should report this to the ____________________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2884: The sailing drafts are: FWD 23'-02", AFT 24'-06" and the GM is 2.8 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available righting arm at 30² inclination. 2885: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 29'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. 2886: A vessel operated in salt water for 6 months or less in a 12 month period shall be dry docked at least every _______. 2887: Seawater may be used for drinking _____________________. 2888: The inspection of small passenger vessels of 60 feet in length carrying more than six persons is required by the Coast Guard _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2889: Switchboards shall be ...... (small passenger vessel regulations) 2890: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed an 8² list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-10", AFT 17'-02". If you then load 1050 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 12.5 feet) and 475 tons in the lower tween decks (VCG 24.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2891: The maximum angle at which the intact stability curves are valid for MODU's is the angle for ________________. 2892: Regulations define the bulkhead deck as _________________. (subdivision and stability regulations) 2893: The downflooding angle for a MODU is the maximum angle at which _______________. 2894: The sailing drafts are: FWD 23'-10", AFT 25'-02" and the GM is 5.3 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 18² inclination. 2895: The downflooding angle for a MODU is the minimum angle at which _________________. 2896: Your vessel is certificated to carry 50 persons. You are required to have _____. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2897: If the result of loading a vessel is an increase in the height of the center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the ___________. 2898: Painters on life floats shall be not less than ___________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2899: All small passenger vessels operating on lakes, bays, sounds, or river routes on runs of more than 30 minutes are required to carry _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2900: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 7² list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 17'-00", AFT 17'-04". If you then load 825 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 11 feet) and take on 500 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2901: What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel? 2902: Vessels in ocean service shall carry sufficient life floats for _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2904: The sailing drafts are: FWD 24'-03", AFT 25'-03" and the GM is 5.5 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 30² inclination. 2905: Each emergency light must be marked with _____________. 2906: Which vessel must carry a compass on board? (small passenger vessel regulations) 2907: The number of kips necessary to change the true mean draft of a MODU one inch is known as ______________. 2908: How many months after its expiration date may a Coast Guard license be renewed without retaking the complete exam? 2909: Following a collision or accident, the Master of each vessel involved must render assistance to persons affected by the collision or accident _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2910: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 6² list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 16'-06". If you then load 825 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 11.5 feet) and take on 624 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2911: In the event of a fire, the doors to a stairtower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by ___________. 2912: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 2913: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 21'-09.5", AFT 22'-09.5". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. 2914: The sailing drafts are: FWD 25'-03", AFT 26'-03" and the GM is 3.5 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 25² inclination. 2915: A MODU lists and trims about the ________. 2916: What is the minimum number of B-II hand portable fire extinguishers required on board a 105 GT towboat with a 7500 B.H.P. plant (including the machinery space)? 2917: For a jackup, the angle of maximum stability corresponds approximately to the angle of _______________. 2918: Which statement is TRUE concerning the ventilation of engine and fuel tank compartments on uninspected towing vessels using fuel with a flash point of 100ø F? 2919: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT ___________. 2920: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed an 8² list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 16'-06". If you then load 1200 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 12 feet) and take on 624 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2921: A MODU is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is _______. 2922: Whenever practicable, the Certificate of Inspection must be posted _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2923: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 2924: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.4 feet and the drafts are: FWD 15'-03", AFT 15'-09". 2925: The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with increased _________. 2926: The sailing drafts are: FWD 16'-06", AFT 17'-04" and the GM is 2.6 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 15² inclination. 2927: If the metacentric height is small, a floating MODU will __________. 2928: It is recommended that drip collectors required on all updraft carburetors be drained by _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2929: Switches other than those mounted on the switchboard shall be of the _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2930: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 5² list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-10", AFT 16'-08". If you then load 1225 tons of cargo in the lower hold (VCG 12 feet) and 875 tons of cargo in the lower tween decks (VCG 24 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2931: If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU will _______. 2932: What is FALSE concerning the use of unicellular plastic foam work vests on small passenger vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations) 2933: Movement of liquid in a tank when a drilling barge inclines causes an increase in __________________. 2934: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 21.8 feet and the drafts are: FWD 23'-05", AFT 24'-04". 2936: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 16'-03", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.3 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 2 feet off the centerline. 2937: A tank of a MODU with a volume of 2,000 cubic feet is pressed with sea water weighing 64 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in kips, of the liquid? 2938: What equipment must be on a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations) 2939: How many distress flares and smoke signals are small pssenger vessels on oceans, coastwise or Great Lakes routes required to carry? 2940: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 5² list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-05", AFT 16'-07". If you then load 1200 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 11 feet) and take on 520 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2941: The existence of liquids in partially full tanks or compartments of a MODU causes a virtual rise in the height of the _________________. 2942: Vessels in ocean service shall carry _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2943: A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________________. 2944: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 25.0 feet and the drafts are: FWD 15'-04", AFT 15'-08". 2945: A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by ___________________. 2946: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 18'-03"; and the KG is 22.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.5 feet off the centerline. 2947: A semisubmersible displacing 700,000 cubic feet while floating in sea water (64 pounds per cubic foot) weighs ___. 2948: Licenses are issued for ____________. 2949: Which information are you required to report to the Coast Guard when an accident occurs in which loss of life results? (small passenger vessel regulations) 2950: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 7² list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-00", AFT 16'-02". If you then load 1050 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 11.0 feet) and take on 600 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2951: A jackup displacing 350,000 cubic feet while floating in sea water (64 pounds per cubic foot) weighs _______. 2952: Where is the most probable location of the remote shutdown station for cargo pumps on a tank barge carrying oil? 2953: When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to ________. 2954: Your sailing drafts are FWD: 19'-06", AFT 20'-10" and the GM is 3.3 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #2 starboard deep tank (capacity 100 tons, VCG 19.1 feet, and 24 feet of the centerline) is filled with fuel oil? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2955: For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force _________________________. 2956: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 21'-10.6", AFT 22'-11.6". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stabiiity Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. 2957: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-09", AFT 23'-03"; and the KG is 20.0 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.9 feet off the centerline. 2958: The discharge side of every fire pump must be equipped with a ______. 2959: Which commodity would be regulated by subchapter D, Rules and Regulations for Tank Vessels? 2960: As Master of a small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations will you find the answer? 2961: The Certificate of Inspection issued to a vessel carrying more than six passengers must be _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2962: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. 2963: Which of the following statements about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT? 2964: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.2 feet and the drafts are: FWD 23'-06", AFT 24'-03". 2966: Each vessel shall be dry-docked or hauled out at intervals not to exceed 2 years if operated in salt water for a total of more than _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2967: When a wind force causes a floating MODU to heel to a static angle, the _______. 2968: Air-cooled radiators for gasoline propulsion engine cooling _______. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2969: All inlets and discharges led through the vessel's hull below a line drawn parallel to and not less than six inches above the load waterline shall be fitted with ____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2972: Regulations require that approved buoyant work vests _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 2974: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 21.2 feet and the drafts are: FWD 27'-11", AFT 28'-07". 2975: A quick and rapid motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________. 2976: The number of children's life jackets carried must be at least what percentage of the total number of person's aboard? (small passenger vessel regulations) 2977: A slow and easy motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a ___________. 2978: Which equipment is not required for a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations) 2979: Which vessel is required to carry a Category I, 406 MHz EPIRB installed to automatically float free and activate? (small passenger vessel regulations) 2981: The center of gravity of a freely swinging load suspended from a pedestal crane acts as if it were located at the ___________________. 2982: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 2983: The height of the metacenter above the keel will vary depending on the ________________________. 2984: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 24'-02", AFT 24'-10" and the GM is 4.6 feet. What will be the angle of list if #6 starboard double bottom (capacity 95 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 21 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2985: For a MODU with list, a decrease in GMT will cause the angle of inclination to _____. 2986: The person in charge of a vessel must prepare and post which of the following, in a conspicuous place accessible to the crew and passengers? (small passenger vessel regulations) 2987: For a MODU with trim, a decrease in GMT will cause the angle of inclination to ________. 2988: No person whose license has been revoked shall be issued another license except upon _____________. 2989: When would it NOT be necessary to immediately notify the U.S. Coast Guard? (small passenger vessel regulations) 2990: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 30'-08". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. 2992: A 98 GT uninspected towing vessel with a 1500 B.H.P. engine capability would be required to carry how many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers on board? 2993: Convection spreads a fire by _____________. 2994: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 22'-04" and the GM is 3.2 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #6 port deep tank (capacity 201 tons, VCG 11.4 feet, and 25.5 feet off the centerline) is filled with fuel oil? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 2996: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. 2998: The minimum amount of lifesaving equipment required aboard an 85-foot uninspected towing vessel consists of __________. 2999: The use of portable electrical equipment in the pumproom on tank barges is prohibited unless _________________. 3002: A vessels Certificate of Inspection will show the _________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3004: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 23.7 feet and the drafts are: FWD 28'-00", AFT 28'-06". 3005: All vessels having a Certificate of Inspection and operating exclusively in salt water shall be dry-docked or hauled out _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3006: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. 3007: A floating MODU with an initial negative metacentric height __________. 3008: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. 3009: Which type of ventilation is required for enclosed spaces containing gasoline, machinery, or fuel tanks? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3010: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 3011: A semisubmersible which will not remain upright and will assume a list either to port or starboard is likely to have _______. 3012: You are on the cargo vessel represented in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book. Your present KG is 22.3 feet and the drafts are FWD 21'-07", AFT 22'-05". The following cargo must be loaded: (1) 1120 tons, KG 33 feet; (2) 990 tons, KG 25 feet. How many tons of deck cargo with a KG of 47 feet may be loaded if the ship is to sail with a GM of not less than 2.1 feet and not exceed the freeboard draft? 3013: Semisubmersibles A and B are identical. However, "A" is more tender than "B". This means that "A" relative to "B" has a ______. 3014: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 21.8 feet and the drafts are: FWD 19'-05", AFT 20'-01". 3015: An inclined semisubmersible with a very short rolling period about a constant angle of list is likely to have _______. 3016: Pyrotechnic distress signals are required to be renewed no later than the first inspection after a certain period of time after the date of manufacture. What is this period of time? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3017: A semisubmersible which flops between forward and aft trim angles is likely to have _______. 3018: Each lifefloat on an inspected vessel shall be fitted and equipped with _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3019: All vessels not limited to daylight service shall be fitted with a ring life buoy _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3021: A semisubmersible which flops between port and starboard angles of list is likely to have _______. 3022: Vessels operating in warm water whose routes are restricted to 20 miles from a harbor of safe refuge shall carry life floats or buoyant apparatus for not less than _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3023: A semisubmersible which flops between forward and aft angles of trim is likely to have _______. 3024: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-05" and the GM is 3.4 feet. What will be the angle of list if #4 port double bottom (capacity 140 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 26 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 3025: A semisubmersible with a negative GM flops to an angle of ______. 3026: Who is required to prepare and post Emergency Instructions in a conspicuous place accessible to crew and passengers? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3027: If the result of loading a MODU is an increase in the height of the center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the ______. 3028: While serving as Master on board your vessel, your license must be _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3029: A stability test, under Coast Guard supervision, conducted by the owner, builder, or his representative is required when _____________. 3030: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. 3031: The natural rolling period of a drilling barge increases when _______. 3032: Controls for a fixed carbon dioxide system shall be mounted _________. 3033: The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________. 3034: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 16'-02" and the GM is 3.0 feet. What will be the angle of list if #5 port double bottom (capacity 195 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 18.5 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 3036: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. 3038: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 3039: What is a requirement for remote manual shutdown stations for internal combustion engine driven cargo pumps on tank barges? 3040: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-00", AFT 21'-10". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 3041: Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must be kept __________. 3042: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. 3044: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.4 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 19'-06", AFT 20'-00". 3046: How long is the Certificate of Inspection issued to a 50 gross ton, passenger carrying vessel which is 60 feet (18 meters)in length valid? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3047: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of _______________. 3048: What device is required for a vertical dry exhaust system? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3049: Except as otherwise provided, vessels permitted to carry not more than 49 passengers shall be fitted with at least _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3050: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 15'-08". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 3052: Which statement is TRUE concerning work vests on a small passenger? 3054: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 23'-06", and the GM is 3.2 feet. What will be the angle of list if #3 starboard double bottom (capacity 97 tons, VCG 2.5 feet and 23 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 3056: The service use of pyrotechnic distress signals measured from the date of manufacture shall be limited to a period of __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3058: Life floats and buoyant apparatus shall be marked _______. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3059: A small passenger vessel under 65 feet in length is required to carry how many ring life buoys? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3060: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-00", AFT 17'-02". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 3062: The Master of a vessel shall make sure the EPIRB is tested ____________________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3063: The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of departure? 3064: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 18'-03", AFT 19'-07" and the GM is 4.3 feet. What will be the angle of list if #2 starboard double bottom (capacity 78 tons, VCG 2.7 feet, and 24.5 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 3066: Every vessel shall have its steering gear tested by the Master or Mate _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3068: After a collision, accident or other casualty involving a small passenger vessel, the Master must _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3069: Unless otherwise stated, the term "approved" applied to a vessel's equipment, means approved by the _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3070: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 12'-08". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 3071: The free surface effects of a partially-full tank in a floating MODU increase with the _______. 3072: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6450 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 274.46 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 3073: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 29'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. 3074: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-03" and the GM is 2.8 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #4 starboard double bottom (capacity 141 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 23.8 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book) 3075: Although KG for a MODU in lightweight is relatively high, the vessel is stiff because __________. 3076: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stablity Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 3077: The purpose of the inclining experiment on a MODU is to determine the ___________________. 3079: You are operator of an uninspected towing vessel of 150 GT with 3300 B.H.P. How much fire extinguishing equipment are you required to have on board? 3080: When inspecting a tank barge to see that it has all the required fire extinguishers and other safety items aboard, which of the following is the best source for determining what is required? 3082: On vessels subject to the provisions of 46 CFR Subchapter T, life jackets shall be _____________. 3083: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. 3084: All lifefloats and buoyant apparatus shall be conspicuously marked with the _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3085: The vertical distance between G and M of a MODU is used as a measure of _________________. 3086: Which barge in your tow would require a cargo information card to be carried in the pilothouse? 3089: What is NOT a responsibility of the tankerman in charge of loading an unmanned tank barge? 3090: Which statement is TRUE concerning spare charges for portable fire extinguishers on unmanned tank barges? 3091: When will the float-free emergency position indicating radiobeacon be activated after abandoning ship? 3092: Why is it necessary to extend ventilators of gasoline powered vessels to the bilges? 3093: You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of over 300 gross tons. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents ___________________. 3094: A type B-III CO2 extinguisher has a rated capacity of _____. 3096: The shut off valve at the gasoline tank which can be operated from outside the tank space _____. 3098: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 8 & 12 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 28'-03"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN). 3099: Which type of power may a towing vessel use to drive the cargo pumps of a tank barge? 3100: Portable fire extinguishers must be provided for the cargo tank area of an unmanned tank barge ___________________. 3101: Adding the transverse free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields ____________________. 3102: Which type of fixed fire-extinguishing system is approved for use on board uninspected vessels? 3103: Adding the longitudinal free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields _____________________. 3104: An emergency check-off list is required on vessels carrying six or fewer passengers for hire. The list must contain information on all of the following EXCEPT ________________. 3105: Subtracting the height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects from the height of the transverse metacenter of a MODU yields ______________. 3106: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5480 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 272.20 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 3107: Subtracting the height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects from the height of the longitudinal metacenter of a MODU yields _______________. 3108: A CO2 extinguisher which has lost 10% of its charge must be ________. 3109: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. 3110: When a vessel is not in compliance with its Certificate of Inspection, which certificate may be issued to allow its movement to a repair facility? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3111: For a MODU with list, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to ______________. 3112: An 85 foot uninspected towing vessel with a crew of ten (10) persons on board must carry at LEAST ____________________. 3113: For a MODU with trim, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to ____________. 3115: For a MODU with transverse inclination, an increase in GMT causes _______________. 3116: On a cargo vessel, fire and boat drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew replaced was more than ____. 3117: For a MODU with longitudinal inclination, an increase in GML causes ______________________. 3118: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 4850 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 275.72 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 3119: Life floats and buoyant apparatus may be stowed in tiers, one above the other, to a height of not more than ________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3120: Before issuing an initial Certificate of Inspection, the construction arrangement and equipment of a vessel must be acceptable to the _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3121: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should ___________. 3122: All life jackets carried on board small passenger vessels are required to be marked _____. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3123: You are monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you receive a call to your vessel, TEXAS PRIDE. What is the proper way to answer this call? 3124: On a life float or buoyant apparatus, the life line is _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3125: The center of flotation for the COASTAL DRILLER is located at the geometric center of the _______________. 3126: A cargo information card does NOT contain ________________. 3127: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of a _____________. 3128: You are Master of a 20-ton ketch. You wish to heave-to on the starboard tack in 35 knots of wind. Which action would be appropriate? 3130: What is the minimum height of rails on passenger decks of ferryboats, excursion vessels, and vessels of a similar type? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3131: Damage stability of a MODU is the stability ____________. 3133: The stability which exists after the unintentional flooding of a compartment on a MODU is called _______. 3134: Which is a B-II fire extinguisher? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations) 3135: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. If the port forward inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged? 3136: Where should the tops of vents from gasoline tanks terminate? 3137: With damaged floating vessels, the most important consideration is the preservation of ______________. 3138: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 20 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 29'-06"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.) 3139: Open ullage holes in tanks which are not gas-free must be protected by ________________. 3140: Escape hatches and other hatches in weather decks on passenger vessels operating beyond protected waters _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3141: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 3142: In the machinery space of all uninspected motor vessels, there must be one type B-II hand portable fire extinguisher for every ______. 3144: On a lifeboat equipped with Rottmer-type releasing gear, turning the releasing lever releases _________. 3145: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port forward column below the waterline. You should pump from tank ____. 3146: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6048 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 270.89 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 3147: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers severe damage to the starboard forward column below the waterline. You should pump from tank _______. 3148: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 29'-06", AFT 29'-02". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. 3149: To find the cause of a gasoline engine's failure to start, you should _____________. 3150: Your vessel must have a B-II fire extinguisher. Which extinguisher fulfills this requirement? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3151: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers severe damage to the starboard aft column below the waterline. You should pump from tank _______. 3152: U. S. Coast Guard approved work vests may be substituted life jackets ___________________________. 3153: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers severe damage to the port aft column below the waterline. You should pump from tank _______. 3154: How many escape routes must normally exist from all general areas accessible to the passengers or where the crew may be quartered or normally employed? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3155: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port center column below the waterline. Among the tanks from which you should pump is tank _____. 3156: A fire and boat drill on a tank vessel shall, by regulation, include ___________________. 3157: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard center column below the waterline. Among the tanks from which you should pump is tank _____. 3158: Electric generators can be protected against overload _____________. 3159: Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by _____________. 3160: Fixed ballast, if used, may be ________________________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3161: The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________________. 3162: All life jackets and life buoys shall be marked with the vessel's name in letters at least _____. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3163: A continual worsening of the list or trim of any floating MODU indicates _______________. 3164: When discharging cargo from a tank barge, in which case may the cargo pass through or over the towing vessel? 3165: The wooden plug inserted in the vent of a damaged tank of a MODU should be removed in case it is decided to ____. 3166: You are underway with a tow consisting of six barges containing hazardous chemicals. Which statement is FALSE concerning a cargo information card? 3167: Topside icing that blocks freeing ports and scuppers ______. 3168: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6080 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 270.71 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 3169: Which license or document enable a person to serve as person in charge of a tank barge which is transferring cargo? 3170: What would be an example of a B-I extinguisher? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3171: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of ___________. 3172: Your vessel has a gasoline engine and a mechanical exhaust ventilation system. BEFORE starting the engine, the exhaust blower should be run long enough to __________. 3173: What is considered to be a B-II portable fire extinguisher? 3174: What is considered to be a B-II portable fire extinguisher? 3175: The jettisoning of topside weight from a MODU serves what purpose? 3176: The tops of vents from gasoline tanks should terminate ____. 3177: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. 3178: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 23 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 28'-0"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.) 3179: What is NOT a requirement for storage batteries on tank barges? 3181: Repairing damage to the hull of a MODU at or above the waterline reduces the threat of __________________. 3182: What is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers required on board a Class 3 motorboat having a fixed fire system on board? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations) 3183: The order of importance in addressing damage control on a MODU is __________________. 3184: The center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force _________________. 3185: Control of flooding on a MODU should be addressed _________. 3187: Repair of vital machinery and services on a MODU should be accomplished ____________________. 3189: If a gasoline engine turns over freely but will not start, the cause is generally _____________. 3190: Your 75 gross ton vessel is 80 feet in length and carrying passengers for hire. What is the minimum number of fire pumps you are required to have on board? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3191: To assess the potential for progressive flooding aboard a damaged MODU, you must know the ______________. 3192: Which statement is FALSE concerning the use of approved buoyant work vests on board uninspected towboats? 3193: Progressive flooding on a MODU may be indicated by ________. 3194: Generally, what is used to inflate life rafts? 3195: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. 3196: What shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill? 3197: The best information on the nature and extent of damage on a MODU is obtained from _______________. 3198: Starting motors, generators, and other spark producing devices should be mounted as high above the bilges as possible to _____________. 3199: You are towing a 1,000 GT gasoline tank barge which is not gas free. By regulation, cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates on the barge may ___________________. 3200: Which circumstance concerning an inspected passenger vessel would require knowledge and approval of the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3201: The stamped full weight of a 100-lb. CO2 bottle is 314 lbs. What is the minimum weight of the bottle before it has to be recharged? 3202: Which of these approved lifesaving devices must a small passenger vessel carrying passengers for hire carry for each person on board? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3205: On a sailing vessel, it is best to approach a person in the water by placing them on your _________________. 3206: Your tow contains a barge carrying carbon tetrachloride. What is NOT required? 3210: The fire pump required for a 75 gross ton mechanically propelled vessel, 58 feet in length, carrying 52 passengers shall be capable of _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3212: Before starting a gasoline engine on a motorboat, you should make sure for safety that ______________. 3214: What does the "B" on a "B-II" fire extinguisher refer to? 3216: Gasoline fuel tank vents should terminate _____. 3218: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 3 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 27'-07"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.) 3219: The final inspection responsibility for seeing that a tank barge is provided with the required equipment and fittings in good and serviceable condition prior to loading cargo rests with the _____________________. 3220: All vessels shall carry _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3221: A MODU with a displacement of 15,000 kips has a KG of 20 feet. A load of 300 kips is shifted from a VCG of 100 feet to a VCG of 10 feet. How far does the KG move? 3222: Either one type B-III semi-portable fire-extinguishing system or a fixed fire-extinguishing system shall be fitted in the machinery space on vessels of over _______________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations) 3223: After 1 September 1992, in the North Pacific area, a documented 75-foot fishing vessel operating in cold waters 25 miles off the coast must have at least a(n) ___________. 3224: Where shall the refrigeration gas mask be stowed on passenger vessels in river services 3225: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 18'-05", AFT 20'-11". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. 