USCG Navigation General Questions: Master's License
1: Unlighted, red and green, horizontally-banded buoys with the
topmost band red ____________.
A: are cylindrical in shape and called can buoys
B: are conical in shape and called nun buoys
C: may either be cylindrical or conical since the shape has no
significance
D: are triangular in shape to indicate that it may not be
2: On an isomagnetic chart, the line of zero variation is the
__________.
A: zero variation line
B: isogonic line
C: variation line
D: agonic line
3: Blinking of a Loran-C signal indicates ____________.
A: the signal is in proper sequence
B: there will be no increase or decrease in kHz
C: there is an error in the transmission of that signal
D: that it has the proper GRI
4: Gyrocompass repeaters reproduce the indications of the
master gyrocompass. They are _____________.
A: accurate only in the Polar regions
B: accurate electronic servomechanisms
C: hand operated
D: accurate only if the vessel is underway
5: A vessel is steaming in east longitude on January 25 and
crosses the International Date Line on an eastbound course
at 0900 zone time. What is the date and time at Greenwich
when the vessel crosses the line?
A: 0900, 24 January
B: 2100, 24 January
C: 2100, 25 January
D: 0900, 26 January
6: Wind velocity varies ______________.
A: directly with the temperature of the air mass
B: directly with the pressure gradient
C: inversely with the barometric pressure
D: inversely with the absolute humidity
7: The period at high or low tide during which there is no
change in the height of the water is called the __________.
A: range of the tide
B: plane of the tide
C: stand of the tide
D: reversing of the tide
8: When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the
upper light is above the lower light you should __________.
A: come left
B: come right
C: continue on the present course
D: wait until the lights are no longer in a vertical line
9: When displayed under a single-span fixed bridge, red lights
indicate _____________________.
A: the channel boundaries
B: that vessels must stop
C: the bridge is about to open
D: that traffic is approaching from the other side
10: The wind at Frying Pan shoals has been northwesterly at an
average velocity of 22 knots. The predicted set and drift
of the rotary current are 125ø at 0.6 knot. What current
should you expect?
A: 119ø at 0.9 knot
B: 172ø at 1.1 knots
C: 225ø at 0.6 knot
D: 340ø at 0.4 knot
11: A buoy having red and green horizontal bands would have a
light characteristic of _____________.
A: interrupted quick flashing
B: composite group flashing
C: Morse (A)
D: quick flashing
12: Lines on a chart which connect points of equal magnetic
variation are called _____________.
A: magnetic latitudes
B: magnetic declinations
C: dip
D: isogonic lines
13: Most modern Loran-C receivers, when not tracking properly,
have a(n) _____________.
A: bell alarm to warn the user
B: lighted alarm signal to warn the user
C: alternate signal keying system
D: view finder for each station
14: You have replaced the chart paper in the course recorder.
What is NOT required to ensure that a correct trace is
recorded?
A: Test the electrical gain to the thermograph pens
B: Set the zone pen on the correct quadrant
C: Line the course pen up on the exact heading of the ship
D: Adjust the chart paper to indicate the correct time
15: What is the length of a nautical mile?
A: 1,800 meters
B: 2,000 yards
C: 6,076 feet
D: 5,280 feet
16: The direction of the surface wind is _____________________.
A: directly from high pressure toward low pressure
B: directly from low pressure toward high pressure
C: from high pressure toward low pressure deflected by the
earth's rotation
D: from low pressure toward high pressure deflected by the
17: "Stand" of the tide is that time when _____________________.
A: the vertical rise or fall of the tide has stopped
B: slack water occurs
C: tidal current is at a maximum
D: the actual depth of the water equals the charted depth
18: A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of
________________.
A: buoys close at hand
B: fixed known objects on shore
C: buoys at a distance
D: All of the above
19: You are approaching a swing bridge at night. You will know
that the bridge is open for river traffic when __________.
A: the fixed, green light starts to flash
B: the amber light changes to green
C: the red light is extinguished
D: the red light changes to green
20: You are underway on course 050² T and your maximum speed is
12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 120² T, 110 miles
from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 285² T
at 25 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the
hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA?
A: 77 miles
B: 82 miles
C: 87 miles
D: 93 miles
21: Which buoy is NOT numbered?
A: Green can buoy
B: Preferred-channel buoy
C: Red lighted buoy
D: Green gong buoy
22: Charts showing the coast of Mexico are produced by the
United States _____________.
A: National Imagery and Mapping Agency
B: Coast Guard
C: Naval Observatory
D: National Ocean Service
23: If Loran-C signals become unsynchronized, the receiver
operator is warned because ______________.
A: signals begin to blink
B: signals begin to shift
C: stations discontinue transmission
D: stations transmit grass
24: When the gyropilot is used for steering, what control is
adjusted to compensate for varying sea conditions?
A: Rudder control
B: Sea control
C: Lost motion adjustment
D: Weather adjustment
25: You are in LONG 144² E. The date is 6 February, and
the zone time is 0800. The Greenwich date and time are
________________.
A: 2200, 5 February
B: 2300, 5 February
C: 1700, 6 February
D: 1800, 6 February
26: Wind direction may be determined by observing all of the
following EXCEPT ______________.
A: low clouds
B: waves
C: whitecaps
D: swells
27: Spring tides are tides that _________________.
A: have lows lower than normal and highs higher than normal
B: have lows higher than normal and highs lower than normal
C: are unpredictable
D: occur in the spring of the year
28: When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the
following should be considered?
A: The buoy should be considered to always be in the charted
location.
B: If the light is flashing, the buoy should be considered to
be in the charted location.
C: The buoy may not be in the charted position.
D: The buoy should be considered to be in the charted position
29: You are approaching a multiple-span bridge at night. The
main navigational channel span will be indicated by _______.
A: a red light on the bridge pier on each side of the channel
B: a steady blue light in the center of the span
C: 3 white lights in a vertical line in the center of the span
D: a flashing green light in the center of the span
30: When taking an amplitude, the Sun's center should be
observed on the visible horizon when ___________.