3226: The sign used to caution persons approaching the gangway of a tank barge during cargo transfer reads _________________. 3227: A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 18,000 long tons. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 80 feet to starboard of the centerline. What is the new TCG? 3228: A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. Your FIRST action should be to _________. 3229: The engine head, block, and exhaust manifold shall be _____. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3230: Which statement is TRUE concerning a hand fire pump on board a small passenger vessel? 3232: Which statement is TRUE concerning work vests aboard a vessel? 3233: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine about to surface is ___________. 3235: A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is added at a VCG of 150 feet. The change in KG is ___________________. 3236: While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of two short blasts of the whistle. This signal indicates _______. 3237: A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is discharged from a VCG 150 feet. The change in KG is _________________. 3238: During fueling, all doors, hatches, and ports ___________. 3239: Your tow includes a loaded chlorine barge. After inspecting the tow, the mate reports that he hears a hissing sound coming from the safety valves. Where will you find information on emergency procedures concerning the uncontrolled release of cargo? 3240: When a vessel is required to have a power-driven fire pump, the pump may also be used for _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3241: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 45 feet and total vertical moments of 981,567 ft-long tons, floods 2068.7 long tons of sea water through the overboard discharge into tanks 3 and 8 on both sides. The VCG of the added ballast is 7.22 feet. The shift in the height of the center of gravity is _______. 3242: A vessel carrying passengers for hire shall have on board an approved life jacket _____. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3243: If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST __________. 3244: A person may operate an air compressor in which of the following areas on board a tank barge? 3245: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. 3246: A loaded hopper barge with independent tanks has a placard, with alternating red and white quadrants, on each side and end. Which statement concerning this barge is TRUE? 3247: A semisubmersible with displacement of 19,700 long tons and KG of 50.96 feet loads 300 long tons of barite into P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. What is the change in KG? 3248: Who is NOT authorized to serve as tankerman? 3249: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. 3250: Which statement is TRUE concerning fire hose on a small passenger vessel? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3252: Before any machinery is put in operation, you should _____________. 3253: A semisubmersible displacing 17,600 long tons has an LCG 3.2 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is loaded into P-tanks located 50.8 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG? 3254: All uninspected motor vessels constructed after 25 April 1940, which use fuel with a flash point of 110ø F (43ø C) or less, shall have at least what number of ventilator ducts for the removal of explosive or flammable gases from every engine and fuel tank compartment? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations) 3255: A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is discharged from a VCG of 150 feet. To maintain draft, ballast is added at a VCG of 10 feet. What is the change in KG? 3256: Gasoline vapor tends to collect _____. 3257: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 tons and a KG of 60.0 feet loads 300 tons at a VCG of 120 feet. To maintain draft, ballast is discharged from a height of 20 feet. What is the change in KG? 3258: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 20 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 24'-10"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.) 3259: Why is a warning sign displayed at the gangway or access point of a barge during cargo transfer? 3260: A length of fire hose shall be _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3261: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 tons and a KG of 60.0 feet loads 300 tons at a VCG of 120 feet. What is the change in KG? 3262: You are the operator of a 290-GT diesel propulsion tug. Which type of semiportable or fixed fire extinguishing system is required on your vessel? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations) 3263: What is the operating principal of a flash type evaporator? 3264: If you reef a marconi mainsail, the sail area _____________. 3265: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 tons and KG of 52 feet discharges 300 long tons of barite from P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. Ballast added to maintain draft has a VCG of 20 feet. What is the change in KG? 3266: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. 3267: A MODU displacing 30,500 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is discharged from a VCG of 150 feet. What is the change in KG? 3268: Diesel engines are considered safer than gasoline engines because _____________. 3270: Which portable fire extinguisher is required just outside the exit of the propulsion machinery space of a 75-ton passenger vessel? 3271: A MODU displacing 29,500 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is added at a VCG of 150 feet. What is the change in KG? 3272: Where should life jackets be stowed? 3273: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 long tons and a KG of 52 feet discharges 300 long tons of barite from P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. What is the change in KG? 3274: Vessels required to be equipped with an approved backfire flame arrester are _____________. 3275: Your present displacement is 15,000 short tons. The KG at this displacement is 60 feet. 100 short tons of casing are added at a VCG of 75 feet for an ocean tow. What is the new KG? 3276: While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of one short blast of the whistle. This signal indicates ________. 3277: When starting a long ocean tow at a displacement of 18,000 short tons and a KG of 70 feet, you dump 100 short tons of water which had a VCG of 88 feet. What is the new KG? 3278: Gasoline tanks should be filled ______. 3279: You have orders to drop off a barge loaded with propylene oxide at a fleet. In doing so, you must ensure that ______. 3280: Which type of fire extinguishers are permitted on inspected vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3281: Preparing to move on a location, you find that you must remove 450 tons of drill water, with a VCG of 8 feet, to enable you to meet the draft limitations. You started with a displacement of 17,000 tons and a KG of 69 feet. What is the KG after pumping out the drill water? 3282: What form of venting of cargo tanks is allowed for a tank barge certificated to carry grade B petroleum products? 3283: The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stairtower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stairtower be kept open when underway? 3284: Unless the COI is endorsed for adults only, there shall be provided a number of approved life jackets suitable for children equal to at least _____. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3285: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. 3286: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. 3287: A vessel displacing 18,000 tons has a KG of 50 feet. A crane is used to lift cargo weighing 20 long tons from a supply vessel. When lifting, the head of the crane boom is 150 feet above the keel. What is the change in KG? 3288: Which person would NOT meet the requirements for a tankerman on board a vessel? 3289: A warship indicates that it wishes to communicate with a merchant ship by hoisting _______________. 3290: On vessels that are required to have fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems, the controls to operate the system shall be installed in an accessible location _______. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3291: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 18,117.7 long tons and a KG of 52.0 feet discharges 200 long tons from a KG of 130 feet. To remain at draft, ballast is added at a height of 10 feet. What is the change in KG? 3292: Upon completion of fueling a gasoline driven vessel it is necessary to ____________. 3293: Your sailing vessel is docked during a storm and is in continuous motion. If a mooring line parts due to vessel motion, it will most likely do so _________________. 3295: A semisubmersible floating in sea water displaces 20,000 long tons. She has vertical moments of 1,000,000 foot-long tons. What is the new KG if 300 long tons are added at a VCG of 50 feet? 3296: Which statement is TRUE concerning fuel vapors on a vessel? 3297: A floating MODU displacing 20,000 long tons with a VCG of 50 feet loads 100 long tons at 100 feet above the baseline and 200 long tons at 130 feet above the baseline. What is the new KG? 3298: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 2, 6, & 10, while using a single belt loader, to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 27'-07"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN) 3299: Which signal must you display at night on a docked tank barge to show that it is loading or discharging flammable liquid cargo? 3300: How many portable fire extinguishers are required in the propulsion machinery space of a diesel powered vessel if there is a fixed CO2 system installed onboard? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3301: A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 25,000 long tons. LCG is 2 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 300 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 50 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG? 3302: What is the minimum number of Type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers required to be aboard a 3,000 BHP, 99 GT harbor tug? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations) 3303: Your fireman's outfit includes a(n) ___________. 3304: If your passenger vessel has been issued a stability letter, it must be __________________. 3305: The height of the transverse metacenter for a MODU is 62.44 feet. The height of the center of gravity is 56.10 feet, and the transverse free surface correction is 1.21 feet. What is the value of the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects? 3306: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. 3307: You are signaling by flag hoist using the International Code of Signals. You wish to send the signals CL and IW and have them read in that order. What would ensure this? 3308: The quickest method to stop a small diesel engine whose throttle or governor has become stuck open is to _______. 3309: The exhaust pipe must be gas tight throughout its entire length otherwise _____________. 3310: Fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems shall be installed to protect enclosed machinery and fuel tank spaces of all vessels using gasoline or other fuel having a flash point of _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3311: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 3312: By regulation, life preservers aboard an uninspected towing vessel must be _______________________. 3314: Which device is required to be installed under the carburetor of a gasoline engine? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3315: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. 3316: When supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm, what is the signal for boat stations or boat drill? 3317: You are in a lifeboat broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers? 3318: You discover a leak in the fuel line to the engine. You should FIRST ___________. 3319: If you have a liquefied flammable gas barge in tow, which is NOT required of you with respect to the barge and its cargo? 3320: If your vessel is required to have a fire ax on board, where should it be located? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3321: A semisubmersible displacing 18,000 long tons has an LCG 2 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is discharged from P-tanks located 50.8 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG? 3322: If your vessel is certificated to carry 10 persons, including both adults and children, how many life jackets are you required to carry on board? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3323: A semisubmersible, with a TCG of 0.5 foot to port, displaces 20,000 long tons. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is loaded in P-tanks located 50 feet starboard to the centerline. What is the new TCG? 3324: How should cargo tank hatches be protected when the ullage opening is open and the tank NOT gas free? 3325: A semisubmersible, with a TCG of 0.5 feet to port, displaces 20,000 long tons. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is discharged from P-tanks located 50 feet starboard of the centerline. What is the new TCG? 3326: The nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept ______. 3327: A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 20,000 long tons. LCB is 3.0 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 300 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 40 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG? 3328: A barge displaying a 2' X 3' white sign with the word "WARNING" followed by "DANGEROUS CARGO" in black letters ______________. 3329: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should _________. 3330: A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is required to be recharged if the weight loss exceeds what percentage of the weight of the charge? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3331: The stability which remains after a compartment is flooded is called _______________. 3332: When fueling has been completed __________. 3333: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 18'-06", AFT 21'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. 3336: Which statement is TRUE concerning gasoline vapors on board a vessel? 3337: Aboard a MODU, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity from the centerline results in the load's ______________. 3338: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 5 & 7 while using a single belt loader, to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 25'-02"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN) 3339: What is acceptable flame screening? 3340: When a fixed fire extinguishing system is installed, it shall be of an approved _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3342: How many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of an uninspected motor vessel with 1,400 B.H.P.? 3343: The righting moment created by a MODU that displaces 15,000 tons with a righting arm (GZ) of 0.02 foot is ______. 3344: In radiotelegraphy, the urgency signal is ____________. 3347: The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 60 feet in calm water. What is the value of the righting moment? 3348: Generally speaking, the fuel injected into a marine diesel engine combustion chamber is ignited by _____________. 3349: Which device is required in the fuel supply line at the engine? 3350: Which statement is TRUE concerning the number of portable fire extinguishers required at the operating station of a small passenger vessel? (small passenger vessel regulations) 3352: Which personal lifesaving device(s) is(are) approved for use on a towboat 150 feet in length? 3354: Backfire flame arrestors are installed on _____________. 3356: The tank barge on which you are preparing to load petroleum is required to have on board one B-II fire extinguisher. What does NOT meet this requirement? 3358: Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because _______. 3359: You are making tow. A loaded, open-hopper barge with independent tanks has placards, with alternating red and white quadrants, located at each side and end. You inspect the barge and find slight traces of water in the wing voids due to condensation. What should you do? 3360: Foam portable extinguishers should be discharged and refilled _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3361: The moment created by a force of 12,000 tons and a moment arm of 0.25 foot is ___________________. 3362: The number of approved adult life jackets that shall be carried is equal to _____, (small passenger vessel regulations) 3364: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 3368: Your tow includes a barge carrying chlorine. Which special requirements must be observed? 3369: Several vessels are at an anchorage. You wish to communicate with the vessel bearing 046ø T from you but do not know the vessels call letters. Which flag hoist should NOT be used to establish communications? 3370: The carbon dioxide cylinders of all portable and semi-portable extinguishers and fixed systems shall be retested and remarked whenever a cylinder remains in place on a vessel for _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3371: The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60.0 feet discharges 68.94 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft? 3372: Which statement is FALSE concerning precautions during fueling operations? 3373: The DEEP DRILLER at survival draft loads 2,068.1 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft? 3374: What is NOT listed on the metallic name plate required to be attached to hand portable fire extinguishers? 3375: The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 58.0 feet discharges 1,792.44 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft? 3376: Outlets in gasoline fuel lines are _____________, 3377: The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 58.0 feet loads 68.94 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft? 3378: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 1 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 29'-11"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN) 3379: Where should a tank barge's Certificate of Inspection be kept? 3380: Annually, all carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard a vessel are _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3381: The DEEP DRILLER, at a mean draft of 60 feet, has a two-foot trim by the head and a three foot list to starboard. What is the draft at the port aft draft mark? 3382: A 6,000 BHP, 199 GT tug operating on the Great Lakes is required to carry how many B-II extinguishers? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations) 3383: The DEEP DRILLER, at a mean draft of 45 feet, has a three-foot trim by the stern and a two-foot list to port. What is the draft at the starboard forward draft mark? 3384: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4236 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.2 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. 3385: A jackup, 180 feet in length, has the center of flotation at 110 feet aft of frame zero. The draft at the bow is 11.0 feet and the draft at the stern is 13.0 feet. What is the true mean draft? 3386: While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message PRU-DONCE over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take? 3387: A semisubmersible records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-09"; Port Aft 68'-09"; Starboard Forward 59'-09"; Starboard Aft 63'-09". What is the mean draft? 3388: A carburetor is required to have a safety device called a(n) __________. 3389: The draft of the SS AMERICAN MARINER cannot exceed 23'-06" in order to cross a bar. The present drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 24'-00". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum amount of sea water to ballast the forepeak to achieve this condition. 3390: Non-required items of lifesaving equipment on existing vessels _____________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3391: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-9"; Port Aft 68'-9"; Starboard Forward 59'-9"; and Starboard Aft 63'-9". What is the true mean draft? 3392: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 3393: A semisubmersible with a TPI of 11.25 long tons per inch discharges 270 long tons from amidships. What is the new mean draft if the original drafts were: Port Forward 69.5 feet; Port Aft 68.5 feet; Starboard Forward 71.5 feet; Starboard Aft 70.5 feet? 3394: The carburetor is placed on the engine to _____________. 3395: A jackup 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a draft of 8 feet at the bow and 11 feet at the stern. What is the mean draft? 3396: On a vessel making a voyage more than 48 hours long, regulations require that _______________. 3397: A jackup 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a draft of 8 feet at the bow and 11 feet at the stern. What is the true mean draft (draft at the center of flotation)? 3398: Before starting any diesel or gasoline engine, which of the following must be checked? 3399: Which sizes of fire extinguishers are considered to be semi-portable? 3400: How should the number "9" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone? 3401: While in port, what signal flag would inform the vessel's crew to report on board because the vessel was about to proceed to sea? 3402: A vessel is signaling to you by flag hoist, and the answer pennant is hoisted close-up. You should _____. 3403: The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. The draft at the forward draft marks is observed to be 8.0 feet. The draft at the center of flotation is __________. 3404: Convection spreads a fire by _______________. 3405: The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. If the draft at the forward draft marks is 8.0 feet, the draft at the after draft marks is ____________. 3408: In illustration DO11SA, number 1 operates the _____________. 3410: How should the letter "I" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone? 3411: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. 3412: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 24'-08, AFT 25'-04". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 180 long tons are loaded in No. 23 hatch. 3413: With no environmental forces on the DEEP DRILLER, the average of the forward drafts is 59.0 feet, and the average of the aft drafts is 61.0 feet. KGL is 51.13 feet. What is the value of LCG? 3414: A rigid lifesaving device designed to support survivors in the water is a ______________. 3415: A vessel has a strong wind on the port beam. This has the same affect on stability as ____________. 3418: Your 600 GT vessel must carry a line-throwing appliance if it is certificated for ______________. 3419: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 35 lbs. 3420: How should the number "1" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone? 3422: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 19'-02", AFT 20'-10". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 170 long tons are discharged from No. 8 hatch. 3423: What is the trim of a jackup with forward draft of 11 feet and aft draft of 13.75 feet? 3424: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 3425: What is the trim of a jackup with a forward draft of 12 feet and an after draft of 13 feet? 3426: In illustration DO11SA, number 1 operates the _____________. 3427: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-09"; Port Aft 68'-09"; Starboard Forward 59'-09"; and Starboard Aft 63'-09". What is the trim? 3428: Which river passenger vessel must have a copy of the vessel's plans permanently displayed? 3429: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 3 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 37.6 lbs. 3430: How should the letter "Q" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone? 3431: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGL of 55.4 feet and an LCG of 2.37 feet. What is the trim in feet? 3432: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. 3434: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4260 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 25.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. 3435: Small passenger vessels whose routes are restricted to 20 miles from a harbor or safe refuge must carry approved lifefloats or buoyant apparatus ____________________. 3437: A jackup 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a draft of 8 feet at the bow and 11 feet at the stern. What is the trim by the stern? 3440: How should the number "7" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone? 3441: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 74'-09"; Port Aft 78'-09"; Starboard Forward 69'-09"; and Starboard Aft 73'-09". What is the trim? 3442: When hanging off drill pipe in emergency situations aboard a MODU, the preferred location of the drill bit is ________. 3443: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGT of 57.11 feet and TCG of 0.5 foot to port. What is the list angle? 3444: The lee term "lee shore" refers to the _________________. 3445: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 55 feet, has a KGT of 53.05 feet and TCG of 0.5 foot to starboard. What is the list angle? 3447: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-09"; Port Aft 68'-09"; Starboard Forward 59'-09"; and Starboard Aft 63'-09". What is the list? 3448: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3485 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 24.4 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. 3449: How many ring life buoys should a 700 foot cargo vessel, not subject to SOLAS, navigating the Great Lakes carry? 3450: According to the regulations for life boat falls, which action must be taken at 30-month intervals? 3451: In illustration DO11SA, number 1 operates the _____________. 3452: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 29'-05", AFT 30'-07". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 540 long tons are loaded in No. 18 hatch. 3454: A passenger vessel of 600 GT is required to have how many fire axes? 3455: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 74'-09"; Port Aft 78'-09 inches; Starboard Forward 69'-09"; and Starboard Aft 73'-09". What is the list? 3458: When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to ________. 3459: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No.1 (P&S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 39.5 lbs. 3460: How should the letter "T" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone? 3461: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) when an unexpected slowly increasing port list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in C1P is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2P and 3P, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the transverse free surface correction is _________________. 3463: Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE? 3464: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3175 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 25.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. 3465: The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with increased _________________. 3470: According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken with the falls no later than 5-year intervals? 3471: Every fishing vessel required to have a general alarm system must test it ___________________. 3474: The radiotelegraph alarm signal may be used to announce _____________. 3475: What is the increase in the longitudinal free surface correction for the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if 103.48 long-tons of ballast are transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S? 3476: In radiotelegraphy, the safety signal is _____________. 3477: What is the increase in the transverse free surface correction for the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if 103.48 long-tons of ballast are transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S? 3480: How should the number "6" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone? 3481: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 Drill Water Tanks are discharged, what is the new longitudinal free surface correction? 3482: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. 3483: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 Drill Water Tanks are discharged, what is the new transverse free surface correction? 3484: Your 80-ton schooner is hove to on the starboard tack under storm trysail and fore-staysail in 45 knots of wind. Your heading is averaging about 000² true and the wind is from the northeast. There is a dangerous shoal bearing 270² true, range 5 miles. Which action would be appropriate? 3485: In the event the motion of the DEEP DRILLER is such that critical motion limits are exceeded, you should ___________. 3486: In radiotelegraphy, what group is used to relay a distress message from another vessel? 3490: According to the SOLAS regulations, lifeboat falls must be renewed at intervals of how many years? 3491: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard forward column below the waterline. Pumping from tank 2S and 3S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list and bow down trim. You should consider counterflooding in tank ___. 3492: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 17'-03", AFT 18'-09". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the new draft if 450 long tons are loaded in No. 16 hatch. 3493: The longitudinal distance between draft marks for the DEEP DRILLER is _______________. 3494: A passenger vessel in river service which operates in fresh water at least 6 out of every 12 months since the last drydock examination must be dry-docked at intervals not to exceed ____. 3495: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 17'-10", AFT 19'-06". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. 3496: In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew quarters made aboard passenger vessels in river services 3498: Your passenger vessel is 130 feet (40 m) long and is alternatively equipped for operating in river service. The number of ring life buoys required for the vessel is ____. 3499: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 3 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 28.0 lbs. 3500: How should the letter "Z" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone? 3501: The DEEP DRILLER as currently configured is limited to a maximum water depth of __________. 3502: How many self-contained breathing apparati are required aboard a 500 ton passenger vessel in river service with 75 passenger staterooms? 3503: The transverse distance between draft marks for the DEEP DRILLER is __________________. 3504: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 6280 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 25.5 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. 3505: The lightweight vertical moments for the DEEP DRILLER are _________. 3506: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 17'-04", AFT 19'-04". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 3.0' to 4.2'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.) 3507: The lightweight longitudinal moments for the DEEP DRILLER are ______. 3508: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by ___________. 3509: The maximum draft of the SS AMERICAN MARINER cannot exceed 30'-01" in order to cross a bar. The present drafts are: FWD 29'-04", AFT 30'-06". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum amount of sea water to ballast the forepeak to achieve this condition. 3510: When required, the steering gear, whistle, and the means of communication between the pilothouse and the engine room on a passenger vessel shall be tested by an officer of the vessel within a period of not more than how many hours prior to departure? 3511: The lightweight transverse moments for the DEEP DRILLER are _______. 3512: You have sent a visual signal to an aircraft. The aircraft then flies over your position on a straight course and level altitude. What should you do? 3513: The lightweight transverse free surface moments for the DEEP DRILLER are ________________. 3514: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. 3515: The lightweight longitudinal free surface moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________________. 3516: Drinking salt water will _______________. 3517: What is the lightweight of the DEEP DRILLER? 3518: The groups "AA" and "AB" are used in conjunction with what other group in signaling by flashing light? 3519: A message by flashing light consists of the call, the identity, the ending, and the _____. 3520: How should the number "5" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone? 3521: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________________. 3522: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 21'-04", AFT 23'-04". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 4.8' to 5.8'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.) 3523: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the loading hoses, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and _________________. 3524: Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in a(n) _________________. 3525: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the loading hoses, derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and _________________. 3526: A message by flashing light consists of the call, the text, the ending, and the _____. 3527: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the loading hoses, derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________________. 3528: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. 3529: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 3531: The draft of the DEEP DRILLER in the lightweight condition is _______. 3532: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 19'-08", AFT 20'-04". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 840 long tons are loaded in No. 1 hatch. 3533: If the maximum amount of weight is stored in the pipe racks of the DEEP DRILLER, what is the weight per square foot? 3534: When a passenger vessel's plans must be permanently exhibited, they are NOT required to show information on the ________. 3535: The marine riser on the DEEP DRILLER should be disconnected if it appears the ball joint angle will exceed 10² or the mooring line tensions will exceed _______. 3536: There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available, and the other is ____________. 3537: The marine riser on the DEEP DRILLER should be disconnected if it appears the mooring line tensions will exceed 522 kips or the ball joint angle will exceed _______. 3538: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 22'-03", AFT 24'-00". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 100.7 tons of seawater. 3539: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 30 lbs. 3540: How should the letter "R" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone? 3541: The DEEP DRILLER as currently configured is limited to a maximum drilling depth of _______________. 3542: An aircraft has indicated that he wants you to change course and follow him. You cannot comply because of an emergency on board. Which signal should you make? 3543: The DEEP DRILLER's lightweight is the condition prior to loading _________. 3544: A message by flashing light consists of the call, the identity, the text, and the _____. 3545: Until a change to lightweight has been approved, the weights and center of gravity locations for the changes to lightweight shown in the permanent record for the Deep Driller are treated as __________. 3546: According to the regulations for passenger vessels, a "motor vessel" is one which is propelled by machinery other than steam and is more than _________. 3547: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 3548: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 26'-06", AFT 28'-02". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 2.7' to 2.9'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.) 3549: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 18'-10", AFT 18'-06". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. 3551: Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment? 3552: You are communicating by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. What is the correct method of sending the group 1.3? 3553: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG while drilling? 3554: You are underway in mid-ocean, when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is 20 miles away. What action should you take? 3555: What are the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments, permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft if the winds are greater than 70 knots? 3557: What are the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments, permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft if the winds are less than 70 knots? 3560: How should the number "4" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone? 3561: The DEEP DRILLER is operating with KGL at the maximum allowable value (70 knots) at a 60 feet draft. What is the value of GML? 3563: Because of the presence of 75 knot winds, the DEEP DRILLER is at survival draft. KGL is 1.24 feet less than the maximum allowed. What is the value of GML? 3565: What are the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments, permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if the winds are less than 70 knots? 3567: What are the maximum vertical moments including free surface moments permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if the winds are greater than 70 knots? 3570: How many means of escape must be provided from passenger areas on a passenger vessel of 500 GT? 3571: The DEEP DRILLER is anchoring in 600 feet of water. In the absence of environmental forces, the mooring lines should be adjusted to ________. 3572: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 25'-04", AFT 24'-08". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 634 long tons are discharged from NO. 19 hatch. 3573: The DEEP DRILLER in transit is level at 23.0 feet draft. Strong winds are blowing from the starboard. A careful load form calculation determines that the TCG is 2.0 feet to starboard. What is the value of the wind heeling moment? 3574: How many fire axes should be carried by a 700 GT cargo vessel, navigating the Great Lakes? 3575: While in transit at a draft of 20.5 feet, the DEEP DRILLER has a KGL of 65.00 feet. What is the GML? 3576: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stablility Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 3577: While being towed at a 19.5 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER experiences single amplitude rolls of 10² with a period of 8 seconds. You should __________. 3578: The "call" part of a signal by flashing light is made by the general call or by _____. 3579: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 3 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 34 lbs. 3580: How should the letter "V" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone? 3581: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 58 feet, has VM of 900,000 ft-tons, and FSMT of 20,000 ft-tons. What is the KGT? 3582: You are downbound in an ice filled channel. An icebreaker is meeting you and sounds two short, one prolonged, and two short blasts on the whistle. What action should you take? 3583: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. 3590: The patrolman, while on duty on a passenger vessel, must have in his possession a(n) ____________. 3591: With no environmental forces on the DEEP DRILLER, the average of the starboard drafts is 59.0 feet, and the average of the port drafts is 61.0 feet. KGT is 52.84 feet. What is the value of TCG? 3593: The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 58 feet when there are no environmental forces. What is the value of LCG? 3595: The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 58 feet when there are no environmental forces. What is the value of TCG? 3596: The light on a life jacket must be replaced ____. 3597: The DEEP DRILLER has a KGT of 52.90 feet while at a draft of 58.0 feet. List is 2.0 feet to port. What is the value of TCG? 3600: How should the number "3" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone? 3601: For the DEEP DRILLER, the maximum permissible offset which can be tolerated while drilling is ______. 3602: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 22'-06", AFT 25'-06". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 4.8' to 5.9'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.) 3603: While anchored in 600 feet water depth, 3,150 feet of chain is deployed for line #8. Tension on that line is 220 kips. According to the DEEP DRILLER Operating manual, how much of that chain lies along the bottom? 3604: You are the first vessel to arrive at the scene of a distress. Due to the volume of traffic on the radio, you are unable to communicate with the vessel in distress. Which action should you take? 3605: While anchored in 700 feet of water, 3,150 feet of chain is deployed for line #4. Tension on that line is 200 kips. According to the DEEP DRILLER Operating Manual, how much of that chain lies along the bottom? 3606: Which radiotelephone signal indicates receipt of a distress message? 3607: With the DEEP DRILLER anchored in 500 feet of water and with the tension on the mooring chain of 170 kips, the length of the catenary is _________. 3608: A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind ______________. 3609: General arrangement plans shall be permanently exhibited on all passenger vessels of at least __________. 3610: A passenger vessel is underway. When may passengers visit the pilothouse? 3611: Each life jacket light that has a non-replaceable power source must be replaced ___________________. 3612: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 14'-00", AFT 16'-00". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 350 long tons are discharged from No. 13 hatch. 3614: While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message "Seelonce Feenee" over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take? 3615: The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 700 feet of water. The tension on anchor line #3 is 200 kips. What is the vertical component of chain tension for that line? 3616: Which radiotelephone signal indicates receipt of a distress message? 3617: The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 600 feet of water. The average line tension is 190 kips. What is the total vertical component of chain tension? 3618: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 28'-00", AFT 29'-00". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 81.05 tons of seawater. 3619: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 7 (P&S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 31lbs. 3620: How should the letter "O" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone? 3621: The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 700 feet of water. The average tension on the mooring lines is 200 kips. What is the total vertical component of chain tension? 3622: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 3623: You wish to communicate by radiotelephone with a foreign vessel using the International Code of Signals. This is indicated by the signal ____________. 3624: What is the International Code signal for calling an unknown station using flashing light? 3625: The DEEP DRILLER is on location during a storm. Windward anchor tensions begin to exceed the test tensions. To reduce tensions while minimizing offset over the well, you should ________________________. 3627: The DEEP DRILLER is drilling on location at a 60 foot draft. Waves are approaching within 2 feet of the underside of the spider deck. You should ______________________. 3630: A passenger vessel is required to have a supervised patrol when ______________. 3631: During an ice storm on board the DEEP DRILLER, the rig is uniformly covered with 414 tons of ice. At the beginning of the storm the rig was at 45 foot draft. After the storm the rig was at a 48 foot draft. Assume a KG of 127 feet for the new ice and an original KG of 58 feet. What is the new KG of the DEEP DRILLER? 3633: The KG of the DEEP DRILLER increases from 57 feet to 59 feet while drilling at a 60 foot draft during an ice storm. What action should be taken? 3634: You are underway in mid-ocean when you hear a distress message. The position of the sender is 150 miles away. No other vessel has acknowledged the distress. Your maximum speed is 5 knots and due to the seriousness of the distress, you cannot arrive on scene to provide effective assistance. What action should you take? 3635: For the DEEP DRILLER, in deballasting to survival draft when threatened with heavy weather from 100 knot winds, a load form should be calculated to determine that ______________. 3636: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 3637: In anticipation of heavy weather, it is decided to deballast the DEEP DRILLER to survival draft. The marine riser should be disconnected, pulled, and laid down. After doing so, the riser tension will be ______________. 3640: How should the number "2" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone? 3642: When communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English, what procedure word indicates the end of my transmission and that a response is necessary? 3643: Under extremely heavy weather on the DEEP DRILLER, when operating conditions are too severe to permit the drill string from being tripped out of the hole and laid down in the pipe racks, it may be _________. 3650: If your passenger vessel is fitted with a loudspeaker system, it must be tested at least once ____________. 3652: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 17'-04", AFT 18'-08". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 765 long tons are discharged from No. 7 hatch. 3654: You are communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English. Which procedural word (proword) indicates that you have received another vessel's transmission? 3657: For planning purposes, the time required to place the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft from the drilling mode to counter heavy weather is _________________. 3658: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. 3659: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 1 (P&S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 43 lbs. 3660: How should the letter "W" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone? 3661: Under ideal conditions, the DEEP DRILLER can pick up and place pipe in the rack at a rate of about ____________. 3662: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 24'-00", AFT 25'-08". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 3.0' to 4.1'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.) 3663: Before deballasting to survival draft in the event of predicted heavy weather, the DEEP DRILLER Operations Manual recommends that the mooring lines be slacked _______. 3664: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 29'-04", AFT 30'-06". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 101.6 tons of seawater. 3665: The time required to ballast the DEEP DRILLER to survival draft, when threatened with heavy weather, while under tow, is about _________. 3667: The principal action in changing from transit to survival draft in the event heavy weather threatens is ____________. 3668: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. 3669: The free surface corrections depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________. 3670: On a passenger vessel with stateroom accommodations, which space would NOT be required to be checked by the patrol between 10 pm and 6 am? 3671: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard center column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 2S and 9S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list. You should consider counterflooding in tank _____. 3673: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port center column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 2P and 9P is not sufficient to prevent increasing port list. You should consider counterflooding in tank _____. 3675: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port forward column below the waterline. Pumping from tank 2P and 3P is not sufficient to prevent increasing port list and bow down trim. You should consider counterflooding in tank _____. 3677: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard aft column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 8S and 9S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list and stern down trim. You should consider counterflooding in tank _____. 3681: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port aft column below the waterline. Pumping from tank 8P and 9P is not sufficient to prevent increasing port list and stern down trim. You should consider counterflooding in tank _____. 3683: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected starboard and aft inclination. The wind and waves are light. What might have caused the inclination? 3685: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing starboard and aft inclination. The wind and waves are light. This inclination could have been caused by ___________________. 3687: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing port and aft inclination. The wind and waves are light. This inclination could have been caused by __________________. 3691: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing port and forward inclination. The wind and waves are light. This inclination could have been caused by ________________. 3693: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing starboard and forward inclination. The wind and waves are light. This inclination could have been caused by __________________. 3695: In storm conditions, when the environmental conditions are such that the DEEP DRILLER has disconnected the marine riser, the two leeward mooring lines should be _____. 3696: The equipment required to remove an on-deck oil spill on a barge transfering oil must either be carried on board or __________________. 3697: In storm conditions, when slacking the leeward mooring lines of the DEEP DRILLER, maintain in the chain locker at least ________. 3701: While loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), an estimated 250 long tons of snow and ice accumulates on the DEEP DRILLER at an estimated height of 127 feet. Assuming no corrective ballasting, what is the rise in the height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects? 3703: While loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), an estimated 250 long tons of snow and ice accumulates on the DEEP DRILLER at an estimated height of 127 feet. Assuming no corrective ballasting, what is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects? 3705: While loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), an estimated 250 long tons of snow and ice accumulates on the DEEP DRILLER at an estimated height of 127 feet. Assuming no corrective ballasting, what is the margin on maximum allowable KG? 3706: You are in charge of a fishing vessel with 18 individuals on board. You are required to conduct drills and give safety instruction at least once _____________. 3707: While loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), an estimated 250 long tons of snow and ice accumulates on the DEEP DRILLER at an estimated height of 127 feet. Assuming no corrective ballasting, what is the new draft? 3713: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) when an unexpected slowly increasing starboard list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in 1S is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2S and 3S, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the transverse free surface corrections is ____________________. 3717: During the passage of a severe storm, the DEEP DRILLER is at survival draft. Strong winds are blowing from the starboard. A careful load form calculation determined that, although the unit is level, the TCG is 2.0 feet to starboard. The value of the wind heeling moment is _____. 3727: The DEEP DRILLER is engaged in wire line logging. You have 10,000 feet of drill pipe and bottom hole assembly in the set back. Marine weather forecasts are predicting weather with winds in excess of 70 knots. Your first step to prepare for the storm should be to ________________. 3731: If the DEEP DRILLER is damaged, the unit is designed to avoid downflooding in wind speeds up to ______. 3733: In the event of damage to the DEEP DRILLER which results in flooding to one of the lower-hull tanks, pump from _____. 3737: The most important consideration in the event the Deep Driller suffers damage is ______. 3741: Because of the presence of 75 knot winds, the DEEP DRILLER is at survival draft. KGT is 3.24 feet less than the maximum allowed. What is the value of GMT? 3771: What is the decrease in longitudinal moments for the Deep Driller if 2.0 feet of ballast is transferred from 1S to 10P? 3773: What is the ullage in P-Tank #4 of the DEEP DRILLER if the weight is 75.24 long tons? 3775: The sounding in fuel oil tank 4P on the DEEP DRILLER is 8.75 feet. What are the transverse moments for this amount of fuel? 3777: What is the weight of cement in P-tank #1 of the Deep Driller if the ullage is 3.4 feet? 3781: What is the weight of barite in P-tank #4 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 3.4 feet? 3783: What is the weight of bulk in P-tank #1 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 2.3 feet? 3785: What are the vertical moments for P-Tank #1 on the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 3.0 feet? 3787: What is the VCG for the cement in P-Tank #1 on the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 6.4 feet? 3791: What is the VCG for the additional weight if P-tank #4 in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Transit) is completely filled ? 3792: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 3793: When the ullage is 6.4 feet in P-Tank #5 for the Deep Driller, what is the value of the longitudinal moment? 3795: When the ullage is 5.7 feet in P-Tank #6 for the Deep Driller, the transverse moment for P-Tank #6 is ________. 3797: What are the longitudinal moments for the contents of P-tank #1 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 2.3 feet? 3801: What are the vertical moments for the cement contents of P-tank #1 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 2.3 feet? 3803: For the DEEP DRILLER, what are the transverse moments for a sounding of 5 feet in tank C3P? 3805: For the DEEP DRILLER, what are the longitudinal moments for a sounding of 15 feet in tank C3P? 3807: For the DEEP DRILLER, What are the vertical moments for a sounding of 10 feet in tank C3P? 3811: The sounding in fuel oil tank 4P on the DEEP DRILLER is 8.75 feet. What are the longitudinal moments for this amount of fuel? 3813: The sounding in tank 1P of the DEEP DRILLER is 7.58 feet. What are the vertical moments for this quantity of ballast? 3815: Among the valves to open when deballasting using tanks 1P and 10P of the DEEP DRILLER is __________________. 3817: What is the change in longitudinal moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long tons of ballast is discharged from a full ballast tank 1P? 3821: What is the change in transverse moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long tons of ballast is discharged from a full ballast tank 1P? 3823: What is the change in vertical moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long tons of ballast is discharged from a full ballast tank 1P? 3825: What is the change in longitudinal moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long-tons of ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S? 3827: What is the change in transverse moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long-tons of ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S? 3831: Among the valves to open on the DEEP DRILLER, if you have to transfer ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1S using #1 ballast pump, is valve ______________. 3832: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. 3833: Among the valves to open on the DEEP DRILLER, if you have to transfer ballast from Tank 1P to Tank 10S using #1 ballast pump, is valve _______________. 3835: What port-side valves must be open to transfer ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1P on the DEEP DRILLER, using the Port #1 ballast pump? 3837: What port-side valves must be open to transfer ballast from Tank 1P to Tank 10P on the DEEP DRILLER using the Port #1 ballast pump? 3838: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by _____________. 3841: What is the change in the vertical moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 2.0 feet of ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 3P to an empty ballast tank 10P? 3843: The sounding in tank 1P of the DEEP DRILLER is 7.58 feet. What are the longitudinal moments for this quantity of ballast? 3845: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the valves to open when transferring ballast from Tank 1S to Tank 10P using the #1 ballast pump is valve _______. 3847: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the valves to open when transferring ballast from Tank 10S to Tank 1P using the #2 ballast pump is valve ______. 3851: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the valves to open when transferring ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1S using the #2 ballast pump is valve ______. 3871: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the port-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 2P is valve _____. 3873: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 8S is valve _____. 3877: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 2S is valve ______. 3881: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 2S is valve _____. 3885: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when flooding through the overboard discharge into ballast tank 1S is valve _____. 3893: When filling fuel-oil tank 4S on the DEEP DRILLER, it is necessary to open valve _________. 3895: When filling fuel-oil tank 6P on the DEEP DRILLER, it is necessary to open valve _____. 3901: Among the valves on the DEEP DRILLER to open when using the Salt-Water Service Pump to pump water into tank 10S is ____. 3902: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 3903: Among the valves on the DEEP DRILLER which may be opened when using the Salt-Water Service Pump to pump water into Tank 1P is ____________. 3905: On the DEEP DRILLER, when using the starboard #2 ballast pump to provide water to the main deck from the sea, it is necessary to open valves ___________. 3911: For the DEEP DRILLER, it is recommended that the number of lower-hull ballast tanks with free surfaces be less than ________________. 3913: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has 50,000 ft-tons of longitudinal moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 1P and 10P to level the unit longitudinally? 3915: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has 35,000 ft-tons of longitudinal moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 1P and 10P to level the unit longitudinally? 3917: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has 3,765 ft-tons of transverse moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 1P and 1S to level the unit in list? 3921: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has -3,600 ft-tons of transverse moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 10P and 10S to level the unit in list? 3923: Among the valves that must be opened on the DEEP DRILLER to pump bilge water out of the port pump room using the #1 bilge pump is valve ____. 3925: Among the valves that must be opened on the DEEP DRILLER to pump bilge water out of the port pump room using both bilge pumps is valve ____. 3927: What pump may be used to supplement the bilge pump on the DEEP DRILLER? 3931: Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, to use the drill water pump to supplement the bilge pumps, it is necessary to open valves 26 and __________. 3933: On the DEEP DRILLER, the drill water pump may be used to supplement the bilge pumps. Its normal pumping rate is _________________. 3934: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. 3935: To pump bilge water out of the port pump room on the DEEP DRILLER, using the #2 bilge pump, open port-side valve _____. 3937: On the DEEP DRILLER, to pump bilge water out of the starboard pump room using both bilge pumps, it is necessary to open valves _____________. 3941: Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, the drill water pump may be used to provide drill water to the deck and _______________. 3943: On the DEEP DRILLER, to use the drill water pump to supplement the bilge pumps, it is necessary to open valves 28 and ___________. 3944: What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system? 3945: Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, the bilge pumps take suction from the pump rooms, cofferdam, void area, access trunk, and ______. 3946: Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by ___________. 3947: The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stairtower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stairtower be kept open when underway? 3957: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the weight of the mud in pit #4 if the sounding level changed from 8 to 6 feet? 3958: If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST ____. 3961: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown is Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the change in vertical moments for Fresh Water if the entire contents of Drill Water Tank 5P are transferred to Drill Water Tank 5S? 3963: Salt water ballast tank 2P on the DEEP DRILLER contains 5.0 feet of ballast. It is decided to fill the tank. What is the VCG of the added liquid? 3965: In the DEEP DRILLER, the transverse and longitudinal free surface moments for entry into the daily load form are obtained ________. 3967: The sounding in tank 1P of the DEEP DRILLER is 7.58 feet. It is decided to fill tank 1P by flooding through the sea chest. What are the vertical moments for the added ballast? 3968: Each Class A PIRB shall be stowed in a manner which will permit _______. 3971: What weight is added when P-tank #4 in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Transit) is completely filled? 3973: What are the additional vertical moments created when P-tank #4 in the DEEP DRILLER sample load form #1 (Transit) is completely filled? 3975: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new uncorrected KG? 3977: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new longitudinal free surface correction? 3981: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new position of the longitudinal center of buoyancy? 3983: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new height of the longitudinal metacenter? 3985: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new location of the longitudinal center of gravity? 3987: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new longitudinal metacentric height? 3991: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of transverse moments for the Stores & Supplies (Table 6) if paint weighing 3.48 tons is added to the paint locker? 3993: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal moments for the Stores & Supplies (Table 6) if paint weighing 3.48 tons is added to the paint locker? 3994: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine about to surface is _____________. 3995: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of vertical moments for the Stores & Supplies if paint weighing 3.48 tons is added to the paint locker? 3996: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 3997: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of vertical moments for Fuel Oil if the entire contents of Tank 4P are transferred to Tank 4S? 4001: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal moments for Fuel Oil (Table 2) if the entire contents of Tank 4P are transferred to Tank 4S? 4003: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of transverse moments for Fuel Oil if the entire contents of Tank 4P are transferred to Tank 4S? 4005: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of transverse free surface moments for Fuel Oil (Table 2) if the entire contents of Tank #4P are transferred to Tank #4S? 4006: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 18'-06", AFT 20'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. 4007: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal free surface moments for Fuel Oil (Table 2) if the entire contents of Tank #4P are transferred to Tank #4S? 4013: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the KG corrected for longitudinal free surface effects? 4015: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the KG corrected for transverse free surface effects? 4027: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM =3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects? 4031: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects? 4033: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling) discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new KG? 4035: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new KGL? 4037: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new KGT? 4041: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new TCG? 4042: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 1200 brake horsepower? 4043: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new GML? 4044: Convection spreads a fire by _____________. 4045: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new GMT? 4047: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the centerline. What is the improvement in KGT? 4051: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting list angle? 4053: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting trim angle? 4055: In the DEEP DRILLER, VCG is obtained from the sum of the vertical moments by ______________. 4057: In the DEEP DRILLER, LCG is obtained from the sum of the longitudinal moments by _______________. 4061: In the DEEP DRILLER, TCG is obtained from the sum of the transverse moments by ______________. 4063: In the DEEP DRILLER, the longitudinal free surface correction (FSCL) is obtained from the total of the longitudinal free surface moments (FSML) by _________. 4065: In the DEEP DRILLER, the transverse free surface correction (FSCT) is obtained from the total of transverse free surface moments (FSMT) by _________. 4067: The DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). Assume ballast added or discharged to remain at a constant draft is at a VCG of 10 feet. How much non-liquid load would have to be removed from an average height of 130 feet above the keel to meet the maximum allowable KG at a draft of 60 feet for winds greater than 70 knots? 4071: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What are the new LM (longitudinal moments) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged? 4073: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What are the new TM (transverse moments) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged? 4074: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. 4075: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What are the new vertical moments if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged? 4077: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new longitudinal free surface correction (FSCL) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged? 4083: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged? 4085: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged? 4086: What signal flag is the "Pilot Flag" ("I have a pilot on board")? 4087: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (transit). What is the new metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged? (Use KMT = 375.38 feet) 4091: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if the entire contents of salt water ballast 1anks 1P and 1S are discharged? (Use KML = 348.58) 4094: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 19'-10.5", AFT 22'-11.6". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. 4095: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival). What is the new longitudinal location of the center of buoyancy if all the bulk materials are discharged? 4097: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the new height of the longitudinal metacenter if all the bulk materials are discharged? 4101: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the new height of the transverse metacenter if all the bulk materials are discharged? 4103: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the shift in TCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials? 4105: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the shift in LCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials? 4106: In the event of a fire, the doors to a stairtower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by ___________. 4107: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the VCG of the added liquid if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S? 4111: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials? 4112: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should _________. 4113: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials? 4114: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. 4121: The DEEP DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 60.0 feet. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 17,845 long tons, total longitudinal moments 51,466 foot-tons, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-tons. What is the weight of the missing load? 4123: The DEEP DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 60.0 feet. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 17,845 long tons, total longitudinal moments 51,466 foot-tons, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-tons. What is the longitudinal location of the missing load? 4125: The DEEP DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 60.0 feet. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 17,845 long tons, total longitudinal moment 51,466 foot-kips, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-kips. What is the transverse location of the missing load? 4127: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill), all of the casing is discharged. What is the change in LCG? 4131: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), a severe storm threatens. What is the improvement in KGL if all the mud is dumped? 4133: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added to the unit? 4135: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added on the unit? 4137: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added on the unit? 4138: Multiple fire pumps may be used for other purposes provided that one pump is _____________________. 4141: How much additional solid weight could be loaded at a VCG of 189.7 feet on the DEEP DRILLER while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling)? Assume ballast added or discharged to maintain draft is done so at 15 feet above the baseline. 4142: You are underway at sea when a fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should _________________________. 4143: While loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What would be the new draft? 4151: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #1 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new draft? 4153: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new draft? 4155: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new uncorrected height of the center of gravity? 4157: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects? 4161: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects? 4165: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the transverse metacenter? 4167: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects? 4171: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects? 4173: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges all the cement in the P-Tanks. See Table 7. What is the change in KG? 4174: Each EPIRB shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every ___________. 4175: How much non-liquid deck load can the DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), accept if the weight is placed at a VCG of 130 feet? Ballast added or discharged to maintain draft at 60 feet is done so at 10 feet. 4177: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the weight of the mud in pit #4 if the sounding level changed to 6 feet and the mud weight decreased from 16 to 14 pounds/gallon? 4178: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. 4181: The DEEP DRILLER is operating at a draft of 60 feet. There is 11.5 feet of drill water in each of the drill water tanks (5P and 5S). What would be the improvement in KGL if 5S is filled from 5P? 4183: What is the shift in KG if all the liquid mud is dumped when the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load #3 (Preparing to Drill)? 4187: The DEEP DRILLER is drilling at 60 feet draft at a corrected KG of 54.0 feet. Ballast added or discharged to remain at a constant draft is at a VCG of 10 feet. How much non-liquid load would have to be removed from an average height of 130 feet above the keel to meet the maximum allowable KG at a draft of 60 feet for winds greater than 70 knots? 4191: The DEEP DRILLER is planning to operate while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 ( Preparing to Drill). What is the margin between KGT and maximum allowable KG? 4193: While going on location in 250 feet water depth when the pitch angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2 degrees, the single amplitude pitch period should be longer than ___________. 4195: The motions of the COASTAL DRILLER during a normal transit when wind speeds are less than 70 knots are limited by ____. 4197: While in 150 feet water depth when the pitch angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2 degrees, the platform roll period for going on location should be longer than _______. 4201: While in 150 feet water depth when the pitch angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 1 degree, the platform pitch period for going on location should be longer than _______. 4203: While going on location in 200 feet water depth when the roll angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2.5 degrees, the roll period should be longer than _______________. 4205: While in 150 feet water depth when the single amplitude roll angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2 degrees, the safe platform roll period for going on location should be longer than ___. 4207: While in 150 feet water depth when the single amplitude roll angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 1 degree, the safe platform roll period for going on location should be longer than ___. 4211: The COASTAL DRILLER, while in normal transit, experiences a single amplitude roll of 6 degrees. What is the minimum roll period which does not exceed design limits of the legs? 4213: While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER has a roll period of four seconds. What would be the largest angle each side of vertical that does not exceed the design limit of the legs? 4215: A mat-type jackup drilling unit is the best selection for ___________. 4217: A mat-supported jackup is best suited for drilling in locations with bottom conditions which are ____________. 