A: in high latitudes
B: the Sun is near or at a solstice
C: the declination is of a different name from the latitude
D: the Sun's declination is at or near 0²
31: When approaching a preferred-channel buoy, the best channel
is NOT indicated by the _____________.
A: light characteristic
B: color of the uppermost band
C: shape of an unlighted buoy
D: color of the light
32: The datum used for soundings on charts of the Atlantic
Coast of the United States is mean _____.
A: low water
B: lower low water
C: high water springs
D: high water
33: Most modern Loran-C receivers automatically detect station
blink which _________________.
A: indicates the station is transmitting normally
B: triggers alarm indicators to warn the operator
C: automatically shuts down the receiver
D: causes the receiver to shift automatically to another Loran
34: The Local Notice to Mariners is usually published _________.
A: daily
B: weekly
C: monthly
D: semiannually
35: You are on a vessel at 0400 ZT on 3 July, and the ZD for
your position is -8. What is the GMT?
A: 1200, 3 July
B: 2000, 3 July
C: 1200, 2 July
D: 2000, 2 July
36: A strong, often violent, northerly wind occurring on the
Pacific coast of Mexico, particularly during the colder
months, is a ______________.
A: Papagayo
B: fall wind
C: foehn
D: williwaw
37: What does the term "tide" refer to?
A: Horizontal movement of the water
B: Vertical movement of the water
C: Mixing tendency of the water
D: Salinity content of the water
38: When navigating a vessel, you _______________.
A: can always rely on a buoy to be on station
B: can always rely on a buoy to show proper light
characteristics
C: should assume a wreck buoy is directly over the wreck
D: should never rely on a floating aid to maintain its exact
39: Civil twilight begins at 1910 zone time on 20 July 1981.
Your DR position at that time is LAT 22ø16' N, LONG
150ø06' W. Which statement concerning the planets available
for evening sights is TRUE?
A: Venus will have a westerly meridian angle.
B: Mars will set about one hour after the Sun sets.
C: Mars, Venus, Jupiter, and Saturn will be above the horizon.
D: Sights of Saturn, Jupiter, and Venus will yield a good
40: The predicted time that the flood begins at the entrance to
Delaware Bay is 1526. You are anchored off Chestnut St. in
Philadelphia. If you get underway bound for sea at 1600 and
turn for 8 knots, at what point will you lose the ebb
current?
A: Billingsport
B: Marcus Hook
C: Mile 63
D: Mile 52
41: Mean high water is the reference plane used for _____.
A: all vertical measurements
B: heights above water of land features such as lights
C: soundings on the East and West Coasts
D: water depths on the East Coast only
42: The datum used for soundings on charts of the the East
Coast of the United States is _____.
A: mean low water springs
B: mean low water
C: mean lower low water
D: half tide level
43: A buoy with a composite group-flashing light indicates a(n)
________.
A: anchorage area
B: fish net area
C: bifurcation
D: dredging area
44: The speed of sound through ocean water is nearly always
_________.
A: faster than the speed of calibration for the fathometer
B: the same speed as the speed of calibration for the
fathometer
C: slower than the speed of calibration for the fathometer
D: faster than the speed of calibration for the fathometer,
45: The navigator aboard a ship at approximately 165² E
longitude observes the Sun at ZT 14-25-04 on 21 September.
What is the GMT and Greenwich date of the observation?
A: 03-25-04, 21 September
B: 02-25-04, 21 September
C: 01-25-04, 21 September
D: 01-25-04, 20 September
46: What wind reverses directions seasonally?
A: Monsoon winds
B: Hooked trades
C: Jet stream
D: Secondary winds
47: The range of tide is the __________________.
A: distance the tide moves out from the shore
B: duration of time between high and low tide
C: difference between the heights of high and low tide
D: maximum depth of the water at high tide
48: When should a navigator rely on the position of floating
aids to navigation?
A: During calm weather only
B: During daylight only
C: Only when inside a harbor
D: Only when fixed aids are not available
49: While steering a course of 150ø T, you wish to observe a
body for a latitude check. What would the azimuth have to
be?
A: 000ø T
B: 090ø T
C: 150ø T
D: 240ø T
50: The difference between the heights of low and high tide
is the __________.
A: period
B: range
C: distance
D: depth
51: In the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, red and green
horizontally-banded buoys mark _____________.
A: channels for shallow draft vessels
B: general anchorage areas
C: fishing grounds
D: junctions or bifurcations
52: The reference datum used in determining the heights of land
features on most charts is _____.
A: mean sea level
B: mean high water
C: mean low water
D: half-tide level
53: Loran-C may be used for safe navigation in harbor areas due
to _____.
A: multipulse grouping
B: repeatability of readings
C: synchronization control
D: using secondary vs. slave stations
54: The elapsed time of a fathometer signal (from sound
generation to the return of the echo) is 1 second. What is
the depth of the water at the point sounded?
A: 400 feet
B: 400 fathoms
C: 800 feet
D: 800 fathoms
55: Your longitude is 179ø59' W. The LMT at this longitude is
23h 56m on the 4th day of the month. Six minutes later,
your position is 179ø59' E longitude. Your LMT and date are
_____________.
A: 00h 02m on the 4th
B: 00h 02m on the 5th
C: 23h 50m on the 5th
D: 00h 02m on the 6th
56: A strong, often violent, northerly wind occurring on the
Pacific coast of Mexico, particularly during the colder
months, is called ________.
A: Tehuantepecer
B: Papagayo
C: Norther
D: Pampero
57: The height of tide is the ___________________.
A: depth of water at a specific time due to tidal effect
B: difference between the depth of the water and the area's
tidal datum
C: difference between the depth of the water and the high water
tidal level
D: difference between the depth of the water at high tide and
58: You should plot your dead reckoning position _____.
A: at every course change
B: hourly
C: at every speed change
D: All of the above are correct.
59: For navigational purposes, each great circle on the Earth
has a length of ______________.