4221: Considering the changes to lightweight shown in section 5 of the COASTAL DRILLER Manual, the maximum allowable combination of hook, rotary, and setback load for the COASTAL DRILLER with the rotary located 34 feet aft of the transom and two feet to port of the centerline is _____. 4222: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. 4223: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the maximum aft extension of the cantilever places the rotary __________. 4225: The maximum transverse extension of the cantilever for the COASTAL DRILLER places the rotary _________. 4227: What is the maximum weight that can be placed in the setback area on the COASTAL DRILLER? 4233: Considering the changes to lightweight shown in Section 5 of the COASTAL DRILLER Manual, with the rotary 36 feet aft of the transom and 4 feet to port of the centerline, and with 300 kips in the setback, the maximum hook load is limited to ______________. 4235: Until a change to lightweight has been approved, the weights and moments shown in the Changes to Lightweight Record of the COASTAL DRILLER are treated as _______. 4237: The Cantilever Beam Load Chart for the COASTAL DRILLER shows the limits in the hook setback conductor tension, and _____. 4241: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated in 250 feet of water, experiencing 2 knots current and 70 knot winds. With a maximum leg reaction of 5,760 kips, the maximum wave height for drilling is ____________. 4242: A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat should _________________. 4243: The Cantilever Beam Load Chart for the COASTAL DRILLER shows the load limits in the hook, setback, conductor tension, and _______. 4245: The maximum load line draft for the COASTAL DRILLER is ____. 4246: Radiation spreads a fire by ___________. 4247: The maximum combined drilling load for the COASTAL DRILLER consisting of the combined hook, rotary, setback, and conductor tension, shall not exceed __________________. 4251: What are the maximum acceptable levels of ice and snow accumulations on the COASTAL DRILLER? 4253: What is the maximum weight permitted on the cantilever pipe racks for the COASTAL DRILLER? 4255: What is the maximum permitted hook load for the COASTAL DRILLER when 450 kips are in the setback and no other loads are on the cantilever? 4256: The S.S. AMERICAN RANGER has drafts of: FWD 28'-00", AFT 30'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 110.8 tons of seawater. 4257: Considering the lightweight changes to the COASTAL DRILLER, what is the maximum permitted hook load permitted when 450 kips are in the setback and 200 kips are in the cantilever pipe rack? 4258: Dacron sails, when not in use, may be damaged if __________. 4261: The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 34 feet aft of the transom and 2 feet to port of the centerline. With the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the maximum allowable hook load is ______. 4263: The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 38 feet aft of transom and 6 feet to starboard of the centerline. With the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the maximum allowable hook load is ______. 4265: The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 36 feet aft of the transom and 6 feet to starboard of the centerline. The hook load is 300 kips. Considering the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the maximum amount of setback is ____________. 4267: For the COASTAL DRILLER, what is the maximum rotary load that can be used when the rotary has been extended 40 feet aft of the transom? 4273: The overturning forces acting on a floating jackup are generally dominated by _______________. 4275: The independent-leg drilling unit is the best jackup rig selection for drilling at locations with ________________. 4277: Drilling loads on the COASTAL DRILLER are the combined loads arising from conductor tension, rotary, hook, and _____________. 4281: The maximum allowable KG for the COASTAL DRILLER in normal transit at a draft of 10.5 feet is ______________. 4283: When underway at a draft of 10.5 feet in a severe storm, the COASTAL DRILLER has a maximum allowed KG of _______. 4285: During an ocean tow when the winds are less than 70 knots, the maximum allowable KG for the COASTAL DRILLER is ______. 4287: While in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet, the Coastal Driller has a maximum allowed KG of ___________. 4291: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit, stability is acceptable provided that neither the KGL nor the KGT exceed _______________. 4293: Preloading tests the soil to the vertical leg reaction that would be imposed by ____________________. 4295: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds expected to exceed 70 knots, must lower the legs so that the can tips are ________________. 4297: The COASTAL DRILLER is in ocean transit in which the winds are not expected to exceed 70 knots. In order to meet the leg strength requirements, the tip of can (TOC) position should be at _______. 4301: When leveling the elevated COASTAL DRILLER, you may raise the low corner instead of lowering the high corner _______. 4302: The Master shall insure that each deck from which lifeboats are launched is ________________. 4303: During a long ocean tow of a jackup the clearance in the upper guide should be reduced to zero to restrain the leg and eliminate the impact loads from dynamic responses. This is best done by _________________. 4305: The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 3 degrees and a roll period of 10 seconds. What is the maximum water depth that can be used for going on location? 4307: To what distance below the hull must the legs of the COASTAL DRILLER be lowered in order to meet the stability and leg strength requirements during the wind speeds greater than 70 knots? 4311: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds expected to exceed 70 knots, must lower the legs to 60.5 feet below the hull in order to meet the requirements for stability and ____________. 4312: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 4313: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds expected to exceed 70 knots, must lower the legs to 60.5 feet below the hull in order to meet the requirements for leg strength and _______________. 4315: Curve A in the Design Limits of Legs Chart of the Coastal Driller Operating Manual, shows the operating limits during severe storm conditions during transit based on __________. 4317: Curve B in the Design Limits of Legs Chart of the Coastal Driller Operating Manual, shows the operating limits during normal transit based on ______________. 4321: Sea water temporarily pumped into tanks to simulate the increased vertical loading of environmental forces is termed __________. 4323: Guide tolerances during elevation of the jackup rig will ____________. 4325: Lowering the hull of the COASTAL DRILLER and refloating should be done in favorable weather conditions with wave heights not more than _______. 4326: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 4850 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 279.84 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 4331: On the COASTAL DRILLER, a noticeable increase in the level indicator while extracting the legs from the soil indicates _______________. 4333: The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 2 degrees and a roll period of 10 seconds. What is the maximum recommended water depth for elevating? 4334: What is the function of an air receiver in the compressed air system? 4335: The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 1 degree and a roll period of 7 seconds. What is the maximum recommended water depth for elevating? 4336: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5486 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 277.84 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 4337: The COASTAL DRILLER, following discharge of preload, should _______. 4341: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated to an air gap of 25 feet in 250 feet of water. The current is 2 knots and the waves are 30 feet. The maximum leg reaction is 6,120 kips. What is the maximum wind for drilling operations? 4345: What information must be available to use the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER? 4346: The EPIRB on board your vessel is required to be tested ________. 4347: In using the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER, leg penetration is assumed to be less than ______. 4355: If the maximum leg penetration of the COASTAL DRILLER is 75 feet, the water depth value in the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts must be increased by ________________. 4357: In using the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER, which of the three leg reactions is required? 4361: On the COASTAL DRILLER, hook load includes the weight of the _________. 4362: The free surface effects of a partially full tank in a vessel increase with the ___________. 4363: Scouring is the result of ___________________________. 4371: Where the seabed consists of sand or silt, the most severe potential problem for an independent-leg jackup can result from ______. 4373: In comparison to electric power, hydraulic power for jacking systems has the advantage of _______. 4375: On the COASTAL DRILLER, what is NOT considered a drilling load? 4377: The elevating system of the COASTAL DRILLER is normally limited to ________. 4383: In an emergency, the jacking system on the COASTAL DRILLER is capable of elevating the unit with a loading of _______. 4385: While elevated as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), winds are 57 knots and current is 2 knots. What is the maximum wave height allowed for drilling? 4387: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated in 192 feet of water. Leg penetration is 83 feet. The maximum leg reaction is 5,940 kips. The waves are 30 feet and the current is 2 knots. What is the maximum wind for drilling? 4391: Which data is NOT used in the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER? 4393: Environmental loading consists of the forces caused by wind, waves, and __________. 4397: What maximum wind velocity is assumed when determining the limits of elevated service for the COASTAL DRILLER? 4401: Use of air gaps in excess of that stated in the Limits of Elevated Service for the COASTAL DRILLER could result in ______________. 4402: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6584 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 277.84 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 4403: Scouring usually occurs with soils such as _________. 4404: The letter and number symbols, such as B-II, used to classify portable fire extinguishers indicate the _________. 4405: Leg penetration to depths which require pullout forces greater than that which can be supplied by the buoyancy of the hull may exist in ________________. 4411: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in a normal transit, the roll period is 9 seconds. What is the limiting angle of roll which does not exceed the design limits of the legs? 4413: The COASTAL DRILLER, while in a normal transit, experiences single amplitude rolling of three degrees. What is the minimum period of roll which does not exceed the design limits of the legs? 4415: While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER has a roll period of 9 seconds. What is the largest angle each side of vertical that does not exceed the design limits of the legs in good weather? 4416: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is ___________. 4417: The COASTAL DRILLER, while in an ocean transit, experiences a single amplitude roll of 8 degrees. What is the minimum period of motion which does not exceed the design limits of the legs? 4421: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in normal transit, the roll period is 8 seconds. What would be the limiting angle of pitch which does not exceed the design limits of the legs? 4423: While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER experiences a single amplitude roll of 5 degrees. What is the minimum roll period that does not exceed the design limits of the legs? 4435: The COASTAL DRILLER has sufficient reserve stability to overcome damage due to flooding of any one watertight compartment in winds to ________. 4447: When a helicopter is lifting personnel from a survival craft, the other individuals in the craft should ________. 4453: When transferring survivors from a survival craft to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the craft should ______. 4455: What is the primary advantage of a davit-launched life raft in comparison to an inflatable life raft? 4457: Prior to entering a davit-launched life raft, you should make sure that _________. 4458: Any firefighting equipment that is carried in addition to the minimum required must _________________. 4461: If you have to jump in the water when abandoning a MODU, your legs should be _________. 4463: The COASTAL DRILLER's ability to meet the damage stability criteria depends on maintaining a watertight integrity, KGL and KGT less than maximum allowed, level attitude, and displacement less than ________. 4465: The COASTAL DRILLER's ability to meet the damage stability criteria depends on maintaining watertight integrity, displacement less than 14,158 kips, level attitude, and KGT and KGL less than ______________. 4471: A severe storm threatens the COASTAL DRILLER, and a decision is made to evacuate the unit. If practical, all non-essential personnel should be off the unit in advance of the storm's predicted arrival by ________. 4475: While the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, the out-of-level alarm indicates that hull inclination exceeds 0.3². What should you do? 4477: If you see someone fall overboard from a MODU, you should ___________. 4481: The COASTAL DRILLER, with a draft of 10 feet 3 inches in seawater, has a displacement of _______. 4483: The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. The draft in sea water at the forward draft marks is observed to be 8.0 feet. The KML is ________________. 4484: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6285 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 272.45 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 4485: The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. The draft in sea water at the forward draft marks is observed to be 8.0 feet. The KMT is ______________. 4486: The international body responsible for drafting the convention prohibiting marine pollution (MARPOL) is the _____________________. 4487: Weights added or discharged at the center of flotation on the COASTAL DRILLER while floating will change the _____. 4491: The COASTAL DRILLER, with a displacement of 13,553 kips, has a draft of _________________. 4493: The COASTAL DRILLER, with a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, has a displacement of ____________________. 4495: The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10.5 feet. It discharges 216.43 kips of weight. What is the new draft? 4497: The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at the load line draft. It discharges 279.93 kips of weight. The new draft is _________________. 4501: The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10.0 feet. It loads 216.43 kips of weight aboard. What is the new draft? 4503: The COASTAL DRILLER has a change of trim by the head of 2.0 feet. What is the change of draft at the forward draft marks? 4505: The height of the longitudinal metacenter of the COASTAL DRILLER at a displacement of 13,810 kips is ________. 4506: A Class S EPIRB is a ___________________. 4507: The height of the transverse metacenter of the COASTAL DRILLER at a displacement of 13,011 kips is _______. 4511: The height of the transverse metacenter of the Coastal Driller at a displacement of 13,050 kips is _______. 4513: When the COASTAL DRILLER is level at a draft of 10.5 feet, what is the value of the LCG? 4515: A survival craft being used to pick up a person who has fallen overboard from a MODU should approach the person ________. 4517: The longitudinal location of the center of flotation for the COASTAL DRILLER has a value of _________________. 4521: While in transit at a draft of 10.5 feet, the COASTAL DRILLER has a KGT of 60.0 feet. What is the GMT? 4523: The capacity of the COASTAL DRILLER preload tanks is _____. 4525: Preload tank 22B on the COASTAL DRILLER contains 5.0 feet of preload. It is decided to complete filling the tank. What is the TCG of the added liquid? 4527: The sounding for Drill Water Tank #18 for the Coastal Driller is 1.25 feet. It is decided to fill the tank. What is the vertical center of gravity for the added liquid? 4533: The sounding level of 17 lb. per gallon mud in mud pit 2S of the COASTAL DRILLER is 7.75 feet. What are the longitudinal moments for this mud? 4534: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5577 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 275.55 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 4535: The sounding level of 17 lb. per gallon mud in mud pit 2S of the COASTAL DRILLER is 7.75 feet. What are the transverse moments for this mud? 4537: What is the weight in long tons of 180 barrels of 15 pound per gallon drilling mud? 4541: What is the weight in drill water tank #1 for the COASTAL DRILLER, if the sounding in the tank is 8 feet 2 inches? 4543: What is the sounding in drill water tank #1 for the COASTAL DRILLER, if the weight of drill water in the tank is 388.32 kips? 4545: What is the VCG of the drill water in the COASTAL DRILLER's #1 Drill Water Tank, if the weight in the tank is 388.32 kips? 4546: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________. 4547: What are the vertical moments for 14.0 feet of drill water in the COASTAL DRILLER's #1 drill water tank? 4551: What are the transverse moments for 10.5 feet of sea water in preload tank #2 for the COASTAL DRILLER? 4553: What longitudinal moments are created when 379.97 kips of fresh water is placed in the COASTAL DRILLER's #1 drill water tank? 4555: The COASTAL DRILLER at a draft of 10.5 feet, transfers a portion of the on board liquids from full drill water tank #23 to empty drill water tank #24. What is the change in the free surface correction? 4557: The sounding level of 12 lb. per gallon mud in mud pit 1S of the COASTAL DRILLER is 5.5 feet. What is the weight of the mud? 4561: The sounding level of 17 lb. per gallon mud in mud pit 2S of the COASTAL DRILLER is 7.75 feet. What is the weight of the mud? 4562: After you activate your emergency position indicating radiobeacon, you should _____________. 4563: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form #3 (drilling), 200 kips are discharged from 60 feet AF0 and 30 feet to starboard of the centerline. What is the starboard leg reaction? 4565: The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 200 feet of water with 2 knots current, 30 foot waves, and wind speeds of 60 knots may continue drilling if the maximum leg reaction is less than ____________. 4567: When elevated, placing the LCG and TCG at the leg centroid provides ____________________. 4571: The COASTAL DRILLER, while elevated in 200 feet of water, has 2 knots of current, 50 knots of wind, and 30 foot seas. What is the maximum leg reaction for drilling? 4572: You are underway at sea. A fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should _______________________. 4573: The total leg load reactions on an independent leg, self-elevating unit include static and ________. 4574: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 4824 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 277.45 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 4575: What precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun? 4577: When the COASTAL DRILLER is properly preloaded, each of the leg reactions should be _______________. 4583: The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 150 feet of water with 0 knots current, 10 foot waves, and wind speeds of 70 knots may continue drilling if the maximum leg reaction is less than _______________. 4587: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 feet to port of the centerline. What is the bow leg reaction? 4591: The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 100 feet of water with 0 knots current, 30 foot waves, and wind speeds of 50 knots may continue drilling if the maximum leg reaction is less than ______________. 4593: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 feet to port of the centerline. What is the port leg reaction? 4594: In illustration DO16SA, a frapping line is indicated by number _____. 4595: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 foot to port of the centerline. What is the starboard leg reaction? 4596: The Departure Report, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent ___________. 4597: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), 236 kips are discharged from 80 feet AF0 and 19.79 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting starboard leg reaction? 4601: The COASTAL DRILLER is drilling while weighing 15,436 kips. LM are 2,006,680 ft-kips, and TM are -7,718 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction? 4603: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated while preparing for the passage of a severe storm. With ideal loading, the static loading on each of the three legs would be 4,715 kips. However, the LCG is 121 feet AFO and TCG is 0.5 foot to starboard of the centerline. By how many kips does the starboard leg reaction exceed the ideal loading? 4605: How many independent bilge systems is the COASTAL DRILLER equipped with? 4607: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the level of water in each of two pump bilge pits is monitored by hydrostatic alarm switches connected to a remote panel located in the _____________. 4611: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the level of water in each of two pump bilge pits is monitored by ____________. 4615: On the machinery deck of the COASTAL DRILLER, each watertight compartment has at least one sump valve that can be remotely operated from the __________________. 4616: You are scheduled to load 4700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water. 4617: On the COASTAL DRILLER, in case one of the two bilge pits is flooded, the other can operate through a(n)__________. 4621: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the start/stop station for the bilge pumps is located ____________. 4622: The S.S. AMERICAN RANGER has drafts of: FWD 26'-04", AFT 28'-08". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 101 tons of seawater. 4623: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the bilge discharge is normally through the ______________. 4625: The order to abandon a MODU should only be given by the ___________. 4627: On the COASTAL DRILLER, except when pumping from a tank, the bilge system valves should be _______. 4631: On the COASTAL DRILLER, in case the bilge discharge is oily, the bilge water should be discharged through the _________. 4633: On the COASTAL DRILLER, when afloat, oily bilge discharge should be pumped through the __________. 4635: How much drill water is required for transfer between drill water tanks #25 and #26 in order to correct the list of the COASTAL DRILLER with total transverse moments of -6,800 ft-kips? 4636: By pulling on the line number 5 in illustration DO12SA, what will be released? 4637: How much drill water should be transferred from tanks #23 and #24 to tank #1 to level the COASTAL DRILLER, in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, if the total longitudinal moments are 1,700,000 ft-kips? 4641: What is the change in longitudinal moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #1? 4643: What is the change in longitudinal moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #6? 4644: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 7240 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 273.20 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 4645: What is the change in the vertical moments (excluding free surface effects) for the COASTAL DRILLER if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #6? 4647: What is the increase in transverse moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #6? 4651: If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning a MODU it will ________. 4652: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 3245 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 272.20 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 4653: What is the increase in transverse free surface moments for the COASTAL DRILLER if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #6? 4655: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the drill water in drill water tanks #6 and #25 are discharged, what is the new draft? 4657: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of the four bulk tanks are back-loaded to a supply boat, what would be the new draft? 4658: You are scheduled to load 3900 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 259 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water. 4661: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of the #1 drill water tank are discharged, what would be the new LCG? 4662: Most covered lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing if the ________. 4663: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of the #7 drill water tank are discharged, what would be the new TCG? 4665: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new VCG? 4667: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new height of the longitudinal metacenter? 4673: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects? 4677: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects? 4681: The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the new KGT if, during the move, 170.9 kips of fuel oil is consumed from Diesel Oil Tanks #13 and #14? 4683: What is the change in longitudinal moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.5 feet of drill water is discharged from drill water tank #23? 4685: What is the change in transverse moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.5 feet of drill water is discharged from drill water tank #23? 4687: What is the decrease in vertical moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.5 feet of drill water is discharged from a full drill water tank #23? 4691: The COASTAL DRILLER, with no list, is at a true mean draft of 10 feet and 10 inches. LM is 1,699,463 ft-kips. Using only tanks #1, #25, and #26, how many kips of drill water must be transferred to level the jackup? 4693: The COASTAL DRILLER, with no trim, is at a true mean draft of 10 feet and 10 inches. TM is -6,800 ft-kips. Using only tanks #1, #25, and #26, how many kips of drill water must be transferred to level the jackup? 4697: A tank with a volume of 2,000 cubic feet is pressed with fresh water weighing 62.4 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in kips, of the liquid? 4701: After you activate your emergency position indicating radiobeacon, you should ________. 4703: A jackup 210 feet in length is level during transit. The LCF is 140 feet aft of the bow. How much weight should be applied at the stern to re-level the jackup if 75 kips is applied at the bow? 4705: What is the weight of 100 barrels of 17 pound per gallon drilling mud? 4706: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 7940 T. The 45-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 60' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 110' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 50' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 4.5ø. What is the GM with the cargo stowed? 4707: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form #3 (drilling), 50 kips of tubulars are discharged from the cantilever starboard pipe racks. What is the change in the vessel's LCG? 4711: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form #3 (drilling), 50 kips of tubulars are discharged from the cantilever starboard pipe racks. What is the change in the vessel's TCG? 4713: When the COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the sample load form #3 (drilling), the hook load is placed in the pipe racks. What would be the new variable load? 4715: Sea water remaining in the preload tanks of the COASTAL DRILLER after the preload has been dumped shall be entered in the load form as ______________. 4716: What is the purpose of tricing pendants? 4717: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the sample load from #2 (preload). All of the preload is dumped with the exception of 50 kips in preload tank #28. What is the new LCG? 4718: The Departure Report, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent _____________. 4723: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new trim angle if 500 kips of weight are shifted aft 60 feet? 4725: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Rig Move). What would be the new sum of vertical moments for the liquid variables if the entire contents of tank #20 are transferred to tank #13? 4727: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal moments for the liquid variables if the entire contents of tank #19 are transferred to tank #13? 4733: In the COASTAL DRILLER, LCG is obtained from the sum of the longitudinal moments by _________. 4734: Seawater may be used for drinking ______________________. 4735: In the COASTAL DRILLER, TCG is obtained from the sum of the transverse moments by _________. 4737: In the COASTAL DRILLER, VCG is obtained from the sum of the vertical moments by __________. 4741: The COASTAL DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 13,445 kips. What is the weight of the missing load? 4742: You are scheduled to load 4700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water. 4743: The COASTAL DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 13,445 kips, total longitudinal moments 1,613,466 foot-kips, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-kips. What is the longitudinal location of the missing load? 4744: The lever shown in illustration DO13SA is operated when the lifeboat is __________. 4745: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form #3 (drilling), all of the casing is discharged. What is the change in LCG? 4746: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 4747: The COASTAL DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 13,445 kips, total longitudinal moments 1,613,466 foot-kips, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-kips. What is the transverse location of the missing load? 4748: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 3885 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 278.45 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 4751: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #20. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in longitudinal moments with this transfer? 4753: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in transverse moments with this transfer? 4755: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in vertical moments with this transfer? 4757: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in longitudinal free surface moments? 4761: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in transverse free surface moments? 4763: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of the port pipe rack are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, how much drill water would have to be transferred between tanks 6 and 7 to level the vessel in list? 4764: You are scheduled to load 3700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 427 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water. 4767: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of the port pipe rack are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, how much drill water would have to be transferred from tank #1 to tank #26 to level the vessel in trim? 4771: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of bulk tanks #2 and #3 are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, what would be the new draft? 4773: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of bulk tanks #2 and #3 are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, what longitudinal moment would have to be created to level the unit in trim at the new draft? 4775: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of bulk tanks #2 and #3 are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, what transverse moment would have to be created to level the unit in list at the new draft? 4777: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). While in field transit, the wind speeds are predicted to increase above 70 knots. What would be the new KGL if the legs are lowered to the recommended value? 4778: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5540 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 272.20 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 4781: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). While in field transit, the wind speeds are predicted to increase above 70 knots. What would be the change in KGL if the legs are lowered to the recommended value? 4783: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG if winds remain less than 70 knots? 4784: If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST ____. 4785: What should you do with your emergency position indicating radiobeacon if you are in a life raft in a storm? 4786: In illustration DO15SA, which number indicates the hydrostatic release? 4787: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). How much more variable load in kips can be placed on the unit if winds increase to greater than 70 knots? 4791: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). How much more variable load in kips can be placed on the unit if winds remain less than 70 knots? 4793: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG if winds increase to greater than 70 knots, and the TOC is changed to the recommended value? 4795: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new LCG if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged? 4797: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new TCG if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged? 4801: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new VCG if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged? 4805: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new Longitudinal Free Surface Correction (FSCL) if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged? 4807: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new transverse free surface correction (FSCT) if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged? 4811: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the value of KMT if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged? 4812: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 4813: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the value of KML if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged? 4814: You are scheduled to load 3900 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 359 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water. 4815: What is the maximum amount of variables that may be taken aboard the COASTAL DRILLER while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (drilling)? 4833: To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning a MODU, they should __________. 4837: When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is opened, the mainline valve should be ________. 4847: The rated operating time of a self-contained breathing device may be reduced in actual use because of ___________. 4851: The self-contained breathing device should not be used in which situation? 5031: For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a jack-up drilling rig under tow is considered to be a _____. 5033: For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a non-self-propelled, semisubmersible drilling unit under tow is considered to be a _________________. 5035: When would a jack-up drilling rig be considered "underway" under the International Rules of the Road? 5037: Where will you find the requirements for the signals that must be sounded by a mobile offshore drilling unit that is being towed through an area of restricted visibility? 5038: The S.S. AMERICAN RANGER has drafts of: FWD 22'-03", AFT 25'-05". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 97 tons of seawater. 5041: When must a MODU display navigation lights while underway? 5042: What is the meaning of the signal SA T1035 RQ when sent by the International code of Signals? 5045: Your jackup is being towed along a shipping channel. You are concerned that a vessel that is overtaking you is coming too close to pass safely. You must _______. 5047: A jackup drilling rig being towed must ___________________. 5053: What shape in DIAGRAM 16 would be displayed by a mobile offshore drilling unit that is being towed more than 200 meters astern of a towing vessel? 5055: A mobile offshore drilling unit will show the dayshape in DIAGRAM 10 to indicate that it is ______________________. 5057: A mobile offshore drilling unit under tow is approaching a fog bank. When should fog signals be started? 5061: During a move to a new location, a jack-up drilling unit with personnel on board is towed through a heavy rainstorm. What signal must be sounded by the drilling rig when visibility is restricted? 5062: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 8530 T. The 40-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 65' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 115' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 50' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5ø. What is the GM with the cargo stowed? 5063: What signal must be sounded by a vessel towing a mobile offshore drilling unit through an area of restricted visibility? 5065: Under what condition are you allowed to depart from the rules of the road? 5067: While a MODU is underway, a look-out must be maintained _______. 5068: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 5071: A mobile offshore drilling unit is on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf. It has a length of 220 feet and a breadth of 190 feet. Where must the obstruction lights be located? 5073: An obstruction light on a mobile offshore drilling unit on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf, shall have a lens that is visible over an arc of ___________. 5075: What lighting characteristic is required of an obstruction light on a mobile offshore drilling unit on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf? 5077: The requirements for obstruction lights on mobile offshore drilling units apply on all waters ________________________. 5081: What color are obstruction lights on mobile offshore drilling units that are located on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf seaward of the line of demarcation? 5083: When a mobile offshore drilling unit on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf has more than one obstruction light, the lights must be operated to flash ______________. 5085: A mobile offshore drilling unit must display obstruction lights when it is on the waters over the Outer Continental Shelf and is _____________. 5087: What agency is responsible for enforcing the rules for obstruction lights on mobile offshore drilling units? 5091: Obstruction lights on mobile offshore drilling units on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf must be displayed _____________. 5092: You are scheduled to load 3200 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 259 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water: 5093: A jackup drilling unit elevated on the Outer Continental Shelf must have a fog horn that will sound ___________________. 5094: The mechanism that will release the tricing pendant, as shown in illustration DO12SA, is __________. 5095: Who has the ultimate responsibility for the safety of a mobile offshore drilling unit while it is being towed to a new location? 5097: To have the ultimate authority for a mobile offshore drilling unit while it is under tow, a rig mover must ____________________. 5098: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 5101: When a marine surveyor is employed to assist in the move of a mobile offshore drilling unit, he ______________________. 5103: A hurricane has recurved to the northeast and its forward speed is 20 knots. Your MODU is located 600 miles northeast of the hurricane's center. How long will it take for the hurricane center to reach your position if it holds its present course and speed? 5105: The edge of a hurricane has overtaken your MODU in the Gulf of Mexico and the northwest wind of a few hours ago has shifted to the west. This is an indication that you are located in the __________. 5113: A tropical storm is building strength some distance from your MODU. Waves are coming from the east, with periods increasing from 5 seconds to 15 seconds. The swell is from the east. Where was the storm when these new swells were generated? 5115: What kind of conditions would you observe as the eye of a storm passes over your MODU's position? 5121: What danger is presented if a waterspout passes over a MODU? 5122: You are scheduled to load 3700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 427 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water. 5123: In MODU construction, bulkheads in the quarters are generally _________. 5124: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 5125: A MODU with the TCG off the longitudinal centerline inclines to an angle of _______________. 5127: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for displacement is ____. 5131: In illustration D041DG symbol 1 refers to ____________. 5133: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for the reference from which the height of the center of gravity is measured is __. 5135: In illustration D041DG symbol 2 represents _____________. 5137: When a floating MODU inclines to an angle slightly greater than the angle of loll, she will __________. 5153: A semisubmersible floating in sea water displaces 20,000 long tons. She has vertical moments of 1,000,000 foot-long tons. What is the change in KG if 500 long tons are placed aboard at a KG of 120 feet? 5154: The sea anchor shown as item number 14 will NOT ___________. 5155: A MODU displacing 10,000 long tons with KG 20.0 feet, uses its crane to lift a 40 long ton load from dockside and place it on board at a VCG of 5.0 feet. When lifting, the head of the crane boom is 50.0 feet above the keel. During the lift, what is the apparent increase in KG? 5156: Your non-oceangoing ship is required to have a fixed piping system to discharge oily mixtures ashore. What is required at each outlet of this system? 5157: A MODU displacing 10,000 tons uses its crane to lift a 20 ton load, already aboard, to a height of 5 feet above the deck. When lifting, the head of the crane boom is 50 feet above the load. What is the change in KG? 5163: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the longitudinal metacenter? 5175: The DEEP DRILLER, in transit at a seawater draft of 19 feet, enters a fresh water port. What is the new draft? 5177: The DEEP DRILLER departs a fresh water port at a draft of 20 feet. What will be the draft in sea water? 5181: The DEEP DRILLER departs a fresh water port at a draft of 19.5 feet. What will be the draft in sea water? 5183: The DEEP DRILLER departs a fresh water port at a draft of 20.5 feet. What will be the draft in sea water? 5191: While being towed at a 19.5 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER experiences single amplitude pitching of 7.5 degrees with an 8 second period. You should ________________. 5192: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should ___________________. 5193: The DEEP DRILLER is being towed at a 20 foot draft. Vessel motions are within acceptable limits, but the waves begin to hit the horizontal braces. You should __________. 5195: The DEEP DRILLER is under tow at a 20 foot draft. The rig motions are close to exceeding the limits for critical pitch and roll. The rig is also experiencing occasional pounding on the horizontal braces. In this situation you should _________. 5196: You are hoisting a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 8560 T. The 45-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 65' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 95' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 55' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5.5². What is the GM with the cargo stowed? 5197: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has VM of 942,120 ft-tons, and FSML of 36,235 ft-tons. What is the KGL? 5201: If the low side bilge pump fails and the high side bilge pump has insufficient suction to dewater the low side of the COASTAL DRILLER when afloat, you should use the __________. 5203: Among the possible causes of unexpected rapid increasing inclination of the floating COASTAL DRILLER is ____________. 5205: Among the possible causes of unexpected constant inclination of the floating COASTAL DRILLER is ________________. 5223: When floating, the appropriate leg horizontal must be aligned in the center of the ________________. 5225: If the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is negative initial stability, counterflooding into empty tanks may ________. 5231: If the cause of severe list or trim is off-center ballast, counterflooding into empty tanks will ______________. 5232: Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by _____________. 5233: During counterflooding to correct a severe list or trim aggravated by an off-center load, a MODU suddenly takes a list or trim to the opposite side. You should ____________. 5234: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 5235: If a MODU takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________________. 5245: To maintain a high state of readiness against the possibility of damage and subsequent flooding while aboard the DEEP DRILLER, you should ______________. 5247: In case of major damage to column C1P while the DEEP DRILLER is on location, you should pump from port-forward lower-hull tanks using _________________. 5261: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C1P. Your best countermeasure is to _______. 5263: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Your best countermeasure is to _____. 5265: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C1P. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the damage has proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to ________. 5267: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the damage have proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to _______. 5271: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C1P. Your best countermeasure is to pump from ____. 5273: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Your best countermeasure is to _______. 5274: The type davits shown in illustration DO08SA are __________. 5275: In case of minor damage to lower-hull tank 1P while the DEEP DRILLER is in transit, you should pump from tank 1P using ____________. 5276: The S.S. AMERICAN RANGER has drafts of: FWD 18'-07", AFT 23'-03". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 92 tons of seawater. 5277: Failure of both port ballast pumps on the DEEP DRILLER prevents their use. To deballast from tank 1P, you may use the __________. 5281: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the port pump room while in transit. If both port bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you may ________. 5283: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the starboard pump room while in transit. If both starboard bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you may use ________. 5285: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Transit), suffers minor damage which results in flooding in tank 1P. You may pump from ___________. 5286: A vessel is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is _______________. 5287: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Transit), suffers minor damage which results in flooding in tank 1S. You may pump from ___________. 5297: Among the possible causes of unexpected rapidly increasing inclination of the DEEP DRILLER while in transit is _______. 5301: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the shift in VCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials? 5302: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 5305: The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches with winds less than 70 knots, has a KGT of 50.6 feet and a KGL of 51.4 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is _________________. 5307: The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches with winds greater than 70 knots, has a KGT of 38.7 feet and a KGL of 38.2 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is ______. 5308: Your drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 21'-03". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book? 5311: The COASTAL DRILLER, in field transit at a draft of 10 feet 0 inches with winds less than 70 knots, has a KGT of 39.0 feet and a KGL of 38.6 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is _________________. 5312: In illustration DO16SA, the line indicated by number 4 is connected to the __________. 5313: The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 0 inches with winds greater than 70 knots, has a KGT of 39.0 feet and a KGL of 38.6 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________. 5314: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 5315: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit during a severe storm while at a draft of 9 feet 6 inches, has a KGT of 39.1 feet and a KGL of 39.9 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is _________. 5321: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 541,257 ft-kips, FSML are 32,000 ft-kips and FSMT are 24,000 ft-kips. How much should the KGL be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria? 5323: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 520,462 ft-kips, FSML are 26,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are 25,000 ft-kips. How much should the KG corrected for free surface effects be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria? 5325: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 546,462 ft-kips, FSML are 18,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are 32,000 ft-kips. How much should the KG corrected for free surface effects be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria? 5327: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. GMT is 98.89 feet. How much should the KG corrected for free surface effects be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria? 5341: For stronger leg support when the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, locate a set of horizontal leg braces as near as possible to the _______. 5353: When preloading the COASTAL DRILLER, the maximum total weight shall not exceed _____________. 5354: You are scheduled to load 3200 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water. 5357: During preloading or elevating the COASTAL DRILLER, jacking-up may continue if the total weight is less than __________. 5361: The COASTAL DRILLER, when underway was loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). It is now preloaded at minimum air gap waiting for all settling to take place. The preload, weighing 7,191.7 kips, has LM 870,196 ft-kips and TM 2,158 ft-kips. What is the bow leg reaction? 5363: The COASTAL DRILLER, when underway was loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). It is now preloaded at minimum air gap waiting for all settling to take place. The preload, weighing 7,191.7 kips, has LM 870,196 ft-kips and TM 2,158 ft-kips. What is the starboard leg reaction? 5365: The COASTAL DRILLER, when underway was loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). It is now preloaded at minimum air gap waiting for all settling to take place. The preload, weighing 7,191.7 kips, has LM 870,196 ft-kips and TM 2,158 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction? 5373: While preloading, the COASTAL DRILLER has a total weight of 21,401 kips. The LM are 2,560,416 ft-kips, and the TM are -6,206 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction? 5381: While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL DRILLER is 14,150 kips, LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The bow leg reaction is _________________. 5385: While preloading, the COASTAL DRILLER has a total weight of 21,401 kips. The LM are 2,560,416 ft-kips, and the TM are -6,206 ft-kips. What is the starboard leg reaction? 5386: Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment? 5387: Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment? 5388: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be ___________. 5407: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Preload). What would be the LCG if the preload is dumped and the cantilever and drill floor are skidded aft, placing the rotary 34 feet aft of the transom? 5408: One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable life raft is to __________. 5411: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Preload). What will be the LCG if the preload is dumped? 5412: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 5413: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Preload). What would be the TCG if the preload is dumped and the cantilever and drill floor are skidded aft, placing the rotary 34 feet aft of the transom, and the drill floor is skidded 8 feet to port? 5415: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Preload), dumps the preload. However, 138.4 kips remained on board. The LM for the remaining preload is 17,992 ft-kips. What is the new LCG? 5417: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), discharges the bulk in Bulk Tanks 1 and 2. What is the new LCG? 5418: Small passenger vessels in coastwise service must carry approved _________________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 5421: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), discharges the bulk in Bulk Tanks 1 and 2. What is the new TCG? 5423: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), dumps all the mud in pits 1, 2, 3, and 4. What is the new TCG? 5425: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), dumps all the mud in pits 1, 2, 3, and 4. What is the new LCG? 5427: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Storm), discharges all the bulk in the four bulk tanks. What is the new LCG? 5431: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Storm), discharges all the bulk in the four bulk tanks. What is the new TCG? 5433: It is vital to the safety of the elevated COASTAL DRILLER that the hull be kept above ______________. 5434: You are hoisting a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 5230 T. The 35-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 60' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 105' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 42' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5². What is the GM with the cargo stowed? 5435: The COASTAL DRILLER is operating with a wave clearance of about 20 feet. The out-of-level alarm sounds and the unit is found to be inclined 0.5 degree bow down. The recommended course of action is to __________________. 5441: The COASTAL DRILLER has suffered a casualty which requires an orderly evacuation of the unit using the lifeboats and life rafts. Among the items to accomplish in preparing to evacuate the unit is ________. 5445: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to port and forward. Strong wind and high waves are from the starboard quarter. Among the possible causes, you should consider ______________. 5447: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to starboard and forward. Strong winds and high waves are from the port quarter. Among the possible causes, you should consider ________________. 5449: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 5451: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to starboard and aft. Strong wind and high waves are on the port bow. Among the possible causes, you should consider _________________. 5455: What percentage of the breaking strength is the generally accepted safe operating load of an anchor cable? 5457: The only wire rope termination which may be made in the field is _______________________. 5461: Thirty-five percent of the breaking strength of an anchor cable is generally accepted as the _________________. 5462: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 5463: A common class of wire rope used for mooring is the 6x19 class. What does the 6 represent? 5465: A common class of wire rope used for mooring is the 6x37 class. What does the 37 represent? 5467: What is an advantage of the 6x19 class of wire rope over the 6x37 class of wire rope of the same diameter? 5471: What is an advantage of the 6x37 class of wire rope over the 6x19 class of wire rope of the same diameter? 5473: Where do fatigue failures of wire rope mooring lines usually occur? 5475: The primary purpose for using stud link chain in a mooring system on a rig is the ______________. 5477: Standards for fabrication and testing of chain on mobile offshore drilling units are provided by the _______. 5479: The purpose of the inclining experiment on a vessel is to determine the _______________. 5481: A common means of connecting shots of anchor chain in the field is to use a ____________________. 5483: The idler sheave which directs and turns the anchor cable from a semisubmersible is known as the _____________. 5485: The maximum angular tolerance for a bent link of an anchor chain is __________________________. 5486: Illustration DO09SA shows the correct method of securing a __________. 5487: A measurement device for inspecting anchor chain is the ___________. 5491: The American Petroleum Institute recommends that a new anchor chain should be inspected after being in service for ___________________. 5493: The American Petroleum Institute recommends that connecting links and anchor shackles be inspected using _______. 5495: Extended cyclical variations in tensions will cause an anchor chain to break due to _________. 5497: Which grade of anchor chain is generally used on floating drilling vessels? 5501: What is a major disadvantage of Di-Lok chain compared with Oil Rig Quality (stud link) chain in floating drilling rig operations? 5503: What are the two main types of stud link chain? 5504: While signaling by flashing light you make an error. You should send _____. 5505: Which problem is virtually impossible to detect during an in-service inspection of used mooring chain? 5506: The S.S. AMERICAN RANGER has drafts of: FWD 13'-05", AFT 21'-03". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 88 tons of seawater. 5507: The American Petroleum Institute recommends magnetic particle inspection for _________________________. 5508: Your drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 18'-03". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book? 5511: When inspecting anchor chain, the American Petroleum Institute recommends checking the length over 5 links every ________________. 5513: A link on an anchor chain should be replaced when wear or grinding of surface cracks has reduced the cross section area by ___________. 5515: What should be done after repairing a surface crack on a link of anchor chain by grinding? 5517: Grinding to eliminate shallow surface defects should be done _________. 5518: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of THe Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 5521: Prior to magnetic particle inspection of anchor chain, the chain should be _______________________. 5522: Radiation spreads a fire by _____. 5523: Before being certified by the American Bureau of Shipping, anchor chain must undergo _________________________. 5525: What does the proof test load of an anchor chain demonstrate? 5527: With adaptor blocks/chocks in place on an LWT stock anchor, the trip angle will be ______________________. 5531: With adaptor blocks/chocks removed from an LWT stock anchor, the trip angle will be ______________. 5533: Connecting elements of a mooring system should be fabricated from _________________. 5535: What effect is achieved from soaking an anchor? 5536: On a vessel of 7000 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 30 ft. wide and 46 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 0.923) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank? 5537: Why should you soak an anchor? 5541: What is the "holding power ratio" of an anchor? 5543: What happ ns to the efficiency of an anchor when it is moved from sand to mud? 5545: When a combination chain and wire rope mooring line is used, the chain is deployed ____________. 5547: In a combination chain and wire rope mooring system, the chain is deployed at the anchor end of the line to _____. 5551: Anchor shackles should have a breaking strength that is ___________. 5553: The angle between the flukes and the shank of an anchor is called the ________. 5555: The fluke angle of an anchor system is the angle between the _________. 5557: The holding power of an anchor is the _______. 5561: What line receives the hardest service in the mooring system? 5563: Most large anchors are manufactured with a _______________. 5565: What is the bow type anchor shackle primarily used for? 5567: What is the most important difference between the bow type anchor shackle and the D-type anchor shackle? 5568: You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man should back out? 5571: Which two components pass through the shank of an LWT anchor? 5573: To develop maximum anchor holding power, the optimum angle between the anchor's shank and the mooring lines is _______. 5574: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 5575: Increasing the area of the anchor flukes will ___________. 5577: What is the advantage of a single streamlined fluke anchor over a double fluked anchor of similar weight? 5585: Cable tension for catenary calculations is taken at the _________. 5586: Your drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 21'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the location of the center of flotation relative to amidships. 5587: What is the primary disadvantage of a permanent chain chaser system? 5591: The major cause of anchor buoy pendant wire failures is ________. 5595: An anchor winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding ___________________. 5597: A chain stripper is used to _________________. 5598: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by ___________. 5601: Your semisubmersible drilling unit is moving onto a location in shallow water with a very hard bottom. What is the most effective means of maintaining your position at this location during severe weather? 5603: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while in transit is 7 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 4 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is ___________________. 5604: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 5605: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 10 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometer is 4 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is ____________. 5611: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 8 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 4 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is ______________. 5615: Structural stress levels in a MODU are the sum of loading stresses and stresses due to _______________. 5616: You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a tank using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that the man should come out immediately? 5617: Structural stress on a MODU can be reduced by __________. 5623: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 10 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 8 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is ____________. 5625: For a semisubmersible moored in heavy weather conditions, the leeward lines should be paid out, and the windward lines adjusted so that _________________. 5627: For a semisubmersible moored in heavy weather conditions, the weather lines should be adjusted so that several lines carry about the same tension, and the leeward lines are _________________. 5631: In deballasting to survival draft because of extreme wind and wave loads, thrusters or propulsion, if available, should be used to ___________________. 5633: In ballasting to survival draft, while in transit, due to extreme wind and wave loads, thrusters or propulsion, if available, should be used to _________________. 5637: While in transit during heavy weather, the crew aboard a semisubmersible should be alert to repeated pounding of waves on the lower bracing. If necessary, the unit should be ____________________. 5643: When evacuating the DEEP DRILLER, preparations should include ________. 5644: You are operating an ocean-going vessel of 322 gross tons. If your vessel does NOT have an oily-water separator then she must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily ballast to a shore facility. This system must include _______________. 5645: On a semisubmersible drilling unit, increasing riser tension reduces _________________. 5647: On a semisubmersible drilling unit, increasing riser tension increases ___________________. 5648: The hydrostatic release on the inflatable life rafts on a fishing vessel must be _____________. 5651: On a semisubmersible drilling unit, decreasing riser tension reduces _________________. 5653: On a semisubmersible drilling unit, decreasing riser tension increases _________________. 5655: When the air temperature is just below 32² F, snow FIRST adheres to _________. 5665: When clear ice is present while drilling, the vertical transverse moments of the DEEP DRILLER are increased by ____________________. 5667: When clear ice is present when the DEEP DRILLER is in transit, the vertical moments are increased by ________. 5668: Your drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 18'-02". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1. 5671: When assuming the maximum ice weight accumulation on the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft, the vertical moments are increased by _________________. 5673: The DEEP DRILLER may remain at operating draft instead of deballasting to survival draft when _______________. 5677: The DEEP DRILLER may remain at operating draft instead of deballasting to survival draft when _______________. 5681: The DEEP DRILLER may remain at operating draft instead of deballasting to survival draft when _________________. 5683: You should consider placing the drilling operations of the DEEP DRILLER in standby when _______________. 5691: In a storm, the windward lines of a MODU's mooring system provide _________. 5693: In a storm, the leeward lines of a MODU's mooring system will ______. 5694: What is the meaning of the signal QU RQ when sent by the International Code of Signals? 5695: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4, (Drilling). In preparing for approaching heavy weather, the four leeward mooring lines are slacked. These actions reduce the _________. 5697: The motion that can significantly increase mooring line tension is _________. 5701: The vessel motion that can significantly affect mooring line tensions on a MODU is _______. 5702: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 5705: The design of a spring buoy helps ___________________. 5707: A mooring system that results in a spread system without anchor buoys is called a _______________________. 5708: On a vessel of 6500 tons displacement, a tank 30 ft. long, 32 ft. wide and 18 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 1.048) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank? 5711: Installing tandem anchors on the same mooring line is referred to as ____________________. 5713: What pressure must a spring buoy, moored at a 500 foot depth, withstand? 5715: What can cause a lack of oxygen in a chain locker? 5721: Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with _______________________. 5722: Your drafts are: FWD 21'-03", AFT 26'-00". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book? 5723: What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a chain locker? 5725: Given the same water depth and line tension, the catenary length of a 90 pound/foot mooring chain in comparison to the catenary length of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line will be ____________________. 5727: Given the same water depth and line tension, the length of the ground cable of a 90 pound/foot mooring chain compared to the length of the ground cable of a 19 pound/ft wire rope mooring line will be _________. 5731: Given the same water depth and line tension, the catenary length of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line in comparison to the catenary length of a 90 pound/foot mooring chain will be ________. 5733: Given the same water depth and mooring tension, the length of the ground cable of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line in comparison to a 90 pound/foot mooring chain will be _____________________. 5735: Given the same water depth and mooring tension, the holding power of a 90 pound/foot chain mooring system in comparison to the holding power of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line will be ___________________. 5737: Given the same water depth and line tension, the holding power of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring system in comparison to the holding power of a 90 pound/foot chain mooring system will be ________________. 5741: A device commonly used to secure the pendant wire when it is initially passed to an anchor handling vessel is _________. 5743: The safest device used to secure the end of the pendant wire when it is initially passed to the anchor handling vessel is a __________________. 5747: If the water depth is 500 feet, the length of the pendant wire from the anchor to the buoy is typically _____________. 5751: When piggybacking anchors, the distance between the primary anchor and the secondary anchor is determined by __________. 5752: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 5753: The length of chain between the anchor and the end of the pendant line is called the ________________________. 5755: Why are symmetric mooring patterns frequently used to keep MODU's on station? 5756: Your drafts are: FWD 21'-03", AFT 21'-09". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book? 5757: What determines the minimum size of an anchor buoy? 5763: What is the purpose of a chain stopper? 5765: Air gap is the vertical distance between the bottom of the hull and the ____________. 5767: A shepherd's crook is used to _________________. 5771: A J-chaser is used to _____________________. 5781: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the port bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet water depth, the tensions in mooring line 1 and 2 are 400 kips. Completely slacking the mooring lines 5 and 6 reduces the tension in mooring lines 1 and 2 to about _____. 5783: In storm conditions in 600 feet of water, completely slacking the leeward mooring line of the DEEP DRILLER reduces the tension in that line to about _____. 5785: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the port bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet water depth, the offset is 9%. Completely slacking mooring lines 5 and 6 reduces the offset to _____________. 5786: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 5787: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the starboard bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet water depth, the offset is 8%. Completely slacking mooring lines 7 and 8 reduces the offset to _______. 5791: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the port bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 400 feet water depth, the tensions in mooring lines 1 and 2 are 400 kips. Completely slacking the mooring lines 5 and 6 reduces the tension in mooring lines 1 and 2 to about ______. 5793: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the starboard bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 400 feet water depth, the offset is 7%. Completely slacking mooring lines 7 and 8 reduces the offset to ________. 5795: What is the length of the catenary when the DEEP DRILLER is anchored in 600 feet of water and the anchor line tension is 170 kips? 5805: A permanent chain chasing system is used to _______________. 5806: Damage stability is the stability ________________. 5811: The unit used to measure anchor line tensions in the offshore drilling industry is the _______________________. 5813: An ideal mooring system would be _____________________. 5814: Your drafts are: FWD 18'-03", AFT 21'-09". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book? 5815: What device is used to measure the force exerted on the rig by a leg of the mooring system? 5817: The two main types of load cells used in mooring tension gauges are ____________________. 5821: Why should you preload a mooring system above your precalculated operating mooring tensions? 5823: Your semisubmersible drilling unit is moored on station and is experiencing winds from the north. What will be the effect if you increase the length of the anchor chains you have deployed to the north? 5824: The vertical distance between G and M is used as a measure of _________________. 5825: The tension on an anchor cable increases so that the angle of the catenary to the seabed at the anchor reaches 10 degrees. How will this affect the anchor in sandy soil? 5827: When a MODU is afloat in equilibrium, the horizontal component of mooring line tensions should equal ___________. 5835: The initial tension set in the mooring system of a MODU establishes the ________. 5837: What could cause a significant difference between actual chain tension and the tension measured by the tensiometer? 5845: Yawing can be described as _____________________________. 5855: A mat-type drilling unit tows more slowly than a jackup unit due to ______. 5857: In towing it is desirable for the tug and the MODU to ride wave crests simultaneously because ________________________. 5858: Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1. 5863: If a MODU under tow starts jumping on its tow line, the most appropriate action to alleviate the condition is to _______. 5864: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 5871: The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 600 feet of water. The tension on anchor line #8 is 190 kips. What is the vertical component of chain tension for that line? 5883: In selecting a tug for moving a MODU, consideration should be given to its _________________________________. 5893: The effect of ocean currents is usually more evident on a rig being towed than on a tug navigating independently because the ______. 5897: The type of shackle used in making up tow lines to a MODU should be __________________________. 5898: What is the meaning of the signal VJ 8 when sent by the International Code of Signals? 5901: With a rig in tow, there is immediate danger to the tug in the event of the __________________________. 5902: The most likely location for a liquid fire to occur on a tanker would be ___________. 5903: The signal to man emergency stations on MODU's is _________. 5905: The signal for fire alarm on a MODU must be indicated _____. 5907: The station bill of a MODU must be signed by the __________. 5911: What information must be entered on the MODU's muster list? 5913: If uniformly distributed in the cantilever pipe rack of the COASTAL DRILLER, how much pipe can be placed in the cantilever pipe rack area when the cantilever has been extended 40 feet aft of the transom? 