A: 3,600 miles
B: 5,400 miles
C: 12,500 miles
D: 21,600 miles
60: The predicted time that the ebb begins at the entrance to
Delaware Bay is 1526. You are anchored off Chestnut St.
in Philadelphia. If you get underway bound for sea at 1630
and turn for 12 knots, at what point will you lose the
flood current?
A: New Castle
B: Reedy Island
C: Mile 44
D: Ship John Shoal Lt.
61: Red lights may appear on _____________.
A: horizontally banded buoys
B: vertically striped buoys
C: yellow buoys
D: spherical buoys
62: Charted depth is the _____.
A: vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean
bottom, plus the height of tide
B: vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean
bottom
C: average height of water over a specified period of time
D: average height of all low waters at a place
63: A "full service" Loran-C receiver will provide ___________.
A: matching pulse rates of at least 20 stations
B: an automatic on-and-off switch
C: a horizontal matching of all delayed hyperbolic signals
D: automatic signal acquisition and cycle matching
64: Mean lower low water is the reference plane used for _____.
A: all vertical measurements
B: heights above water for lights, mountains, etc.
C: soundings on the U.S. east and west coasts
D: water depths on the U.S. east coast only
65: The LMT of LAN is 1210. Your longitude is 70²30' E. Which
time would you use to enter the Nautical Almanac to
determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?
A: 1842
B: 1652
C: 0728
D: 0652
66: What will a veering wind do?
A: Change direction in a clockwise manner in the Northern
Hemisphere
B: Circulate about a low pressure center in a counterclockwise
manner in the Northern Hemisphere
C: Vary in strength constantly and unpredictably
D: Circulate about a high pressure center in a clockwise manner
67: What is the definition of height of tide?
A: The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of
the water at any time
B: The vertical difference between the heights of low and high
water
C: The vertical difference between a datum plane and the ocean
bottom
D: The vertical distance from the surface of the water to the
68: A position obtained by taking lines of position from
one object at different times and advancing them to a
common time is a(n) ____________.
A: dead-reckoning position
B: estimated position
C: fix
D: running fix
69: The parallax angle will vary the most with the time of year
for ______________.
A: Venus
B: Jupiter
C: Saturn
D: Polaris
70: The station located at "A" is the __________________.
A: on station
B: off station
C: master station
D: secondary station
71: A preferred-channel buoy may be ___________.
A: lettered
B: spherical
C: showing a white light
D: All of the above
72: The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are
reckoned in the tide tables is _____.
A: mean low water
B: the same as that used for the charts of the locality
C: the highest possible level
D: given in table three of the tide tables
73: After initial turn-on, most modern Loran-C receivers will
be automatically tracking within _____________.
A: 1 minute
B: 3 minutes
C: 5 minutes
D: 10 minutes
74: When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate
________.
A: a shallow depth reading
B: a zero depth reading
C: no depth reading
D: two depth readings
75: The zone time of LAN is 1152. Your longitude is 73²15' E.
What time would you use to enter the Nautical Almanac to
determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?
A: 0652
B: 0659
C: 1852
D: 1859
76: In the Northern Hemisphere, a wind that shifts
counterclockwise is a ______________.
A: veering wind
B: backing wind
C: reverse wind
D: chinook wind
77: When there are small differences between the heights of
two successive high tides or two low tides, in a tidal day,
the tides are called ______________.
A: diurnal
B: semidiurnal
C: solar
D: mixed
78: A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning
position results in a(n) _________________.
A: assumed position
B: estimated position
C: fix
D: running fix
79: The rate of increase in hour angle is the slowest for
_______________.
A: the Sun
B: the Moon
C: Mars
D: Mercury
80: When the moon is at first quarter or third quarter phase,
what type of tides will occur?
A: Apogean
B: Perigean
C: Neap
D: Spring
81: A buoy with a composite group-flashing light indicates a(n)
_________.
A: bifurcation
B: fish net area
C: anchorage area
D: dredging area
82: On the west coast of North America, charted depths are taken
from ____.
A: high water
B: mean tide level
C: mean low water
D: mean lower low water
83: All Loran-C transmitting stations are equipped with cesium
frequency standards which permit _____________.
A: every station in one chain to transmit at the same time
B: each station to transmit without reference to another
station
C: on-line transmission of single-line transmitters at the same
time
D: each station to only depend on the master for
84: When using an echo sounder in deep water, it is NOT unusual
to __________.
A: receive a strong return at about 200 fathoms (366 meters)
during the day, and one nearer the surface at night
B: receive a first return near the surface during the day, and
a strong return at about 200 fathoms (366 meters) at night
C: receive false echoes at a constant depth day and night
D: have to recalibrate every couple of days due to inaccurate
85: Your longitude is 179ø59' W. The LMT at this longitude is
23h 56m of the 4th day of the month. Six minutes later your
position is 179ø59' E longitude. Your LMT and date is now
___________.
A: 00h 02m on the 4th
B: 00h 02m on the 5th
C: 23h 50m on the 5th
D: 00h 02m on the 6th
86: A weather forecast states that the wind will commence
backing. In the Northern Hemisphere, this would
indicate that it will ________________.
A: shift in a clockwise manner
B: shift in a counterclockwise manner
C: continue blowing from the same direction
D: decrease in velocity
87: A tide is called diurnal when _____________.
A: only one high and one low water occur during a lunar day
B: the high tide is higher and the low tide is lower than usual
C: the high tide and low tide are exactly six hours apart
D: two high tides occur during a lunar day
88: Which position includes the effects of wind and current?
A: Dead reckoning position
B: Leeway position
C: Estimated position
D: Set position
89: The GHA of the first point of Aries is 315² and the GHA of a
planet is 150². What is the right ascension of the planet?
A: 7 hours
B: 11 hours
C: 19 hours
D: 23 hours
90: When the moon is new or full, which type of tides occur?
A: Neap
B: Spring
C: Diurnal
D: Apogean
91: A preferred-channel buoy will show a ___________.
A: white light whose characteristic is Morse (A)
B: group-occulting white light
C: composite group-flashing (2 + 1) white light
D: composite group-flashing (2 + 1) red or green light
92: When utilizing a Pacific Coast chart, the reference plane of
soundings is _____.
A: mean low water springs
B: mean low water
C: mean lower low water
D: lowest normal low water
93: The time interval between the transmission of signals from a
pair of Loran-C stations is very closely controlled and
operates with _________.
A: an atomic time standard
B: Daylight Savings Time
C: Eastern Standard Time
D: Greenwich Mean Time
94: When using a recording depth finder in the open ocean, what
phenomena is most likely to produce a continuous trace
that may not be from the actual ocean bottom?
A: Echoes from a deep scattering layer
B: Echoes from schools of fish
C: Multiple returns reflected from the bottom to the surface
and to the bottom again
D: Poor placement of the transducer on the hull
95: The difference in local time between an observer on 114ø W
and one on 119ø W is _____________.
A: 1.25 minutes
B: 5 minutes
C: 20 minutes
D: 75 minutes
96: A weather forecast states that the wind will commence
veering. In the Northern Hemisphere this indicates that the
wind will _____________.
A: shift in a clockwise manner
B: shift in a counterclockwise manner
C: continue blowing from the same direction
D: increase in velocity
97: The lunar or tidal day is ___________.
A: about 50 minutes shorter than the solar day
B: about 50 minutes longer than the solar day
C: about 10 minutes longer than the solar day
D: the same length as the solar day
98: A position that is obtained by applying estimated current
and wind to your vessel's course and speed is a(n) ________.
A: dead reckoning position
B: estimated position
C: fix
D: None of the above
99: You are enroute to Jacksonville, FL, from San Juan, P.R.
There is a fresh N'ly wind blowing. As you cross the axis
of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter _______.
A: smoother seas and warmer water
B: steeper waves, closer together
C: long swells
D: cirrus clouds
100: You are underway on course 050² T and your maximum speed is
12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 080² T, 100 miles
from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 265² T
at 22 knots. What course should you steer at 12 knots to
have the maximum CPA?
A: 219²
B: 208²
C: 199²
D: 190²
101: A lighted preferred-channel buoy may show a _____.
A: fixed red light
B: Morse (A) white light
C: composite group-flashing light
D: yellow light
102: Which statement about a DMAHTC chart with stock no.
23BHA23433 is TRUE?
A: This is a non-navigational or special purpose chart.
B: It is not included in the portfolio.
C: It is a chart of an area in subregion 23.
D: It depicts a major portion of an ocean.
103: In Loran-C the high accuracy of atomic time and frequency
controls allows each station to operate _____________.
A: at higher frequencies
B: on schedule, independently
C: at 1,975 kHz
D: in a multiplex phase
104: What should you apply to a fathometer reading to determine
the depth of water?
A: Subtract the draft of the vessel.
B: Add the draft of the vessel.
C: Subtract the sea water correction .
D: Add the sea water correction.
105: If the GMT is 1500, the time at 75ø E longitude is ________.
A: 1000
B: 1500
C: 1700
D: 2000
106: A local wind which occurs during the daytime and is caused
by the different rates of warming of land and water is a
________.
A: foehn
B: chinook
C: land breeze
D: sea breeze
107: The average height of the surface of the sea for all stages
of the tide over a 19 year period is called ___________.
A: mean high water
B: mean low water
C: half-tide level
D: mean sea level
108: A position that is obtained by using two or more
intersecting lines of position taken at nearly the same
time, is a(n) ___________.
A: dead-reckoning position
B: estimated position
C: fix
D: running fix
109: While proceeding along the Norwegian coast on course 039ø T,
you sight the black-yellow-black banded buoy shown bearing
053ø T. What action should you take?
A: Alter course to 053ø and leave the buoy close aboard on
either side
B: Maintain course
C: Alter course to 060ø and ensure that the true bearings
decreases
D: Alter course to port to rapidly open the bearing to the
110: A millibar is a unit of _____________.
A: humidity
B: precipitation
C: pressure
D: temperature
111: Green lights may appear on _______________.
A: horizontally banded buoys
B: vertically striped buoys
C: yellow buoys
D: spherical buoys
112: Which chart number indicates a DMAHTC chart designed for
inshore coastwise navigation?
A: LCORR5868
B: COMBT800564
C: 17XHA17365
D: 16ACO16595
113: The type of transmission used in Loran-C is a _____________.
A: single pulse
B: wide pulse
C: multipulse
D: narrow pulse
114: All echo-sounders can measure the ________.
A: actual depth of water
B: actual depth of water below keel
C: average depth from waterline to hard bottom
D: average depth of water to soft bottom
115: The date is the same all over the world at ________________.
A: 0000 GMT
B: 1200 GMT
C: 0000 LMT for an observer at 90ø E longitude
D: no time
116: Which wind results from a land mass cooling more quickly
at night than an adjacent water area?
A: Coastal breeze
B: Sea breeze
C: Land breeze
D: Mistral
117: Mean high water is the average height of __________.
A: the higher high waters
B: the lower high waters
C: the lower of the two daily tides
D: all high waters
118: What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any
prior position?
A: Dead-reckoning position
B: Estimated position
C: Fix
D: Running fix
119: While proceeding along the Mediterranean coast of Spain,
you sight the black and yellow buoy shown. Your course is
039ø T, and the buoy bears 053ø T. What action should you
take?
A: Alter course to 053ø T and pass the buoy close aboard
on either side
B: Alter course to 060ø and ensure that the bearings decrease
C: Maintain course and ensure that the bearings increase
D: Alter course towards the buoy and leave the buoy well clear
120: You are underway on course 050² T and your maximum speed is
13 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 100² T, 120 miles
from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 275² T
at 25 knots. If you maneuver at 13 knots to avoid the
hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA?
A: 72 miles
B: 78 miles
C: 83 miles
D: 89 miles
121: A safe water mark may be _____________.