5914: On a vessel of 6500 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 25 ft. wide, and 8 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 1.053) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank? 5915: What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system on board an offshore rig? 5917: What must be located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire main system? 5921: Multiple fire pumps may be used for other purposes provided that one pump is ____________________. 5923: The relief valve on a fire pump is set at 25 psi above the pressure necessary to maintain required fire streams, or _________. 5924: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. 5925: When fire pumps are used for other than firefighting service, each pipe connecting the other service (except for branch lines used for deck washing) must have a __________. 5927: A fire main system must have enough fire hydrants so that each accessible space may be sprayed with ____________. 5931: If the charted water depth is 200 feet, the limits of service for the COASTAL DRILLER require an air gap of _____. 5933: Each fire hydrant must have at least one spanner and at least one _______________. 5934: You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should you give to indicate that you need help? 5935: The size of fire hydrant hose connections must be either 1-1/2 inches or _________. 5936: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 5941: Each fire hydrant serving machinery spaces containing oil fired boilers, internal combustion machinery, or oil fuel units must be equipped with a _______________. 5945: Each part of the fire-main system located on an exposed deck must be ________________. 5946: The S.S. AMERICAN RANGER has drafts of: FWD 25'-11", AFT 26'-11". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 83 tons of seawater. 5947: Each fire hose coupling on a MODU must have threads that meet the specifications of the _____________. 5951: Control valves of a CO2 system may be located within the protected space when ______________________. 5953: The stamped full weight of a 100 lb. CO2 bottle is 314 lbs. What is the minimum weight of the bottle before it has to be recharged? 5955: After using a CO2 extinguisher on a MODU, it should be ______________. 5957: On a MODU, a CO2 extinguisher is checked by _____________. 5958: You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should you give to indicate that you are advancing? 5961: A CO2 extinguisher on a MODU which has lost 10% of its charge must be ____________. 5962: Your drafts are: FWD 25'-09", AFT 28'-03". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the location of the center of flotation relative to amidships. 5963: On a MODU, CO2 extinguishers must be weighed _____________. 6003: The minimum number of portable C-II fire extinguishers required on the drill floor of a MODU is _______. 6004: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 6005: Fire extinguishers of sizes III, IV, and V are designated as _______. 6007: On offshore drilling units, each hand-held portable fire extinguisher, semi-portable fire extinguisher, and fixed fire extinguisher must be tested and inspected at least once every ________________________. 6011: On a MODU, hand portable extinguishers are size(s) _______. 6013: On a MODU, size III, IV, and V extinguishers are considered _______. 6015: On a MODU, size I and II extinguishers are considered _____. 6021: Semi-portable extinguishers used on MODU's are sizes ______. 6022: You are in a tank wearing a breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Take up slack"? 6023: On a MODU, an extinguisher with 15 lbs. of CO2 or 10 lbs. of dry chemical is a size _______. 6027: On a MODU, firefighting equipment must be inspected once every ______. 6028: What is the meaning of the following message? SOS WXYZ WXYZ WXYZ DE KQXY KQXY KQXY RRR SOS 6031: On a MODU, a fire drill shall be conducted once every _____. 6033: During a fire drill on a MODU, what action is required? 6035: On a MODU, watertight doors should be operated __________. 6037: When testing fire hoses on offshore drilling units, each hose must be subjected to a test pressure of at least ___________________. 6041: On offshore drilling units, the fire main system must have enough fire hydrants so that each accessible space may be sprayed with at least ___________________. 6042: Canvas sails, when not in use, may be damaged if __________. 6047: On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose which has a nominal length of ____________________. 6049: While proceeding to a distress site, you hear the words "Seelonce mayday" on the radiotelephone. Which action should you take? 6051: The connection facilities for the international shore connection required on board offshore drilling units in international service must be located to provide access ______________________. 6055: How often are fire hoses required to be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit? 6061: The international shore connection required on a MODU is designed to _________. 6065: A fire pump on a MODU requires 175 psi discharge pressure to maintain the required 50 psi pitot tube pressure at the two highest hydrants. The maximum setting for the relief valve is ___________. 6067: On offshore drilling units fitted with fixed CO2 systems, the system must discharge at least 85 percent of the required amount of CO2 within __________________. 6071: On offshore drilling units fitted with fixed CO2 systems, the system must withstand a bursting pressure of at least ________________. 6073: Before releasing the CO2 into the space, the alarm for a fixed CO2 system must sound for at least __________________. 6074: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 6075: On offshore drilling units fitted with CO2 systems, each space that contains a cylinder must be vented and designed to keep temperature in the space at not more than _________. 6076: You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that you are all right? 6077: Operation of the valve control release on a fixed CO2 system must immediately _______________________. 6083: A fixed CO2 system on a MODU with a capacity of over 300 lbs (136 kilograms) CO2 which protects spaces other than tanks must have __________________. 6084: Your drafts are: FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-03". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1. 6085: On a MODU, a fixed carbon dioxide or other approved system must be installed ________________. 6087: Portable Halon extinguishers used on MODU's may use _______. 6088: What is the meaning of the signal DX RQ when sent by the International Code of Signals? 6091: Due to the hazards involved with Halon extinguishers on a MODU, the size II extinguisher may only be used _________. 6093: On offshore drilling units where foam systems are installed on the heliport, the system must be able to discharge continuously for at least _____________. 6095: Where foam extinguishing systems are provided on a MODU, each machinery flat in the protected space must have a(n) __________________. 6101: What must be provided on a MODU helicopter deck that is equipped with fueling facilities? 6102: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5480 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 274.46 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 6105: The primary danger in helicopter fires on a MODU is _______. 6106: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. 6107: The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire on a MODU is ____________________. 6115: If a mobile offshore drilling rig has four hand portable fire extinguishers that can be recharged by personnel on the unit, how many spare charges must be carried? 6121: The inspection of portable extinguishers on a MODU must be _______. 6123: On offshore drilling units, the minimum required number of fireman's outfits which must be carried is ____________. 6124: On a vessel of 7000 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 30 ft. wide and 4 ft. deep is half filled with fuel oil (S.G. 0.962) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank? 6125: What is the minimum required number of fire axes that must be carried on a mobile offshore drilling unit? 6127: On offshore drilling units, the minimum number of persons required to be trained in the use of fireman's outfits is ___________________. 6131: How many fireman's outfits are required on a MODU? 6133: What equipment is included in the fireman's outfit? 6157: Smoking in bed on a MODU is prohibited _______________. 6175: It is the responsibility of the Master or person in charge of a MODU to ensure that __________________. 6177: Fires on a MODU must be reported to the Coast Guard if there is death, injury resulting in more than 72 hours incapacitation, or property damage in excess of __________. 6187: A fire in a ballast pumproom can be brought under control with minimal impact on stability by ____________________. 6191: Fighting a rig fire in a watertight compartment with hoses could reduce the stability of the rig by ______________. 6193: What is best suited for fighting a fire in a ballast control room? 6195: Each person on the rig has a designated area to proceed to in the event of a fire. This assignment is shown clearly on the rig's ____________. 6196: You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man should advance? 6197: Fighting a rig fire in the ballast pumproom with hoses would adversely affect the stability of the rig most by _________________________. 6201: The two courses of action if the underwater hull of a MODU is severely damaged are to plug the openings and to _____. 6213: When patching holes in the hull of a MODU, pillows, bedding, and other soft materials can be used as _______. 6225: The procedure of strengthening damaged structures on a MODU by using wood or steel is called _____________. 6233: When shoring a damaged bulkhead on a MODU, effort should be taken to spread the pressure over the _______________. 6241: The objective of shoring the damaged area of a MODU is to _______. 6245: On board a mobile offshore drilling unit, the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation is _________________. 6246: The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE? 6247: Repair of structures on a MODU in the vicinity of liquid mud handling areas presents what possible hazard? 6248: Your drafts are: FWD 26'-03", AFT 30'-08". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the location of the center of flotation relative to amidships. 6249: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of ___________. 6251: Explosive and flammable gasses are most likely to be encountered on a MODU ______________________. 6253: The Coast Guard requires machinery spaces and enclosed mud handling spaces to have _________________. 6255: Control of fire on a MODU should be addressed _____________. 6257: If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning a MODU, they should ________. 6261: When should the emergency position-indicating radiobeacon be activated after abandoning a MODU? 6265: During severe storms when survival becomes a major concern, it may become necessary to relieve high anchor tensions on the windward side of the unit by _____________________. 6271: During storm conditions on a MODU, the mooring tensions should be adjusted so that _________. 6273: During a storm, the chance of fatigue failure of a mooring line will increase as _________. 6274: You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________. 6275: During a storm, the mooring line on a MODU should be long enough so that the angle between the anchor shank and the ocean floor is __________. 6276: Your drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 18'-03". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the location of the center of flotation relative to amidships. 6277: The SS AMERICAN RANGER has drafts of: FWD 22'-03", AFT 26'-05". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 77 tons of seawater. 6291: When dragging of an anchor occurs, you must either reposition it at greater range or _________________. 6303: The most doubtful and unpredictable factor in a mooring system is the _________________. 6305: When dragging of an anchor occurs, you must back it up with a piggyback (backing) anchor or ___________________. 6306: An inflatable life raft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. What occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft? 6307: Using high working tensions in the mooring system reduces the ________________. 6308: You are underway at sea when a fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should _________________. 6313: The holding power of an anchor increases when the _________. 6387: The vertical height and density of the drilling fluid are used to determine the ______. 6393: Lost circulation can cause a kick or blowout by ___________. 6395: The term "lost circulation" refers to situations when drilling fluid is lost by ________. 6397: A well kick while drilling from a MODU will cause ________. 6401: Why must the drilled hole be filled with drilling mud when tripping the drill string out of the hole? 6402: Small passenger vessels in ocean service must carry approved ________________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 6413: While drilling ahead with 60 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER encounters lost circulation and loses 900 bbls. of 16 pounds per gallon mud to the hole. How much ballast must be taken on to maintain 60 foot draft? 6415: While drilling ahead with 60 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER encounters lost circulation and loses 460 barrels of 16 pounds per gallon mud to the hole. What is the resulting draft if no additional ballast is taken on? 6421: While drilling at 4,000 feet with casing set to 2,000 feet, the well kicks with mud weight in the hole. Mud pumps are shut down and the blowout preventer is closed. Compared to the drilling situation, the pressure on the casing seat will be _________. 6423: The most accurate method for measuring drilling mud required to fill the hole when drill stem is removed is by use of a ________________. 6425: The test for determining the formation fracture pressure after drilling out a seat is called a _______________. 6426: Your drafts are: FWD 21'-03", AFT 26'-00". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the location of the center of flotation relative to amidships. 6445: What is the function of wearing rings found on some centrifugal pumps? 6455: Most drill ships and barges have a walled opening below the derrick, open to the water's surface and through which various drilling tools can pass down to the sea floor called a ___________________. 6467: The series of valves used to control the return flow in well control operations is called the __________________. 6473: On an offshore drilling rig, the pumps which circulate drilling fluid through the drill string while drilling are called the ________. 6475: The pneumatic containers which store bulk dry mud additives and cement on a MODU are called ________________. 6481: In MODU operations, hoisting and lowering pipe in and out of the drilled hole is the main function of the ___________. 6483: In a conventional drilling system, imparting rotation to the drill string is a function of the ___________. 6485: The main function of the drawworks on a MODU is to ________. 6487: For most MODU engines, the fuel is ______________. 6491: How wide must the safety net be that is required on the unprotected perimeter of the helicopter landing deck on a MODU? 6492: The SS AMERICAN RANGER has drafts of: FWD 16'-10", AFT 19'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 73 tons of seawater. 6493: A helicopter making a round trip from a helideck with refueling capabilities to an unmanned platform will take 45 minutes each way. The helicopter should be carrying enough fuel to last _________. 6495: A small fuel spillage has occurred during helicopter refueling. After the leak has been stopped and fire-control personnel have been notified and are standing by, the next step is to _______________. 6496: In a water-tube marine type boiler, after the steam leaves the generating tubes, in what part of the boiler is temperature of the steam increased? 6497: The only type of helicopter that may be refueled with the engine running and the blades turning is ______________. 6501: At a refueling area or fuel facility, smoking or any flame or spark is prohibited ______________. 6503: If, during helicopter refueling operations, fuel is spilled on clothing, the person should first _____________. 6505: A MODU helicopter landing deck on which fueling operations are conducted must have a fire protection system that is capable of discharging at 100 psi pressure a foam spray of at least _________. 6507: Especially in adverse weather, risk of collision with an offshore supply vessel increases when the vessel is moored to what side of the unit? 6513: Consideration should be given in planning for the mooring orientation in a new location so that in adverse weather a crane is available to off-load the supply vessel on what side of the unit? 6515: While off-loading from an offshore supply vessel with the crane, the wind increases in strength and changes direction significantly, you should _________________. 6517: Prior to backloading portable tanks or drums onto an offshore supply vessel, check that each tank is _________. 6521: When cargo aboard a jackup in transit becomes adrift, the tow vessel should be asked to _____________. 6523: On the cargo manifest, the total weight of a box containing cargo is the ___________________. 6525: On the cargo manifest, the total weight of an empty cargo box is the ___________________. 6527: On the cargo manifest, the gross weight of a box containing cargo is the weight of the _______________. 6531: On the cargo manifest, the weight of the cargo inside a box is called the __________. 6533: When loading or discharging dry mud or cement, crew members should use facial respirator masks and ____________. 6537: When pumping fuel between an offshore supply vessel (OSV) and a MODU, there must be direct VHF radio contact between the offshore supply vessel engineer and the ____________. 6543: Corrosive liquids and acids should have what kind of label? 6545: Flammable liquids should have what kind of label? 6547: Nonflammable gases should have what kind of label? 6551: When referring to quantity of barite in a P-tank, ullage is the ___________________. 6553: While taking on fuel oil from an offshore supply vessel, the transfer hose leaks, causing a sheen in the water. You should _______. 6555: The chemicals in sacks aboard MODU's are palletized to reduce _______. 6563: When loading or discharging dry mud or cement, crew members should use goggles and ________________. 6567: On offshore drilling units, the number of industrial personnel permitted to be on board during drilling operations is found on the ___________. 6571: To determine the number of portable fire extinguishers required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the _______________. 6573: To determine the number of industrial personnel allowed on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the _________________. 6575: To determine the number of inflatable life rafts required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________________. 6577: According to the regulations for mobile offshore drilling units, "industrial personnel" are considered to be all persons carried on the MODU for the sole purpose of carrying out the industrial business of the unit, except for _______. 6580: The brickwork surrounding the firebox of a boiler is known as __________. 6581: If a fixed foam firefighting system on a MODU is not of the premix type, a sample of the foam liquid must be tested by ________________. 6583: When weight-testing a davit-launched life raft on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the test weight must be equivalent to the weight of the raft, its required equipment, and _______________. 6585: When weight-testing a davit launched life raft on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the deadweight equivalent for each person in the allowed capacity of the raft is ___________. 6593: What organization is approved by the Coast Guard for certifying cranes on mobile offshore drilling units? 6594: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2500 brake horsepower? 6595: How often must a rated load test be performed on a crane on a MODU? 6603: A weathertight door on a MODU must not allow water to penetrate into the unit in ___________. 6604: Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by ___________. 6605: All fire hoses on mobile offshore drilling units must be tested to a pressure of at least __________. 6607: To determine the number of Able Seamen required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the ____________. 6611: Any firefighting equipment that is carried in addition to the minimum required number on a MODU must _____________. 6613: What class of bulkhead is required around the galley on a MODU? 6615: Where are self-closing doors required on a MODU? 6617: On offshore drilling units, sleeping spaces for the regular personnel employed on board may not berth more than _______. 6618: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6048 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 270.71 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 6619: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6450 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 270.89 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 6621: Locations on a MODU where flammable hydrocarbon gas or vapors may accumulate due to drilling operations are defined as ________________. 6623: Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter refueling must have a _________________. 6624: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is ___________, 6625: Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter refueling must meet the standards of the __________. 6626: Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 24'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water. 6627: A cutoff valve in the fire-main system of a MODU may be closed to protect the portion of the system on an exposed deck from ____________. 6631: All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being _______. 6633: For a MODU not on an international voyage, an approved substitute for an impulse projected rocket-type line throwing appliance is a _______. 6635: What is the minimum required number of ring life buoys on a MODU? 6637: Of the required ring life buoys for a MODU, how many must be equipped with a water light? 6641: On a MODU, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached? 6643: How many adult life jackets are required on board a MODU? 6645: Offshore drilling units that are on an international voyage must have a portable radio apparatus that meets the requirements of the __________. 6646: Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by ___________________. 6647: For means of abandonment of a MODU, which type of embarkation does not require prior approval by the Coast Guard? 6651: The factor of safety, based on the elastic limit of the material, for the forks used on power operated industrial trucks aboard a MODU must be at least _______. 6653: Diesel powered industrial trucks on a MODU that are provided with safeguards to the exhaust, fuel, and electrical systems are designated _______. 6655: Power operated cranes used on a MODU must not be powered by _______. 6657: The design specifications for cranes and crane foundations on MODU's are set and published by the _______. 6660: Your drafts are: FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-02". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water. 6661: On a self-elevating drilling unit, draft marks must be located _____. 6663: A branch line valve of a fire extinguishing system on a MODU must be marked with the __________. 6665: On a MODU, a cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system must be ________. 6667: On a MODU, the locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must _________. 6671: Each hand portable fire extinguisher on a MODU must be marked with ________. 6673: Each emergency light on a MODU must be marked with _____. 6675: According to the MODU regulations, the capacity of a life raft is required to be marked __________. 6677: The instructions for launching lifeboats and life rafts on a MODU must be approved by the ________. 6681: On a MODU, a door that is required to be marked "KEEP CLOSED" is designed to _______. 6683: How must each storage tank for helicopter fuel on a MODU be marked? 6684: The SS AMERICAN RANGER has drafts of: FWD 19'-04", AFT 21'-02". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 68 tons of seawater. 6685: On a MODU, when may a work vest be substituted for a required life preserver? 6686: Your drafts are: FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-02". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in salt water. 6687: A MODU must have a self-contained breathing apparatus to be used as protection from gas leaking from a refrigeration unit. To meet this requirement, you may use _______. 6693: The litter on a MODU must be able to ________. 6695: Each buoyant work vest on a MODU must be ________. 6697: For use as protection from gas leaking from a refrigeration unit, each MODU must be equipped with a ________. 6703: The person-in-charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must be designated by the _______. 6705: The immersion suit requirements for MODU's apply to units operating in the Atlantic Ocean above __________. 6707: The immersion suit requirements apply to MODU's operating in all waters above ___________. 6711: Immersion suits must be stowed _______________________. 6713: The light on a life jacket on a MODU must be replaced _______. 6715: The person in charge shall insure that each lifeboat on a MODU is lowered to the water, launched, and operated at least once every _______. 6721: Each hand portable, semi-portable and fixed fire extinguishing unit on a MODU must be tested and inspected at least once every _______. 6724: In a water tube marine boiler, what protects the superheater tubes from the fires of combustion? 6725: The person responsible for maintaining clean and sanitary conditions in the accommodation spaces of a MODU is the _______. 6731: During the required periodic abandon ship drill aboard a MODU, each person not assigned duties in the muster list is _______. 6733: The person in charge of a MODU shall insure that the fuel tank of each motor propelled lifeboat is emptied, and the fuel is changed at least once every _______. 6735: On a MODU, each EPIRB or SART must be tested at least once _______. 6737: Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every _______. 6741: On offshore drilling units operating in U.S. waters, the service life of rockets for impulse-projected rocket-type equipment is limited to a period of how many months after the date of manufacture? 6742: Low-velocity fog is produced by _______________. 6743: The required fireman's outfits required for MODU's are not to be used for any other purpose EXCEPT for the _______. 6745: Fire axes required on MODU's must be stored in the enclosure for fire hoses with the location marked "________". 6747: How many people on board a MODU must be trained in the use of the fireman's outfit? 6753: If not attached to the nozzle, each low-velocity spray applicator on a MODU must be stowed _______. 6755: Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a MODU must be stowed ________. 6757: In addition to the life jackets stowed at each berth location, life jackets must be stowed at each watch station and _______. 6761: Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or, from the date of manufacture, not later than _______. 6765: A qualified person must be assigned as the second in command of a lifeboat on a MODU if the lifeboat has a capacity of more than ________. 6767: A life preserver or buoyant work vest is required to be worn on a MODU when a person is _________. 6772: Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in salt water. 6773: Chain suspension ladders on a MODU must be replaced by fixed ladders if the required chain suspension ladder _______. 6777: Each life jacket on a MODU that has a non-replaceable power source must be replaced ______. 6781: The Master or person in charge of a MODU shall insure that each deck from which lifeboats are launched is _______. 6785: Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be stowed in a manner which will permit _______. 6786: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine to indicate an emergency is _____________. 6791: At the required fire drill conducted aboard a MODU, all persons must report to their stations and demonstrate their ability to perform the duties assigned to them _______. 6792: All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being ______. 6793: The person on a MODU who is responsible for maintaining the engineering spaces in a clean and sanitary condition is the __________. 6795: Mobile offshore drilling units not required to have an official logbook shall ___________. 6797: Where must you record the date of each emergency training drill conducted on a MODU? 6801: Where must the 0mster or person in charge of a MODU record the date of each test of emergency lighting and power systems and the condition and performance of the equipment? 6805: The record of tests and inspection of fire fighting equipment on board a MODU must include _______. 6806: A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind _________________. 6807: The Master or person in charge of a MODU shall ensure the crane record book shows _______. 6811: A mobile offshore drilling unit crane certificate is required to be maintained _______. 6813: The Master or person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit shall ensure the crane record book shows _______. 6817: How long must the records of tests and inspections of fire fighting equipment on board a MODU be retained on board? 6821: How long shall the Master or person in charge of a MODU maintaining an unofficial logbook retain this logbook on board? 6823: The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to log _______. 6825: The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to log _______. 6827: What must be entered in the unofficial logbook by the Master or person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit after conducting a fire drill? 6831: After conducting an abandonment drill, the Master or person in charge of a MODU shall log _________________. 6833: If a drill required by regulations is not completed on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the Master or person in charge must ______. 6837: With regard to accommodation spaces on board mobile offshore drilling units, what must the Master or person in charge log? 6838: What is an advantage of a steam turbine over a diesel for the main propulsion? 6841: What must the Master or person in charge of a MODU enter in the logbook after conducting an abandonment drill? 6843: With regard to the opening and closing of watertight integrity appliances not fitted with a remote operating control or alarm system, what must the Master or person in charge of a MODU enter in the logbook? 6845: After conducting a boat drill on a mobile offshore drilling unit, what must the Master or person in charge enter in the in the logbook? 6847: What must the Master or person in charge of a MODU enter in the logbook after conducting a boat drill? 6853: Regulations require that line throwing equipment on mobile offshore drilling units be tested at regular intervals. What entry should be made in the logbook? 6855: The Master or person in charge of a MODU shall ensure the crane record book shows the _______. 6856: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by ___________. 6857: Prior to getting underway, the Master or person in charge of a MODU must _______. 6858: A hydraulic accumulator is designed to _______________. 6861: Prior to getting underway in fresh or brackish water, the Master or person in charge of a MODU must _______. 6863: When are fore and aft draft readings required to be entered in the unofficial logbook of a MODU? 6867: When must the Master or person in charge of a MODU log the position of load line marks in relation to the surface of the water in the logbook? 6871: Lifeboat winches on mobile offshore drilling units are required to be inspected and an entry made in the logbook. How often should this entry be made? 6895: Who is responsible for reporting a casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit? 6897: Who shall insure that all records required by regulations are retained on board a mobile offshore drilling unit involved in a casualty? 6901: In the event of a casualty to a MODU, who is responsible to make records available to the Coast Guard official authorized to investigate the casualty? 6903: The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a casualty report of an intentional grounding under what condition? 6905: The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a casualty report of an intentional grounding when it _______. 6907: On offshore drilling units, notification shall be given to the Coast Guard of a casualty if a person is injured and unable to perform routine duties for ______________________. 6908: Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it is usually off-center and _____________________. 6911: According to regulations, a Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a report of a loss of life _____. 6913: According to regulations, a Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a report of a loss of life _____. 6915: When a MODU is involved in a casualty, the cost of property damage includes _______. 6917: Injuries resulting in loss of life or incapacitation, aboard vessels, must be reported to the _________________. 6921: The notice of casualty to a MODU must include _______. 6925: After a report of casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit, what record must be kept on board? 6927: Records which must be retained on board after report of casualty to a MODU include the _______. 6931: A report of casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit must include _______. 6933: Under the regulations for mobile offshore drilling units, you must submit a casualty report for which occurrence? 6936: Where must a Class A EPIRB be stowed? 6937: A casualty report of an intentional grounding of a MODU is required under what condition? 6941: On offshore drilling units, any reports of a casualty that are made are required to be retained on board for a period of at least _________. 6943: A written report of casualty to a MODU shall be made _____. 6945: Which record must be retained on board after a report of casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit? 6946: Your drafts are: FWD 20'-08, AFT 25'-03". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1. 6947: Which record must be retained on board after a report of casualty to a MODU? 6953: After reporting a casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit, which record must be retained on board? 6955: Regulations require certain records to be retained on board a MODU for how long after the report of a casualty? 6957: Regulations require certain records to be retained on board for at least 3 months after a MODU is involved in a casualty or until advised that they are no longer needed on board by the _______. 6961: A report of casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit must be made in writing to which office? 6965: In the case of a casualty involving a MODU, the Master, owner, agent or person in charge shall make the records required by regulation available upon request to _______. 6967: A MODU must report a collision with an aid to navigation maintained by the Coast Guard to which office? 6981: The emergency power system for the DEEP DRILLER should be placed in operation when the weather forecast predicts winds greater than 90 knots and when __________________. 6985: The COASTAL DRILLER, while operating with minimal wave clearance, is inclined 0.5 degrees bow down. Lowering the stern may place the hull in the wave action. The recommended course of action is to __________. 6987: Severe airway burns can cause _____________________. 6991: The FIRST treatment of a person suspected of having airway burns is to __________________________. 7003: When treating a chemical burn, you should flood the burned area for at least ________________________. 7005: Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with _______. 7006: What is NOT a function of the steam drum of a marine water-tube boiler? 7007: What precaution should be taken when treating burns caused by contact with dry lime? 7021: The symptoms of heat exhaustion are _____. 7023: Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive _______________. 7025: A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should be___ _____. 7027: To treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you should _____________. 7031: Symptoms of sugar diabetes include __________________. 7032: Overspeed of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause _______________. 7033: A person with diabetes has been injured. The symptoms of the onset of a diabetic coma include __________. 7035: If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is conscious, he should be given ______________________. 7037: Epilepsy is a chronic nervous disorder characterized by ______________. 7041: A crew member is having an epileptic convulsion. You should ____________. 7043: While providing assistance to a victim of an epileptic seizure, it is most important to _______________________. 7046: A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind ___________________. 