A: vertically striped
B: spherical
C: showing a white light
D: All of the above
122: The subregions of the United States Gulf and East Coasts are
numbered 11, 12, and 13 within the chart numbering system.
Which chart number indicates a chart for either the Gulf or
East Coast?
A: 11250
B: 18411
C: 21228
D: 17136
123: If the radio signal ground wave extends out for less
distance than the minimum skywave distance, there is an area
in which no signal is received. This is called the ______.
A: skip zone
B: blackout zone
C: diffraction zone
D: shadow zone
124: An electronic depth finder operates on the principle that
________.
A: radio signals reflect from a solid surface
B: sound waves travel at a constant speed through water
C: radar signals travel at a constant speed through water
D: pressure increases with depth
125: The GMT is 0445 and your zone description is +1. Your zone
time is _____________.
A: 0445
B: 0345
C: 0545
D: 1545
126: A katabatic wind blows ______________.
A: up an incline due to surface heating
B: in a circular pattern
C: down an incline due to cooling of the air
D: horizontally between a high and a low pressure area
127: Mean low water is the average height of ___________.
A: the surface of the sea
B: high waters and low waters
C: all low waters
D: the lower of the two daily low tides
128: A position obtained by applying only your vessel's
course and speed to a known position is a ________.
A: dead-reckoning position
B: fix
C: probable position
D: running fix
129: In working out a local apparent noon sight for your
latitude, you subtract the Ho from 90ø. The 90ø represents
the angular distance from _____.
A: the equator to the elevated pole
B: your horizon to your zenith
C: your zenith to the elevated pole
D: the geographical position of the Sun to the elevated pole
130: The distance between the surface of the water and the tidal
datum is the ____________.
A: range of tide
B: height of tide
C: charted depth
D: actual water depth
131: A vertically-striped buoy may be ______________.
A: striped black and green
B: striped black and yellow
C: lighted with a red light
D: lighted with a white light
132: The value of sixty nautical miles per degree of geodetic
latitude is most correct at __________.
A: the equator
B: latitude 45²
C: the poles
D: all latitudes
133: The line connecting the Loran-C master station with a
secondary station is called the _____________.
A: focus line
B: base line
C: side line
D: center line
134: The recording fathometer produces a graphic record of the
________.
A: bottom contour only up to depths of 100 fathoms
B: depth underneath the keel against a time base
C: contour of the bottom against a distance base
D: depth of water against a distance base
135: The standard meridian for the time zone +1 is _____________.
A: 0ø
B: 7 1/2ø W
C: 15ø W
D: 7 1/2ø E
136: Which Beaufort force indicates a wind speed of 65 knots?
A: Beaufort force 0
B: Beaufort force 6.5
C: Beaufort force 12
D: Beaufort force 15
137: Priming of the tides occurs ____________.
A: at times of new and full Moon
B: when the Earth, Moon, and Sun are lying approximately on the
same line
C: when the Moon is between first quarter and full and between
third quarter and new
D: when the Moon is between new and first quarter and between
138: The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented
on a chart by a line drawn from the point of departure to
the point of arrival, is the _____________.
A: DR plot
B: track line
C: heading
D: estimated course
139: What is the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is
A: 35ø15' W
B: 35ø15' E
C: 144ø45' E
D: 144ø45' W
140: You are underway on course 050ø T and your maximum speed is
12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 080ø T, 100 miles
from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 265ø T
at 22 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the
hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA?
A: 76 miles
B: 69 miles
C: 63 miles
D: 56 miles
141: You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at
6 knots on course 133ø T, and bears 042ø T, 105 miles from
you. What is the time to intercept if you make 10 knots?
A: 17h 03m
B: 17h 19m
C: 17h 30m
D: 17h 49m
142: Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation
outside of outlying reefs and shoals?
A: Approach charts
B: General charts
C: Sailing charts
D: Coast charts
143: Under the IALA - A Buoyage System, a buoy used as a port
hand mark would not show which light characteristic?
A: Isophase
B: Quick flashing
C: Long flashing
D: Group Flashing (2 + 1)
144: In modern fathometers the sonic or ultrasonic sound waves
are produced electrically by means of a(n) ________________.
A: transmitter
B: transducer
C: transceiver
D: amplifier
145: The standard time meridian for zone description -1 is _____.
A: 0ø
B: 7 1/2ø W
C: 7 1/2ø E
D: 15ø E
146: What change in the wind could be expected at position D if
the low was moving northeasterly?
A: Decreasing and veering to the west
B: Decreasing and backing to the north
C: Increasing and veering to the southwest
D: Increasing and backing to the east
147: Which statement is TRUE concerning equatorial tides?
A: They occur when the Sun is at minimum declination north or
south.
B: They occur when the Moon is at maximum declination north or
south.
C: The difference in height between consecutive high or low
tides is at a minimum.
D: They are used as the basis for the vulgar establishment of
148: When possible, a DR plot should always be started from
where?
A: Any position
B: A known position
C: An assumed position
D: None of the above
149: You are underway on course 050² T and your maximum speed is
13 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 100² T, 120 miles
from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 275² T
at 25 knots. What course should you steer at 13 knots to
have the maximum CPA?
A: 339²
B: 333²
C: 326²
D: 320²
150: An alternating light ____________.
A: shows a light with varying lengths of the lighted period
B: shows a light that changes color
C: marks an alternate lesser-used channel
D: is used as a replacement for another light
151: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, spherical buoys
may be ______________.
A: numbered
B: lettered
C: lighted
D: All of the above
152: A chart with a natural scale of 1:160,000 is classified as a
_____________.
A: sailing chart
B: general chart
C: coast chart
D: harbor chart
153: The line extending beyond the stations at A and B is
referred to as the _____________.
A: slave line
B: zero line
C: baseline extension
D: centerline
154: Which factor has the greatest effect on the amount of gain
required to obtain a fathometer reading?
A: Salinity of water
B: Temperature of water
C: Atmospheric pressure
D: Type of bottom
155: The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is
___________________.
A: predicted in Tidal Current Tables
B: unpredictable
C: generally constant
D: generally too weak to be of concern
156: In reading a weather map, closely spaced pressure gradient
lines would indicate _____________________.