7047: What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix? 7051: When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the primary action is to _____. 7052: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 4850 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 274.46 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. 7053: When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the pain should be relieved by __________________________. 7055: Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in the _________________. 7056: Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water. 7057: Symptoms of sea sickness include ________________. 7058: Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________. 7061: The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is _______________. 7062: You are aboard a life raft in a storm. What should you do with your Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon? 7063: The symptoms of a fractured back are ______________________. 7065: What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient? 7066: What does blowing tubes accomplish? 7067: An effective method for lifting and carrying patients with spinal injuries is known as the ______________________. 7068: Deballasting a double bottom has what affect on KG? 7071: The sorting of accident victims according to the severity of their injuries is called _______________________. 7072: The SS AMERICAN RANGER has drafts of: FWD 15'-06", AFT 18'-06". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 62 tons of seawater. 7073: Where there are multiple accident victims, which condition should be the first to receive emergency treatment? 7075: Where there are multiple accident victims, which injuries should be the FIRST to receive emergency treatment? 7077: Where there are multiple accident victims, which type of injury should be the first to receive emergency treatment? 7081: In managing a situation involving multiple injuries, the rescuer must be able to __________________. 7083: What can be determined about an injury from examining the condition of a victim's pupils? 7093: Normal mouth temperature is ________________. 7096: Convection spreads a fire by _______________. 7097: What is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim? 7105: Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gas as a percentage of the ___________. 7113: Fire extinguishers used on MODU's are numbered by size I through V, with I being _______________. 7121: CO2 cylinders equipped with pressure actuated discharge heads will discharge automatically when _______. 7127: Spaces protected by a fixed CO2 system must be equipped with an alarm which sounds _______. 7131: A safety outlet is provided on the CO2 discharge piping to prevent _______. 7135: What is the best instrument for establishing a safe working area before welding in a confined space? 7143: Actuating the CO2 fixed system causes the shutdown of the _______. 7147: What should you do if you have transmitted a distress call a number of times on channel 16 and have received no reply? 7305: If you use obscene, indecent, or profane language over the radiotelephone, you can be _____________. 7307: All VHF marine band radios operate in the simplex mode, which means that ______________________________. 7311: What is the calling and distress frequency on a single side band (SSB) marine radiotelephone? 7313: What is the MOST important thing you should do before transmitting on a marine radio? 7317: When sending and receiving messages on the marine radio, confusion over unusual words can be avoided by using the __________________________. 7318: A cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system must be _________________. 7321: The reception of weak radio signals may be improved by "opening up" the squelch control. What is the normal setting of the squelch control? 7323: Whenever your marine radio is on, FCC Rules require you to monitor _______. 7325: One method of reducing the length of radio transmissions without distorting the meaning of your words is by using ______________. 7331: Routine radio communications should be no more than _______. 7333: You have just tried calling another vessel on the VHF and they have not replied. How long should you wait before calling that station again? 7335: When making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what level of transmitting power should you use? 7337: If you log a distress message, it must include the ________. 7341: If you know that the vessel you are about to call on the VHF radio maintains a radio watch on both the working and the calling frequencies, which frequency should you call on? 7343: What is maximum power allowed by the FCC for VHF-FM radio transmissions? 7345: What is the average range of vessel-to-vessel VHF-FM radio communications? 7351: The range of a SSB transmission is MOST affected by _______. 7353: The height of a VHF radio antenna is more important than the power output wattage of the radio because __________. 7355: When do you use your FCC call sign? 7365: What is the minimum required GMT for the DEEP DRILLER in winds less than 70 knots while at a draft of 60 feet? 7367: Among the possible causes of unexpected rapidly increasing inclination of the DEEP DRILLER while on location is ______. 7371: The condition where a MODU on the end of a tow line is riding a wave crest at the same time as its tug rides a wave crest is known as riding in ________________________. 7373: When a semisubmersible rig under tow experiences pounding on the forward transverse brace, the surest way to alleviate the condition would be to ____________________________. 7375: When a semisubmersible rig under tow veers from side to side on its tow line, the best way of controlling the action is to ________. 7377: A semisubmersible rig under tow should be ballasted down if _______. 7381: One way to increase the period of roll on a semisubmersible rig while under tow is to _____________________________. 7385: To assure safe boarding and launching of a davit-launched life raft from a MODU, preparation should include ________. 7387: Prior to boarding from a MODU, a davit-launched life raft should be well ventilated of excess ______________. 7388: All marine low-speed diesels are of what design? 7391: Personnel boarding a davit-launched life raft from a MODU should be checked to assure they are not in possession of or wearing _____. 7393: When a davit-launched raft is lowered from a MODU, upon becoming waterborne, the raft is released by _________. 7395: In evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival craft or life raft should enter the water on the leeward side, except when __________________. 7397: In evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival craft or life raft should enter the water on the leeward side, except when ____________. 7401: In evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival craft or life raft should enter the water on the leeward side, except when _________________. 7403: If you must jump from a MODU, your posture should include _______________. 7405: VHF Channel 6 is used exclusively for what kind of communications? 7407: Which VHF channel should you avoid using as a working channel? 7411: What is the spoken emergency signal for a distress signal over a VHF radio? 7412: In the event of a fire, the doors to a stairtower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by _______________. 7413: Which spoken emergency signal would you use to call a boat to come assist a man overboard? 7415: What is the spoken emergency signal for a "man overboard" on the VHF radio? 7417: You receive a call from the U.S. Coast Guard addressed to all stations. The call begins with the words "Pan-Pan" (3 times). Which type of emergency signal would this be? 7421: After receiving your distress call, the U.S.C.G. will ask you to switch to which SSB frequency? 7423: On which frequencies do Class A EPIRB's operate? 7427: What is the expected range of a VHF radio transmission from a vessel to a shore station? 7431: What time of day would an SSB radio have the longest transmitting range? 7575: The upward pressure of displaced water is called __________. 7577: The value of the maximum righting arm depends on the position of the center of buoyancy and the ________________. 7578: When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, the other individuals in the boat should ________. 7581: For a given displacement, the righting arm has its maximum value when ________________. 7583: Stability is determined by the relationship of the center of gravity and the _____________________. 7587: The geometric center of the underwater volume is known as the ______. 7591: Stability is determined principally by the location of the center of gravity and the ______________. 7593: The horizontal distance between the vertical lines of action of gravity and the buoyant forces is called the ________. 7595: For a vessel inclined by the wind, multiplying the buoyant force by the horizontal distance between the lines of action of the buoyant and gravity forces gives the _________. 7597: In small angle stability theory, the metacenter is located at the intersection of the inclined vertical centerline and a vertical line through _________. 7601: At all angles of inclination, the true measure of a vessel's stability is the _________. 7603: Initial stability refers to stability ________. 7605: For small angles of inclination, if the KG were equal to the KM, then the vessel would have _______. 7607: The difference between the height of the metacenter and the metacentric height is known as _______. 7613: GM cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination because ___________. 7617: When a MODU is inclined at a small angle, the center of buoyancy will _________. 7621: Which statement is TRUE about metacentric height? 7623: The weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water is equal to the ________. 7625: The original equilibrium position is always unstable when _______. 7631: At an angle of loll, the capsizing moment is _________. 7635: At an angle of loll, the righting arm (GZ) is _______. 7637: When a floating MODU inclines to an angle slightly less than the angle of loll, she will __________. 7641: In small-angle stability, when external forces exist, the buoyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards through the center of buoyancy and through the _______. 7643: When a vessel is floating upright, the distance from the keel to the metacenter is called the _________. 7645: What abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy? 7647: The abbreviation GM is used to represent the _______. 7648: Buoyant apparatus are required to be fitted or equipped with all of thefollowing equipment EXCEPT ______________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 7651: When positive stability exists, GZ represents the _______. 7655: In small angle stability, the metacentric height _______. 7657: The righting moment can be determined by multiplying the displacement by the _____________________. 7663: Subtracting KGT from KMT yields ___________. 7665: Subtracting KGL from KML yields __________. 7667: Subtracting GMT from KMT yields ___________. 7675: To calculate the free surface correction, it is necessary to divide the free-surface moments by the __________________. 7677: Reducing free surfaces has the effect of lowering the _____. 7681: The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the _________. 7682: One major disadvantage of a low-speed diesel as compared to a steam main-propulsion system is ________________. 7683: Increasing free surfaces has the effect of raising the _______. 7685: The free surface corrections depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the _________. 7687: When displacement increases, the free surface moments of slack tanks ____________. 7693: Increasing the number of slack liquid tanks has the effect of raising the ______________. 7695: Adding the FSCL to KG yields ______________. 7697: The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called ________________________. 7701: After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will _______. 7703: The average of the forward and after drafts is the ________. 7713: Your vessel is listing because of a negative GM. To lower G below M, you should _______________. 7725: Reserve buoyancy is the _________. 7727: When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy __________. 7737: The geometric center of the waterplane area is called the _______. 7747: In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the _________. 7785: The result of multiplying a weight by a distance is a _____. 7786: The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a class A fire to _______________. 7787: A moment is obtained by multiplying a force by its _______. 7805: A tank with internal dimensions of 40 feet X 20 feet X 12 feet is pressed with fuel oil weighing 54 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in short tons, of the liquid? 7841: In a combination chain and wire rope mooring system, the anchor chain is deployed at the anchor end of the line to __________. 7843: After putting on a self-contained breathing apparatus, you open the air supply and hear a continuous ringing of a bell. What does this mean? 7845: When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing device is opened, the air flows __________. 7847: When the mainline valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is open, the bypass valve should be ___________. 7951: What is the chief advantage of an SCR or AC-DC system over a straight DC system for powering drilling rig machinery? 7977: Overspeed of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause _______________. 8015: In case of damage to the DEEP DRILLER on location, the immediate objective is to reduce the unexpected inclination and return the unit to __________________. 8035: When the wave period and the apparent rolling period of the MODU are the same _______. 8036: Radiation spreads a fire by _____________. 8045: At an angle of loll, the righting moment is ________. 8047: An "on-load" release system on a survival craft means the cable can be released _________________. 8051: The "off-load" release system on a survival craft is designed to be activated _______________. 8053: At a speed of 6 knots the fuel aboard a survival craft should last ________________. 8054: A thrust block is designed to ____________. 8055: When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the _______________. 8061: When drilling from a MODU the weight in air of tubular goods on the racks is reduced when run into the drilled hole because of the effect of ____________________. 8063: Cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguishers used on MODU's should have the propellant cartridge weighed every _______. 8071: It is proposed to moor the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet of water in a region in which the effective wind velocity could reach 80 knots, significant wave height could reach 30 feet, and the current could be 1.5 knots. If these conditions occurred at the same time from the beam, the total environmental force would be ______________. 8073: A person who holds a foreign license can serve as the ballast control operator to meet manning requirements on a MODU on waters outside U.S. jurisdiction until the _________. 8075: A semisubmersible is more likely to experience structural stresses during heavy weather when ______________. 8077: Progressive flooding on a MODU is controlled by securing watertight boundaries and _____________. 8081: What additional precautions should be taken when making temporary repairs to a MODU that is operating when hydrogen sulfide is present? 8091: When preparing a MODU for heavy weather, fuel oil day tanks should be __________________. 8093: What is the displacement of the DEEP DRILLER with a draft of 19.5 feet in fresh water? 8103: The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 200 feet of water, has two knots of current and 70 knot winds. With a maximum leg reaction of 5,840 kips, the maximum wave height for drilling is _________________. 8105: What is the port leg reaction for the COASTAL DRILLER if the total weight is 15,000 kips, LCG is 120 feet, and TCG is 1.0? 8107: What is the minimum required GML for the DEEP DRILLER in winds less than 70 knots while at a draft of 60 feet? 8115: When two ballast pumps used for deballasting a single tank start cavitating, you should ______. 8117: While in transit, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the port pump room. Both port bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the bilge pumps by using the ______. 8118: Most medium and slow speed diesels are started by what medium? 8121: While at operating draft, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the port pump room. Both port bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the bilge pumps with the ________. 8123: To effectively use the crossover system on the DEEP DRILLER to pump from the low side using a high side ballast pump, transverse inclinations should not exceed _____. 8125: While in transit, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the starboard pump room. Both starboard bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the performance of the bilge pumps by using the ________. 8127: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new height of the transverse metacenter? 8131: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal moments for the liquid variables if the entire contents of drill water tank #17 are transferred to drill water tank 8147: The DEEP DRILLER has a KGL of 53.16 feet while at a draft of 58.0 feet. Although there are no environmental forces, trim is 2.0 feet by the stern. What is the value of LCG? 8151: Laying down drill pipe from the derrick of a semisubmersible on location reduces the _______. 8153: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet and a total vertical moment of 1,012,598 foot-tons, pumps 2,068.7 long tons of ballast overboard. The VCG of the discharged ballast is 15.0 feet. What is the new height of the center of gravity? 8155: The moment created by a force of 12,000 tons and a moment arm of 0.25 foot is _________. 8156: Category 1 EPIRBs are required to be carried on board ________. 8157: A moment of 300 ft-tons is created by a force of 15,000 tons. What is the moment arm? 8161: A semisubmersible, displacing 20,500 long tons, has vertical moments of 1,060,000 foot-long tons. What is the change in KG if 500 long tons are discharged from a VCG of 120 feet? 8163: The ship's drawings for use when the DEEP DRILLER is damaged are available in the _____________. 8165: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank 1S. Your best countermeasure is to _____. 8167: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank 10S. Your best countermeasure is to ____. 8171: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the damage have proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to _________. 8173: When elevating the COASTAL DRILLER in 100 feet of water, the unit should be placed at an air gap of ______. 8175: When elevating the COASTAL DRILLER in 150 feet of water, the unit should be placed at an air gap of ______. 8177: When elevating the COASTAL DRILLER in 200 feet of water, the unit should be placed at an air gap of ______. 8181: When the COASTAL DRILLER is afloat, the water for the saltwater eductor system is provided by _______________. 8183: When extracting the legs from the soil, the hull of the COASTAL DRILLER may be pulled down until the draft is _____. 8184: What is an advantage of diesel over steam turbine propulsion? 8185: When the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, the water for the saltwater eductor system is provided by ______________. 8186: Your drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 20'-08". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1. 8187: The maximum variable load for the COASTAL DRILLER while elevated in a severe storm is ____________________. 8191: During a severe storm while the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, on board loads must be shifted so that the TCG is on the centerline and the LCG is ________________. 8193: In a severe storm while elevated, the drilling loads on the COASTAL DRILLER must be considered as ___________. 8195: The COASTAL DRILLER, while in transit, expects the winds to increase to 75 knots. In order to meet the stability and leg strength requirements, the tip-of-can (TOC) position should be at ________. 8197: If a severe storm threatens the COASTAL DRILLER while elevated as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), the variable loads would have to be reduced by _____________. 8198: On a vessel of 6500 tons displacement, a tank 30 ft. long, 32 ft. wide and 15 ft. deep is half filled with oil cargo (S.G. 0.948) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank? 8201: While on an ocean tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a severe storm. Including the time required to place the generators on-line, the approximate time required to lower the legs from a TOC (tip-of-can) position of 12.38 feet to 60.5 feet is _____. 8203: While on a normal tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a severe storm. Including the time required to place the generators on-line, the approximate time required to lower the legs from a TOC (tip-of-can) position of 1.20 feet to 60.50 feet is _____. 8205: While on an ocean tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a severe storm. The legs should be lowered so that the TOC (tip-of-can) is lowered from 12.38 feet to _________. 8207: While on a normal tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a severe storm. The legs should be lowered so that the TOC (tip-of-can) is lowered from 1.20 feet to _______. 8211: When preloading the COASTAL DRILLER, the minimum total weight shall not be less than ______. 8213: What fitting should you install in the rig piping to a pump to facilitate disconnecting the pump for servicing? 8215: In the piping systems of a MODU, what type of valve gives the least resistance to fluid flow when fully open? 8217: What is the purpose of a striker plate? 8221: What is the purpose of a vent header? 8222: Which will improve stability? 8223: What is the purpose of a check valve? 8225: On what type of pump would you find an impeller? 8235: What is the proper direction of flow through a globe valve when the valve is installed to be in a normally open position? 8257: When taking soundings on a floating MODU, the tape should be lowered and brought back quickly to __________. 8261: When taking soundings on a MODU, coating the tape with chalk helps to ___________________. 8263: When removing the cap from a sounding tube on a MODU, the sound of air escaping indicates the tank _________________. 8275: In a wire rope mooring system, the fairlead sheave should be a minimum of __________________. 8277: An effective braking system for windlasses on rigs in deep water is a(n) __________________. 8281: In storm conditions, when the DEEP DRILLER is in 600 feet water depth, and the high-line tension (HLT) is 350 kips, completely slacking the two leeward mooring line tensions reduces the HLT to _____. 8283: When the alarm bell sounds on a self-contained, demand-type breathing device, how long will reserve air supply last? 8285: The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing device should be opened if _________. 8287: Automatic mechanical ventilation shutdown is required for CO2 systems protecting the __________. 8288: What is NOT used as a stern tube bearing, on a large vessel? 8293: Failure of both port-side ballast pumps on the DEEP DRILLER prevents their use. To dewater from the port forward tanks, you should use the _________. 8295: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the port pump room. If both port bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you should use the _________. 8297: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the starboard pump room. If both starboard bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you should use the __________. 8303: On a MODU, if there is a probability of encountering H2S during the drilling of a well, air movers (bug blowers) should be installed to dilute concentration of H2S at the _____________________. 8305: Since accumulations of H2S gas on a MODU can be dangerous to personnel, it is important to know that H2S gas is __________. 8307: The sense of smell cannot be depended upon to detect H2S because ______________________. 8311: High concentrations of H2S gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can ________________. 8313: The worst atmospheric condition for dispersion of H2S is ______. 8315: The airborne concentrations of substances (such as H2S) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called ______________. 8317: The minimum concentration of H2S which can cause death if a person is exposed for even an instant is ____________. 8321: The maximum concentration of H2S to which workers may be regularly exposed without adverse effects is _________. 8323: The Lethal Concentration of H2S that will cause death with short-term exposure is a minimum of ________. 8325: If H2S exposure is anticipated, fixed monitoring devices aboard a MODU should have a low level concentration alarm to alert personnel when H2S concentrations first reach a maximum of ________. 8327: When H2S has been encountered on a MODU, or is anticipated, monitoring devices must sound an alarm (which differs from the lower concentration alarm) or otherwise warn employees when concentration of H2S reaches or exceeds how many parts per million? 8331: When H2S is burned (flared) on a MODU, what can you expect to occur? 8332: What type of stern tube bearing has the least friction? 8333: Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to H2S can tolerate _______________. 8335: Requirements for H2S preparation and equipment usage aboard MODU's in U.S. offshore waters are administered by the _________. 8337: What is the percentage of oxygen in a typical sample of uncontaminated air? 8341: Clean air standards referred to as "Grade D" apply to compressed air for use in ____________________. 8342: Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________. 8343: The probability of sulfide stress cracking in the presence of hydrogen sulfide is greatest for ________. 8345: For H2S detection, sensitized tapes indicate H2S presence by means of discoloration of an exposed spot on the tape. The shade of the color on the spot depends upon the concentration of H2S and ____________. 8347: All diesel engines are classified as ___________________. 8351: What is a pinion in a jacking system? 8353: What power source actuates a solenoid valve? 8355: What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient combustion? 8357: What is the principle behind dynamic braking as used on an anchor windlass? 8361: What is the effect of heated intake air on a diesel engine? 8363: Lubricating oil should be changed on a heavy duty diesel engine when ______________________________. 8364: Survival craft EPIRBs (Class S) are _________________. 8365: How should you warm up a diesel engine that has not been run for some time? 8367: How would the exhaust of a properly operating diesel engine appear? 8371: Each cylinder in a two stroke cycle engine experiences combustion _________________. 8373: How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two-cycle diesel engine? 8375: Maintaining the close tolerances in diesel fuel pumps and injectors requires the use of ________. 8377: What factor is essential to the proper operation of a radiator cooled engine? 8381: What are the three basic types of engine starters? 8383: What does a pyrometer measure on a diesel engine? 8384: A moment of 300 ft-tons is created by a force of 15,000 tons. What is the moment arm? 8385: What condition will result in the automatic shutdown of a diesel engine? 8387: On a MODU, the possibility of a blowout makes which type of diesel engine shutdown desirable? 8391: What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel engine? 8392: You are preparing for what promises to be a rough ocean passage. Your 120-foot schooner carries a yard on the foremast about 50 feet above the water. The yard weighs about 1000 pounds. If you take the yard down and stow it on deck for the trip, you will ___________________________. 8393: Diesel engines obtain combustion air through turbo chargers, blowers, or _____________________. 8395: What is the purpose of the intake/exhaust valves in a diesel engine? 8397: What is the best indication of the loading of a diesel engine? 8403: What is the most probable cause of reduced capacity in a reciprocating air compressor? 8405: The most serious effect of oxygen retained in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it ____________. 8407: If you are unable to stop a diesel engine by any other means, you should ___________________. 8411: What is one effect of running a diesel engine at too cool a temperature? 8412: When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height, you should _______________. 8413: What would white exhaust smoke from a diesel engine probably mean? 8415: The three conditions which cause engine shutdown are overspeed, low lube oil pressure, and _____________________. 8417: Sudden unloading of a diesel engine can cause _____________. 8421: If an engine shuts down due to high jacket water temperature, what action should be taken? 8431: The International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate required by MARPOL is issued to U.S. flag MODUs by the ________. 8433: The International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate on a MODU is valid for a period of ______. 8435: A MODU which is required to carry an Oil Record Book must log in the book _________. 8437: A MODU required to carry an Oil Record Book must maintain the book on board for ____________. 8440: Addition of weight above the center of gravity of a vessel will ALWAYS _____. 8441: The regulations regarding Oil Record Books do not apply to MODU's that ________. 8443: The requirement to carry an Oil Record Book does not apply to a MODU that ______________. 8445: Under the regulations implementing MARPOL, a mobile offshore drilling unit is required to have an International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate when the unit _____. 8447: Where is thicker plating usually found in the construction of integral tanks on a MODU? 8477: You are on a semisubmersible being towed and are concerned that a fishing vessel is not taking sufficient action to avoid you. To signal your concern, you should ______. 8481: A jackup 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AF0 has a true mean draft (draft at LCF) of 10 feet. If the trim is 3 feet by the stern, what is the draft at the stern? 8483: A jackup 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a true mean draft (draft at LCF) of 10 feet. If the trim is 3 feet by the stern, what is the draft at the stern? 8485: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGL of 55.4 feet and an LCG of 2.43 feet. What is the trim angle? 8487: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 19 feet, has a KGL of 59.91 feet and an LCG of 1.57 feet. What is the trim angle? 8491: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 50 feet, has a KGT of 52.12 feet and TCG of 0.5 foot to port of the longitudinal centerline. What is the list in feet? 8493: What is the value of KML for the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet? 8505: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the improvement in KGL? 8506: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2300 brake horsepower? 8511: An elevated jackup weighs 17,000 kips. Its center of gravity is located 110 feet aft of frame zero (AF0). What would be the new LCG if the cantilever (weight 900 kips) and drill floor (weight 800 kips) were skidded 70 feet aft? 8513: An elevated jackup weighs 14,000 kips. Its TCG is located 1.0 foot to port of the centerline. What would be the new TCG for the jackup if the drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is skidded 10 feet to starboard? 8515: While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL DRILLER is 14,150 kips, LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The starboard leg reaction is __________. 8517: While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL DRILLER is 14,150 kips. LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The port leg reaction is _________. 8521: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,435 kips. The LM are 1,975,680 ft-kips and the TM are -15,435 ft-kips. What is the bow leg reaction? 8523: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling has a total weight of 15,435 kips. The LM are 1,975,680 ft-kips and the TM are -15,435 ft-kips. What is the starboard leg reaction? 8527: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,435 kips. The LM are 1,975,680 ft-kips and the TM are -15,435 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction? 8533: If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations on a MODU, what action should you take FIRST? 8535: You are transferring fuel from a supply vessel to your MODU. If you close off one tank in the line of tanks being filled, the rate of flow to other open tanks on the same line will _________. 8537: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while in transit is 7 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 7². From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is _______. 8541: The process of waiting a period of time before pretensioning an anchor is known as ______________________. 8543: It is proposed to moor the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet of water in a region in which the effective wind velocity could reach 80 knots, significant wave height could reach 30 feet, and the current could be 1.5 knots. If these conditions occurred at the same time from the bow, the environmental force due to the wind would be __________________. 8545: It is proposed to moor the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet of water in a region in which the effective wind velocity could reach 80 knots, significant wave height could reach 30 feet, and the current could be 1.5 knots. If these conditions occurred at the same time from the bow, the total environmental force would be __________________. 8547: What does the term "head" mean when applied to a pump? 8551: On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with at least one spanner and at least one __________. 8553: On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose which has a nominal diameter of ____________________. 8555: The discharge side of every fire pump must be equipped with a ________. 8557: Each fire pump on a MODU must have a pressure gauge located at _______. 8561: On a MODU, a fire pump may be used for other purposes if _________. 8563: How often must CO2 systems be inspected to confirm cylinders are within 10% of the stamped full weight of the charge? 8575: If a man falls overboard from a rig under tow, you should FIRST ____________. 8576: The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE? 8577: The indication of a slipping anchor is a(n) ____________. 8581: Survival practice in the mooring system is to slack off the tensions on the leeward side and ______________. 8583: After cranes have been installed on offshore drilling units the hooks, hook block, slings, rib and other rigging must be load tested. This test must be performed once each ___________________. 8584: When transferring survivors from an enclosed lifeboat to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the boat should _________. 8585: A MODU must have on board a first-aid kit that is approved by the ______. 8587: The person assigned to command a lifeboat or inflatable life raft on a MODU shall have a list of the persons assigned to the lifeboat or life raft. The list shall include each person's __________________. 8591: Prior to burning or welding on a fuel tank on a MODU, regulations require that an inspection be made. An entry in the unofficial logbook is required if this inspection is made by _______. 8593: Who is responsible for insuring that the accommodations on a mobile offshore drilling unit are maintained in a clean and sanitary condition? 8595: When a survival craft drill is held, the person in charge must insure that ________________. 8597: On offshore drilling units, the EPIRB on board is required to be tested ___________________. 8601: Offshore drilling units must have at least two ring buoys with water lights that, when released from the mounting rack, activate a ________. 8603: On offshore drilling units, the lifeboats must be lowered to the water and maneuvered at least once every _________. 8605: On offshore drilling units, the lifeboat motors shall be operated in the ahead and astern position at least once each ___________________. 8615: The LWT anchor has two angular positions for the flukes. These are ______________________. 8621: What is the transverse shift in the center of gravity if 200 short tons are placed 10 feet to port of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and the displacement is 9,000 short tons? 8623: What is the new location of the transverse center of gravity if 200 short tons are placed 10 feet to port of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and displacement 9,000 short tons? 8625: What is the new location of the transverse center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 10 feet to port of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and the displacement is 9,000 short tons? 8627: What is the shift in the longitudinal center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 30 feet forward of amidships on a MODU with LCG 1.5 feet forward of amidships, and displacement 9,000 short tons? 8631: What is the new location of the longitudinal center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 30 feet forward of amidships on a MODU with LCG 1.5 feet forward of amidships, and displacement 9,000 short tons? 8635: A weight of 1,000 kips is equivalent to ___________. 