A: high winds
B: high overcast clouds
C: calm or light winds
D: fog or steady rain
157: Tropic tides are caused by the __________________.
A: Moon being at its maximum declination
B: Moon crossing the equator
C: Sun and Moon both being near 0ø declination
D: Moon being at perigee
158: Discounting slip, if your vessel is turning RPM for 10 knots
and making good a speed of 10 knots, the current could
be _______.
A: with you at 10 knots
B: against you at 10 knots
C: slack
D: with you at 2 knots
159: The apparent wind can be zero when the true wind is from
_____.
A: ahead and equal to the ship's speed
B: astern and equal to the ship's speed
C: ahead and equal to twice the ship's speed
D: astern and equal to twice the ship's speed
160: Loran-C ground waves provide position information of
reasonable accuracy out to a maximum of _____________.
A: 800 miles
B: 1,000 miles
C: 1,200 miles
D: 1,500 miles
161: How is a safe water mark, that can be passed close aboard on
either side, painted and lighted?
A: Black and white stripes with an interrupted quick flashing
light
B: Black and red stripes with a Morse (A) light
C: Black and red stripes with an interrupted quick flashing
light
D: Red and white stripes with a Morse (A) light
162: A chart with a scale of 1:80,000 would fall into the
category of a _____.
A: sailing chart
B: general chart
C: coastal chart
D: harbor chart
163: How many fixed objects are needed to plot a running fix?
A: None
B: One
C: Two
D: Three
164: The part of a sextant mounted directly over the pivot of the
index arm is the _________________.
A: index mirror
B: horizon glass
C: micrometer drum
D: telescope
165: On 6 July 1981, at 1000 zone time, you cross the 180th
meridian steaming westward. What is your local time?
A: It is 1000, 5 July.
B: It is 1000, 6 July.
C: It is 2200, 7 July.
D: It is 1000, 7 July.
166: On the pole side of the high pressure belt in each
hemisphere, the pressure diminishes. The winds along
these gradients are diverted by the Earth's rotation
toward the east and are known as the __________.
A: geostrophic winds
B: doldrums
C: horse latitudes
D: prevailing westerlies
167: When the Moon's declination is maximum north, which of the
following will occur?
A: Mixed-type tides
B: Higher high tides and lower low tides
C: Tropic tides
D: Equatorial tides
168: Your vessel is making way through the water at a speed of 12
knots. Your vessel traveled 30 nautical miles in 2 hours 20
minutes. What current are you experiencing?
A: A following current at 2.0 knots
B: A head current of 2.0 knots
C: A following current of 0.9 knot
D: A head current of 0.9 knot
169: You want to transit Hell Gate on 23 July 1983. What is the
period of time around the AM (ZD +4) slack before ebb when
the current will be less than 0.5 knot?
A: 0939 to 0957
B: 0943 to 0953
C: 0844 to 0852
D: 0348 to 0356
170: Which of the buoy symbols in illustration D032NG indicates a
safe water mark?
171: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, a lighted buoy
with a spherical topmark marks _________________.
A: safe water
B: a fish trap area
C: a hazard to navigation
D: a bifurcation in the channel
172: A chart with a scale of 1:45,000 is a _____.
A: harbor chart
B: coast chart
C: general chart
D: sailing chart
174: The position labeled D is a(n) ___________________.
A: fix
B: running fix
C: estimated position
D: dead reckoning position
175: On 5 July 1981, at 1200 zone time, you cross the 180th
meridian steaming westward. What is your local time?
A: It is 1200, 4 July.
B: It is 1200, 5 July.
C: It is 1200, 6 July.
D: It is 2400, 6 July.
176: Which wind pattern has the most influence over the movement
of frontal weather systems over the North American
continent?
A: Subpolar easterlies
B: Northeast trades
C: Prevailing westerlies
D: Dominant southwesterly flow
177: How many high waters usually occur each day on the East
Coast of the United States?
A: One
B: Two
C: Three
D: Four
178: You are steering a southerly course, and you note that the
chart predicts an easterly current. Without considering
wind, how may you allow for the set?
A: Head your vessel slightly to the right
B: Head your vessel slightly to the left
C: Decrease your speed
D: Increase your speed
179: You are proceeding up a channel at night. It is marked by a
range which bears 185ø T. You steady up on a compass course
of 180ø with the range in line dead ahead. This indicates
that you(r) _________________.
A: must come right to get on the range
B: course is in error
C: compass has some easterly error
D: are being affected by a southerly current
180: What is a lighted safe water mark fitted with to aid in its
identification?
A: A spherical topmark
B: Red and white retroreflective material
C: A sequential number
D: A red and white octagon
181: Which navigational mark may only be lettered?
A: An unlighted, green, can buoy
B: A spherical buoy
C: A red buoy
D: A port side dayshape
182: The scale on a chart is given as 1:5,000,000. This means
that _____.
A: 1 inch is equal to 5,000 inches on the Earth's surface
B: 1 nautical mile on the chart is equal to 5,000 inches on the
Earth's surface
C: 1 inch is equal to 5,000,000 inches on the Earth's surface
D: 1 nautical mile on the chart is equal to 5,000,000 inches on
183: The maximum reliable ground wave range of Loran-C is
approximately _____________.
A: 700 miles
B: 900 miles
C: 1,200 miles
D: 2,300 miles
184: When the index and horizon mirrors of a properly adjusted
sextant are at an angle of 45ø to each other, the arc reads
___________.
A: 22 1/2ø
B: 45ø
C: 60ø
D: 90ø
185: A ship is in longitude 54ø00' W on a true course of 270ø.
The ship's clocks are on the proper time zone. At what
longitude should the clocks be changed to maintain the
proper zone time?
A: 45ø00' W
B: 52ø30' W
C: 60ø00' W
D: 67ø30' W
186: In the doldrums you will NOT have ___________.
A: high relative humidity
B: frequent showers and thunderstorms
C: steep pressure gradients
D: frequent calms
187: Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides?
A: They occur only at quadrature.
B: They occur when the Moon is nearest the Earth.
C: They cause diurnal tides to become mixed.
D: They have a decreased range from normal.
188: Off Barnegat, NJ, with the wind coming out of the east, the
wind-driven current will be flowing approximately ________.
A: 286ø
B: 254ø
C: 106ø
D: 016ø
189: While steering a course of 150ø T, you wish to observe the
Sun for a speed check. What would the azimuth have to be?
A: 060ø T
B: 090ø T
C: 150ø T
D: 240ø T
190: You are enroute to Jacksonville, FL, from San Juan, P.R.
There is a fresh N'ly wind blowing. As you cross the axis
of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter ________.
A: steeper waves, closer together
B: long swells
C: cirrus clouds
D: smoother seas and warmer water
191: Safe water buoys may show ONLY_______________.
A: flashing red lights
B: flashing green lights
C: white lights
D: yellow lights
192: The description "Racon" beside an illustration on a chart
would mean a _____.
A: radar conspicuous beacon
B: circular radiobeacon
C: radar transponder beacon
D: radar calibration beacon
193: In using Loran-C, skywave reception gives greater range but
is ____________.
A: only accurate during daylight hours
B: much less accurate
C: only accurate at twilight
D: more accurate than using ground waves
194: The horizon glass of a sextant is _______________.
A: silvered on its half nearer the frame
B: mounted on the index arm
C: between the horizon and the shade glasses
D: All of the above
195: The equation of time is 8m 00s. The mean Sun is ahead of
the apparent Sun. If you are 2ø W of the central meridian
of your time zone, when will the apparent Sun cross your
meridian?
A: 1216
B: 1208
C: 1200
D: 1152
196: The area of strong westerly winds occurring between 40² S
and 60² S latitude is called the ____________________.
A: polar easterlies
B: prevailing westerlies
C: roaring forties
D: jet streams
197: Chart legends printed in capital letters show that the
associated landmark is _____.
A: conspicuous
B: inconspicuous
C: a government facility or station
D: a radio transmitter
198: You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at
6 knots on course 133ø T, and bears 343ø T at 92 miles from
you. What is the time to intercept if you make 9 knots?
A: 7h 44m
B: 7h 12m
C: 6h 40m
D: 6h 08m
199: Civil twilight occurs at 0558 zone time on 30 December 1981.
Your DR position at that time is LAT 15ø02' N, LONG
46ø02' W. Which statement concerning the planets available
for morning sights is TRUE?
A: At 0558, Mars can be used for an ex-meridian observation.
B: Venus, Jupiter, and Mars sights will yield a good three line
fix.
C: Saturn will be near the prime vertical.
D: Venus will be visible low in the western sky.
201: What is a lighted safe water mark fitted with to aid in its
identification?
A: Red and white retroreflective material
B: A spherical topmark
C: A sequential number
D: A red and white octagon
202: On charts of U.S. waters, a magenta marking is NOT used for
marking a _____.
A: radiobeacon
B: lighted buoy
C: prohibited area
D: 5-fathom curve
203: In any Loran-C chain, there are three or more stations
transmitting pulses which radiate in all directions.
One of the stations is the master station, and the others
in the chain are the ______________.
A: radio stations
B: secondary stations
C: monitor stations
D: pulse stations
204: Because of the reflecting properties of a sextant, if the
sextant altitude reads 60ø on the limb, the actual arc of
the limb from 0ø to the 60ø reading is ___________.
A: 20ø
B: 30ø
C: 40ø
D: 60ø
205: The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local
mean time (LMT) is indicated by the ______________.
A: equation of time
B: difference of longitude between the local and central
meridian in time units
C: longitude in time units
D: zone description
206: The winds you would expect to encounter in the North
Atlantic between latitudes 5ø and 30ø are known as the
__________.
A: doldrums
B: westerlies
C: trades
D: easterlies
207: An important lunar cycle affecting the tidal cycle is called
the nodal period. How long is this cycle?
A: 16 days
B: 18 days
C: 6 years
D: 19 years
208: The moon is full and at perigee on 20 January 1983. What
is the maximum current you could expect at 2350 (ZD +5) at
Nantucket Shoals?
A: 0.5 knot
B: 0.7 knot
C: 0.8 knot
D: 1.0 knot
209: The West Wind Drift is located __________.
A: near 60ø S
B: on each side of the Equatorial Current
C: in the North Atlantic between Greenland and Europe
D: in the South Pacific near 5ø S
210: The position labeled C is a(n) ________________.
A: fix
B: running fix
C: estimated position
D: dead reckoning position
211: The light rhythm of Morse (A) is shown on ___________.
A: preferred-channel buoys
B: starboard- or port-side buoys
C: special marks
D: safe water buoys
212: Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?
A: Radar station
B: Radar transponder beacon
C: Radiobeacon
D: Aero light
214: A sextant having an index error that is "on the arc" has a
________.
A: positive correction
B: dip error
C: negative correction
D: semidiameter error
215: The equation of time is 12m 00s and the mean Sun is ahead of
the apparent Sun. If you are on the central meridian of
your time zone, at what zone time will the apparent Sun
cross the meridian?
A: 1148
B: 1200
C: 1212
D: It cannot be determined from the information given.
216: The prevailing winds in the band of latitude from
approximately 5² N to 30² N are the ________.
A: prevailing westerlies
B: northeast trade winds
C: southeast trade winds
D: doldrums
217: In some parts of the world there is often a slight fall in
tide during the middle of the high water period. The effect
is to create a longer period of stand at higher water. This
special feature is called a(n) ________.
A: apogean tide
B: double high water
C: perigean tide
D: bore
218: Lines of position may be __________.
A: hyperboles
B: straight lines
C: arcs
D: All of the above
219: The predicted time that the flood begins at the entrance to
Delaware Bay is 1526. You are anchored off Chestnut St. in
Philadelphia. If you get underway bound for sea at 1300 and
turn for 13 knots, at what point will you lose the flood
current?