8637: Which type of hull damage on a floating MODU should be repaired first? 8643: The analysis of damaged stability for the DEEP DRILLER, disregards the beneficial effects of countermeasures and _______. 8645: In the analysis of damaged stability for the DEEP DRILLER, disregarded are the beneficial effects of moorings and ____. 8647: While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. Because the tank sounding level and port forward inclination are rapidly increasing, you decide that tank 1P is damaged. Your best countermeasure is to _____. 8651: While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. Because the sounding level and port aft inclination are slowly increasing, you decide that tank 10P has minor damage. Among the possible corrective actions is _______. 8653: While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. Because the sounding level and starboard inclination are rapidly increasing, you decide that tank 1S is damaged. Your best countermeasure is to _____. 8655: While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped on the starboard side. Because the sounding level and starboard aft inclination are slowly increasing, you decide that tank 10S has minor damage. Among the possible corrective actions is _________. 8657: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. If the port aft inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged? 8661: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. If the starboard aft inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged? 8662: When may a work vest be substituted for a required life preserver? 8663: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. If the starboard forward inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged? 8665: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) loads an additional 137.88 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 2 feet and the list to port is 3 feet. What is the draft at the port forward draft mark? 8671: The plans, for use during emergencies aboard the DEEP DRILLER, are readily available in the ________________. 8673: The DEEP DRILLER is operating at the maximum allowable KGT at 60 feet draft. What is the value of GMT? 8675: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 275.8 long tons. What is the new draft? 8681: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5, loads 275.8 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is the draft at the starboard aft draft mark? 8683: With no environmental forces on the DEEP DRILLER, the average of the forward drafts is 61.0 feet, and the average of the aft drafts is 59.0 feet. KGL is 51.13 feet. What is the value of LCG? 8685: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, places 275.8 long tons on board. What is the new draft? 8687: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, places 200 long tons on board. What is the new draft? 8688: Life floats must be equipped with _______________________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 8691: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 200 long tons. What is the new draft? 8693: While in transit at a draft of 20.5 feet, the DEEP DRILLER has a KGT of 65.00 feet. What is the GMT? 8695: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 200 long tons. What is the new displacement? 8697: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, loads 200 long tons. What is the new displacement? 8699: What are the transverse moments for the contents of P-tank #1 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 2.3 feet? 8701: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). While the unit is deballasting, starboard valve 19 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 9S by pumping from tank 8S by opening valves 20 and _______. 8702: An oil fire is classified as class ________. 8703: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival). While the unit is deballasting, port valve 5 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 2P by pumping from tank 1P after opening valves 6 and ___. 8705: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival). While the unit is deballasting, starboard valve 5 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 2S by pumping from tank 1S after opening valves 6 and ___. 8707: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). If port valves 24 and 2 are mistakenly opened, the change in inclination will be increasing trim by the _________. 8711: Starboard ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. If you want to deballast from the forward-starboard column using starboard pump #2, it is necessary to open valves ___. 8712: Jettisoning weight from topside _________. 8713: Port ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. If you want to deballast the forward-port column using port ballast pump #2, it is necessary to open valves ______. 8715: Starboard ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. To deballast from tank C2SA using starboard ballast pump #2, it is necessary to open the manual valve and which motor driven valves? 8716: The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stairtower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stairtower be kept open when underway? 8717: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the uncorrected height of the center of gravity? 8721: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the transverse free surface correction to KG? 8723: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the LCG? 8727: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the longitudinal free surface correction to KG? 8731: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is TCG? 8733: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new LCG? 8734: All personnel should be familiar with the lifeboats _____. 8735: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of FSML for Fresh Water if the entire contents of Drill Water Tank #5P are transferred to Tank #5S? 8737: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the weight of the mud in pit #4 if the mud weight was changed from 16 to 14 pounds per gallon? 8747: If a severe storm threatens the COASTAL DRILLER while elevated, the setback in the derrick should be lowered and placed in the pipe rack. Its weight should be accounted for as _________________. 8751: When threatened with a severe storm while operating in 250 feet of water, the COASTAL DRILLER should be placed at an air gap of ____. 8753: The maximum weight for the COASTAL DRILLER in severe storm conditions is ________________. 8755: While elevated, the COASTAL DRILLER prepares for a severe storm. When the setback is lowered and placed in the pipe racks, it is considered as part of the _________. 8757: The routes to be used during evacuation of the COASTAL DRILLER are shown in the _________________. 8761: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 7 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 4². From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is _______. 8763: After deploying the anchor, a permanent chain chaser is _______. 8767: In securing deck loads for an ocean tow, drill pipe should be _________. 8771: Hydrogen sulfide in explosive concentrations has been detected on the drill floor. The abandon rig signal has been sounded. To evacuate the rig, the crew should use _________. 8773: The muster list shows each rig hand's muster station, his duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and _____. 8775: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected forward inclination. The wind and waves are light from the starboard bow. Among the possible causes, you should consider ______________________. 8777: On a MODU, an obvious indicator of lost circulation of drilling fluid is __________________. 8781: To determine the number of certificated Lifeboatmen required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the _________________. 8782: Control of fire should be addressed _______________. 8783: When using a hand held smoke signal aboard a survival craft, you should activate the signal ________________. 8793: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to port and aft. Strong winds and high waves are from the starboard bow. Among the possible causes, you should consider ___________________. 8807: The prohibition against displaying lights which may be confused with required navigation lights applies _______. 8811: The center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the _____. 8817: A jackup has 8 inches of trim by the stern. Calculations show that the moment required to change trim one inch (MCT1") is 500 foot-kips. To level the unit, how far must a weight of 50 kips be transferred toward the bow? 8821: A jackup is trimmed six inches by the bow. The moment required to change trim one inch (MCT1") is 1200 foot-kips. Transferring 200 kips of drill water from a tank with an LCG of 20 feet to a tank with an LCG of 140 feet results in a final trim of _______________________. 8823: The draft at the forward draft mark of a jackup is 11 feet 3 inches while the draft at the aft draft mark is 12 feet 9 inches. The value of trim is __________________. 8825: A jackup, while level in transit at 10 feet draft, experiences a wind gust which results in a starboard draft of 11 feet 6 inches. What is the heel? 8827: A jackup, while level in transit at 10 feet draft, experiences a wind gust which results in a port draft of 11 feet. What is the heel? 8831: A jackup, while level in transit at 10 feet draft, experiences a wind gust which results in a port draft of 11 feet. What is the new starboard draft? 8833: A jackup level at 12.5 feet draft transfers 100 kips of drill water from a tank with a TCG of -30 feet to a starboard tank with a TCG of 70 feet. The resulting starboard draft is 13 feet. The moment required to change list one inch (MCL1") is _________________. 8835: A jackup with a calculated moment to change list one inch (MCL1") of 1,350 foot-kips intends to transfer drill water from a tank with a TCG of 82 feet to a tank with a TCG of 18 feet. How much weight should be transferred to change the draft on the port side from 11.0 to 11.5 feet? 8837: A jackup with a calculated moment to change list one inch (MCL1") of 1,200 foot-kips intends to transfer 100 kips of weight in a transverse direction. How far should the weight be transferred to change the draft on the port side from 11.5 to 11.0 feet? 8843: A semisubmersible in transit is at a draft of 19 feet. The depth of the lower hulls is 21 feet. How much bunker fuel at 54.0 lbs/cu ft could be taken on and still provide one foot of freeboard if the TPI is 52.3? 8845: A semisubmersible at a draft of 19 feet 9 inches arrives on location planning to deploy eight mooring lines. Each anchor weighs 15 long tons and each mooring line consists of 3,000 feet of 3-inch chain (89.6 lbs/ft). If no ballast corrections are made, what is the expected draft if the average TPI is 60? 8847: A semisubmersible 300 feet long and an LCF of 0 (amidships) is in transit with hulls awash and an MT1" of 87.67 foot-tons. Work on the BOP (weight 263 long tons) requires that it be moved aft 12 feet. What is the resulting trim change? 8848: Enclosed lifeboats which have been afloat over a long period of time require _______________. 8849: What is the minimum number of bolts required in a permanently bolted flange oil hose coupling? 8851: While underway in a field move with the lower hulls awash, a semisubmersible has an allowable KG of 63.69 feet; KMT is 65.12 and KML is 64.92. The KGT is 56.13 and KGL is 55.89. What is the GML? 8853: While underway in a field move with the lower hulls awash, a semisubmersible has a maximum allowable KG of 63.69 feet; KMT is 65.12 and KML is 64.92. The KGT is 56.13 and KGL is 55.89. What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG? 8855: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). If weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival, how much ballast would be required? 8861: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions require ballasting to survival draft. Assume that upon arrival at 45 feet, port and starboard ballast tanks 2 and 9 will be full and that port and starboard ballast tanks 1, 3, and 8 will be slack. What would be the new value of the total longitudinal free surface moments (FSML)? 8863: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions require ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 4087 long tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of 8.32 feet, and upon arrival at 45 feet, port and starboard ballast tanks 1, 3, and 8 are slack. What is the new KGL? 8865: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Although winds are less than 70 knots, excessive motion requires ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 4087 long tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of 8.32 feet, and upon arrival at 45 feet, port and starboard ballast tanks 1, 3, and 8 are slack. What will be the new margin on the maximum allowable KG? 8867: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. How much ballast is required to ballast to 32 feet? 8871: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, what is the new KG? 8873: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, and the sum of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new KGL? 8875: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Excessive motion makes it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, and the sum of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new margin on the maximum allowable KG? 8877: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Severe motion makes it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, and the sum of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new GML? 8881: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). How much additional deck load can be placed aboard without exceeding the deck load limit? 8883: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Additional deck load may be placed aboard. If the maximum permissible deck load were placed in the pipe racks at a VCG of 130 feet, the KG increases __________. 8885: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). If the maximum permissible deck load were placed aboard at a VCG of 130 feet, what would be the new draft? 8887: In observing rig motion while under tow, the period of roll is the time difference between ____________________________. 8891: Which type of respiratory protection is preferable for repair/investigation personnel on a MODU in a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) environment? 8893: AMVER is a system which provides _________________________. 8895: The AMVER system for vessels in the Gulf of Mexico is administered by the _____________. 8897: The international body responsible for drafting the convention prohibiting marine pollution (MARPOL) is the __________. 8901: The Safety of Life at Sea Convention was developed by the __________. 8903: The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately ________. 8905: When it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must _________________. 8907: When giving first aid, you should understand how to conduct primary and secondary surveys and know __________________. 8911: If a victim is unconscious, you should first look for evidence of _______________. 8913: In a semisubmersible MODU, the columns contain void spaces above the waterline that used principally for _____. 8917: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). While the unit is deballasting, starboard valve 17 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 8S by pumping from tank 9S and opening valves 18 and ________. 8923: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4. While the unit is deballasting, port valve 5 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 2P by pumping from tank 9P by also opening valves 6 and ______. 8925: A vessel behaves as if all of its weight is acting downward through the center of gravity, and all its support is acting upward through the __________________. 8927: On the COASTAL DRILLER, placing the rotary 34 feet aft of the transom and two feet to starboard of the centerline, limits the maximum hook load to ____________________. 8971: The change in weight (measured in tons) which causes a draft change of one inch is _______. 8973: For a floating vessel, the result of subtracting KG from KM is the ________. 8977: The important stability parameter, KG, is defined as the _______. 8981: The important initial stability parameter, GM, is the _____. 8983: The time required to incline from port to starboard and back to port again is called _________. 8985: The time required to incline from bow down to stern down and return to bow down again is called ___________. 8987: The tendency of a vessel to return to its original trim after being inclined by an external force is _________. 8991: The enclosed area defined as the intersection of the surface of the water and the hull of a vessel is the _______. 8993: The waterplane area is described as the intersection of the surface of the water in which a vessel floats and the _____. 8994: Two types of anchor shackles which are currently available are _________________. 8997: Aboard a vessel, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity from the centerline results in the load's __________. 9001: The difference between the starboard and port drafts caused by shifting a weight transversely is ____. 9002: On all mobile offshore drilling units, the deckhead of each accommodation space must be located above _____________. 9021: Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the longitudinal moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________. 9067: The TCG of a vessel may be found by dividing the displacement of the vessel into the _______. 9087: No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal in order to ______________. 9091: The outlet at a fire hydrant may be positioned anywhere from horizontal to pointing _________________. 9093: In addition to weighing the cartridge, which other maintenance is required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher? 9097: When must a dry chemical fire extinguisher be recharged? 9098: When a rescue vessel approaches a lifeboat in heavy seas, the person in charge of the lifeboat should __________. 9101: Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry-chemical extinguisher is accomplished by _____. 9105: Each ventilation system for an enclosed classified location on a MODU must provide a complete change of air every _____. 9107: The amount of Halon remaining in an extinguisher is determined by __________________. 9111: Inspection of a Halon extinguisher involves checking the hose, handle, nozzle, and _____________. 9113: After using a Halon extinguisher, it should be _______. 9115: An airplane should NOT send which signal in reply to a surface craft? 9121: The blocking or absence of fire dampers can cause _______. 9125: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by a _______________. 9129: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of a _____________. 9130: When administering first aid you should avoid ____________. 9137: Fighting a fire in the galley poses the additional threat of ______. 9153: The two factors which make underwater hull repair of a MODU difficult are accessibility and the _______________. 9155: In plugging submerged holes on a MODU, rags, wedges, and other materials should be used in conjunction with plugs to _______. 9167: To release the davit cable of a davit launched life raft, you must __________. 9185: The external flotation bladder of an immersion suit should be inflated ________________. 9187: The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated _______. 9191: After abandoning a vessel, water that is consumed within the first 24 hours will __________________. 9192: The locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must be _______________. 9193: Drinking salt water will _______________. 9195: When using the rain water collection tubes on a liferaft, the first collection should be ____________. 9197: In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who are _________. 9205: When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed _________. 9217: Apparent wind speed blowing across a MODU under tow can be measured by a(n) __________________________. 9227: The longitudinal free surface correction of a floating MODU displacing 12,000 kips is 1.20 feet. What would be the new FSCL if 2,400 kips of solid variable loads are added? 9231: The transverse free surface correction of a floating MODU displacing 24,000 long tons is 1.0 foot. When the MODU is deballasted by discharging 8,000 long tons of ballast, the FSMT decreases by 4,000 ft-long tons. What is the new FSCT? 9233: A ballast tank in a floating MODU has a maximum FSML of 7,000 ft-long tons. If the tank is converted to drill water storage, what would be the new maximum FSML? 9235: The longitudinal free surface moments of a drilling mud pit aboard a MODU displacing 24,000 long tons in sea water is 1,200 ft-long tons. If the sounding level in the mud pit is reduced from 8 to 6 feet and the mud weight increases from 10 to 12 lbs/gallon, what is the new FSML for the mud pit? 9237: A MODU floating in sea water while displacing 20,000 long tons has transverse free surface moments of 7,500 ft-long tons and longitudinal free surface moments of 10,000 ft-long tons. The maximum virtual rise in the height of the center of gravity due to free surfaces is ______________. 9241: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5, discharges 137.88 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is the draft at the starboard forward draft mark? 9243: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load #5, discharges 275.8 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is the draft at the port aft draft mark? 9245: The object of plugging holes below the waterline on a MODU should be to _______________. 9247: What type of test determines the pressure at which the formation immediately below the last set casing will take fluid? 9251: For well control, the American Petroleum Institute recommends that hydraulic units have sufficient horsepower to close the annular preventer in __________. 9253: At the instant when a string of casing being run from a MODU is landed in the well head, ___________________. 9255: A low pressure annular preventer which is used to direct flow of kick fluids away from the rig floor is called a _____________________. 9257: The shear rams of a MODU blowout preventer stack are used in emergency well control to _______________________. 9261: The retrievable subsea units that contain the pilot valves and regulators for operating the subsea blowout preventers are called _______________. 9263: A casing string that is run below the previous casing string, but does not extend to the wellhead is called a __________________. 9265: Oil well casing will fail when the external pressure exceeds the internal pressure by a differential equal to the casing's rated ______________. 9267: Lifeboat winches on a MODU are required to be inspected and an entry made in the logbook. What should this entry include? 9271: You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket _______. 9273: After being launched from MODUs, totally enclosed survival craft which have been afloat over a long period require ____________. 9275: A jackup displacing 15,000 kips has a KG of 20 feet. The legs weighing 3,500 kips are lowered 100 feet. What is the new KG? 9276: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________________. 9277: A floating jackup with displacement of 15,000 kips has its LCG 108 feet aft of frame zero (AFO). If 400 kips are loaded at 120 feet AFO and 800 kips are loaded 150 feet AF0, what is the new LCG? 9281: A floating jackup with displacement of 15,000 kips has its LCG 106 feet aft of frame zero (AF0). If 200 short tons are loaded at 20 feet AF0 and 400 short tons are loaded 149 feet AF0, what is the new LCG? 9282: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should put the _____________________. 9283: A jackup with displacement of 10,000 kips has its LCG 100 feet aft of frame zero (AFO). If 200 kips are loaded at 60 feet AFO and 100 kips are discharged from 20 feet AFO, what is the new LCG? 9285: A floating jackup with displacement of 16,200 kips has its LCG 110.37 feet aft of frame zero (AF0). If 200 short tons are discharged from 120 feet AF0 and 400 short tons are discharged from 150 feet AF0, what is the new LCG? 9287: What is the longitudinal shift in the center of gravity if 200 short tons is moved ten feet to port and 30 feet forward on a MODU with a displacement of 8,960 long tons? 9291: An elevated jackup weighs 14,000 kips. Its TCG is located 1.0 foot to starboard of the centerline. What would be the new TCG for the jackup if the drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is skidded 10 feet to port? 9293: An elevated jackup weighs 14,000 kips. The drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is skidded 10.0 feet to starboard. The change in TCG is ____________. 9295: A jackup 210 feet in length is level during transit. The LCF is 140 feet aft of the bow. How much weight should be applied at the bow to level the jackup if 150 kips are loaded at the transom? 9301: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions require ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 4087 long tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of 8.32 feet. What would be the value of uncorrected KG? 9303: When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks _____________. 9305: When two generators are operating in parallel, what will happen if one generator driving an engine automatically shuts down? 9307: When a rescuer finds an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of live electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to _____. 9311: Basic emergency care for third degree electrical burn is to _____. 9313: When a patient has an electrical burn, it is important to _______. 9315: Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, the FIRST medical response is to check for __________________. 9317: Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube? 9321: In battery charging rooms, ventilation should be provided ______. 9323: A fuel-air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too ____________. 9325: Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by ___________. 9327: Accumulations of oily rags should be ___________. 9331: Paints and solvents on a vessel should be ______________. 9333: After extinguishing a fire with CO2, it is advisable to _____. 9335: The disadvantage of using CO2 is that the _____. 9337: Size I and II fire extinguishers are designated as _______. 9341: Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on what class of fires? 9342: The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE? 9347: CO2 cylinders must be recharged when the weight of the charge in the cylinder is less than what percent of the stamped full weight of the charge? 9351: Halon from extinguishers used on a class B fire, should be directed ____. 9357: Halon extinguishers used on a class C fire should be directed at the __________. 9361: The principle personnel hazard unique to Halon extinguishers is ________________. 9362: You a re releasing carbon dioxide gas (CO2) into an engine compartment to extinguish a fire. The CO2 will be most effective if the _________. 9363: The primary function(s) of an automatic sprinkler system is(are) to ______________. 9365: When flammable liquids are handled in a compartment on a vessel, the ventilation for that area should be ________. 9367: A galley grease fire on the stove may be extinguished using_______. 9371: Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include __________. 9373: If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, the FIRST firefighting response should be to ____. 9375: After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next action is to have the space ____. 9377: After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea anchor from a life raft to ______. 9381: If the life raft capsizes, all personnel should leave the raft and __________. 9382: Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by _________________. 9383: Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard life rafts to look for _________. 9385: When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable life raft, the personnel on the raft should ________. 9387: When should you use distress flares and rockets? 9391: Once you have established the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation, how should you drink it? 9397: CATEGORY I EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by ________. 9411: When anchoring in an area with a soft bottom, the fluke angle of an anchor should be set at __________. 9412: Radiation spreads a fire by _____________________. 9413: When anchoring in an area with a hard bottom, the fluke angle of an anchor should be set at ______________. 9414: Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________. 9415: A solution to overcome tripping defects is an arrangement of special plates on either side of the flukes, designed to set them in the correct tripping position. These special plates are called _____. 9425: Which formula can be used to calculate metacentric height? 9427: In the absence of external forces, adding weight on one side of a floating vessel causes the vessel to _______. 9431: Subtracting FSCT from KGT yields _______. 9432: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is __________. 9435: For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel and the ___________. 9437: A wind has caused a difference between drafts starboard and port. This difference is ____________. 9441: The moment of a force is a measure of the __________. 9443: The magnitude of a moment is the product of the force and _________. 9445: The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is known as the _______. 9447: When initial stability applies, the height of the center of gravity plus the metacentric height equals the ________. 9451: Initial stability is indicated by __________. 9453: At all angles of inclination, the metacenter is _______. 9454: If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should FIRST _____. 9455: The original equilibrium position is stable when __________. 9457: The center of buoyancy is located at the ______________. 9463: The value of the righting arm at an angle of loll is ______. 9465: When inclined to an angle of list, the value of the righting arm is ____________. 9467: When inclined to an angle of list, the value of the righting moment is ______________. 9471: What is used as an indicator of initial stability? 9473: What is the stability term for the distance from the center of gravity (G) to the Metacenter (M), when small-angle stability applies? 9477: The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of _______________. 9481: The difference between the initial trim and the trim after loading is known as ____________. 9483: A tank which is NOT completely full or empty is called ______. 9485: The difference between the starboard and port drafts due to wind or seas is called _______________. 9487: The geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the center of _______. 9491: The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is ____________. 9493: On a vessel, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline results in a(n) ________. 9495: Reducing the free surfaces of a vessel reduces the _______. 9497: Stability is determined principally by the location of the point of application of two forces: the upward-acting buoyant force and the ______________. 9501: Stability is determined principally by the location of the point of application of two forces: the downward-acting gravity force and the ______________. 9503: Stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a vessel: the center of buoyancy and the ______. 9505: With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the _____. 9507: With no environmental forces, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the _____. 9511: In the absence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly below the ______. 9513: In the presence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the ______. 9515: With no environmental forces, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly above the __________. 9517: Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the transverse moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________________. 9521: Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the vertical moments by the total weight yields the vessel's ____________. 9523: When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is ______________. 9525: When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity a vessel has which type of stability? 9527: When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel has which type of stability? 9528: You are in Inland Waters of the United States. You may discharge overboard _________________. 9531: When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is stable and stability is _________________. 9533: Unstable equilibrium exists at small angles of inclination when _________________. 9535: When stability of a vessel is neutral, the value of GM ____. 9537: When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, the upright equilibrium position is ______. 9541: When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, the upright equilibrium position is _______________. 9543: Stable equilibrium for a vessel means that the metacenter is __________. 9545: An unstable upright equilibrium position on a vessel means that the metacenter is _______. 9547: A neutral equilibrium position for a vessel means that the metacenter is _____________. 9551: When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel has which type of stability? 9553: When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel is in _______. 9557: Longitudinal moments are obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and its __________________. 9561: Vertical moments are obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and its _________________. 9562: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be ___________. 9563: The KG of a vessel is found by dividing the displacement into the ______________. 9564: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of _____________. 9565: The LCG of a vessel may be found by dividing displacement into the ______________. 9567: The correction to KG for transverse free surface effects may be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the _________. 9571: The correction to KG for longitudinal free surface effects for a vessel can be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________. 9573: A floating vessel will behave as if all of its weight is acting downward through the ______________. 9575: While preloading, the COASTAL DRILLER has a total weight of 21,401 kips. The LM are 2,560,416 ft-kips, and the TM are 6,206 ft-kips. What is the bow leg reaction? 9577: When is the density of the water required to be logged in the logbook of a MODU? 9581: The C02 flooding system is actuated by a sequence of steps which are __________. 9583: Each person on a MODU carrying immersion suits must wear the immersion suit in a boat drill, or participate in a drill which includes donning the suit and being instructed in its use at least once every _______. 9585: While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________________. 9587: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new transverse free surface correction (FSCT) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged? 9591: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the new draft if all the bulk materials are discharged? 9593: A semisubmersible floating in sea water displaces 717,500 cubic feet. What is the displacement? 9595: A non-symmetrical tank aboard a MODU contains 390 tons of ballast at a VCG of 9.85 feet. Ballast weighing 250 tons and a VCG of 12.0 feet is discharged. The vertical moments for the remaining ballast is ______. 9597: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), when an unexpected, slowly increasing port list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in C1P is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2P and 3P, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the longitudinal free surface correction is _______. 9601: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) when an unexpected slowly increasing starboard list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in 1S is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2S and 3S, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the longitudinal free surface correction is _________________. 9603: During the passage of a severe storm the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments, permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft is _________________. 9604: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by ______. 9605: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds less than 70 knots, has a draft of 10 feet 8 inches. The VM are 541,257 ft-kips, FSML are 32,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are 24,000 ft-kips. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is _________. 9606: You are fighting a Class B fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________. 9607: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should _________________. 9608: On small passenger vessels how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks? 9700: The regulations governing the sleeping accomodations of a cargo vessel are found in _____. 69354: Which casualty involving a mobile offshore drilling unit would require a report to be filed?