A: Mile 52
B: New Castle
C: Marcus Hook
D: Billingsport
220: At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line.
At 0200 you again fix your position and it is 0.5 mile east
of your DR. Which statement is TRUE?
A: The current is westerly at 0.5 knot.
B: You must increase speed to compensate for the current.
C: The current cannot be determined.
D: The drift is 0.25 knot.
221: In United States waters, a buoy having red and white
vertical stripes has a light characteristic of ____________.
A: group occulting
B: Morse (A)
C: interrupted quick flashing
D: quick flashing
222: Which statement concerning the illustration is correct?
(Soundings and heights are in meters)
A: Maury Lightship swings about her anchor on a circle with a
21-meter diameter.
B: The position of the lightship is indicated by the center of
the star on the symbol's mast.
C: There is a 12 meter deep hole inside the 5-meter curve just
west of Beito Island.
D: The sunken wreck southwest of Beito Island shows the hull or
223: In the Loran-C configuration shown, the stations located at
X, Y, and Z are called _________.
A: repeater stations
B: secondary stations
C: composite stations
D: alternate stations
224: A sextant having an index error that is "off the arc" has a
________.
A: positive correction
B: dip error
C: negative correction
D: semidiameter error
225: The equation of time is 8m 40s. The apparent Sun is ahead
of the mean Sun. If you are on the central meridian of your
time zone, the apparent Sun will cross your meridian at
_____________.
A: 11-51-20 ZT
B: 12-00-00 ZT
C: 12-04-20 ZT
D: 12-08-40 ZT
226: What winds blow towards the equator from the area about
30ø north?
A: Prevailing westerlies
B: Roaring thirties
C: Equatorial flow
D: Northeast trades
227: The class of tide that prevails in the greatest number of
important harbors on the Atlantic Coast is ______________.
A: interval
B: mixed
C: diurnal
D: semidiurnal
Error reading USCG question 228
weather charts. Which of these symbols indicates a
convergence line?
229: The shoreline on charts generally represents the mean _____.
A: high water line
B: low water line
C: low water spring line
D: tide level
230: If the LORAN-C ground wave does NOT extend out as far as the
skywave skip distance, there will be a skip zone in which
______________.
A: no LORAN-C signal is received
B: only ground waves are received
C: only skywaves are received
D: both ground waves and skywaves are received
231: You are outbound in a buoyed channel on course 015ø T. You
sight a white light showing a Morse (A) characteristic
bearing 359ø relative. For safety, you should _______.
A: change course to 359ø T to pass near to the buoy
B: stay in the channel and leave the bouy to port
C: alter course to 000ø T and leave the buoy well clear to
starboard
D: check the chart to see where the marked danger lies in
232: Which statement concerning the chartlet TRUE? (Soundings and
heights are in meters)
A: Maury lightship is visible for 17 miles.
B: The bottom to the south-southeast of the lightship is soft
coral.
C: There is a 12-meter deep west of Beito Island and inside the
5-meter line.
D: There is a dangerous eddy southeast of Beito Island.
233: To determine which Loran-C signal to use, examine the chart
and find a set of LOP's which have an angle of at least ___.
A: 10ø
B: 15ø
C: 25ø
D: 30ø
234: When the declination of the Moon is 0ø12.5' S, you can
expect some tidal currents in Gulf Coast ports to ________.
A: exceed the predicted velocities
B: become reversing currents
C: have either a double ebb or a double flood
D: become weak and variable
235: When the equation of time is taken from the Nautical Almanac
for use in celestial navigation, it is used to determine
______________.
A: zone time
B: sunrise
C: time of local apparent noon
D: local mean time
236: The winds with the greatest effect on the set, drift, and
depth of the equatorial currents are the ___________.
A: doldrums
B: horse latitudes
C: trade winds
D: prevailing westerlies
237: Neap tides occur when the _____________.
A: Moon is in its first quarter and third quarter phases
B: Sun and Moon are on opposite sides of the Earth
C: Moon's declination is maximum and opposite to that of the
Sun
D: Sun and Moon are in conjunction
238: The predicted time that the flood begins at the entrance to
Delaware Bay is 1526. You are anchored off Chestnut St. in
Philadelphia. If you get underway bound for sea at 1430
and turn for 11 knots, at what point will you lose the ebb
current?
A: New Castle
B: Liston Pt.
C: Arnold Pt.
D: Ship John Shoal Lt.
239: As you enter a channel from seaward in a U.S. port, the
numbers on the starboard side buoys _____________.
A: decrease and the buoys are black
B: increase and the buoys are green
C: decrease and the buoys are red
D: increase and the buoys are red
240: In a river subject to tidal currents, the best time to dock
a ship without the assistance of tugs is _________.
A: at high water
B: when there is a following current
C: at slack water
D: at flood
241: A spherical buoy may be __________.
A: numbered
B: lettered
C: green
D: red
242: The difference between the heights of low and high tide is
the _____________.
A: range
B: period
C: depth
D: distance
243: The loran lines drawn on navigation charts represent ______.
A: ground waves
B: skywaves
C: either ground waves or skywaves interchangeably
D: an average between ground wave and skywave positions
244: To make sure of getting the full advantage of a favorable
current, you should reach an entrance or strait at what time
in relation to the predicted time of the favorable current?
A: One hour after the predicted time
B: At the predicted time
C: 30 minutes before flood, one hour after an ebb
D: 30 minutes before the predicted time
245: Yesterday you took a time tick using the 1200 GMT broadcast,
and the chronometer read 11h 59m 59s. Today at the 1200 GMT
time tick the chronometer read 00h 00m 01s. What is the
chronometer error?
A: Gaining 2 seconds
B: Losing 2 seconds
C: Fast 2 seconds
D: Fast 1 second
246: The consistent winds blowing from the horse latitudes to the
doldrums are called the ______________.
A: prevailing westerlies
B: polar easterlies
C: trade winds
D: roaring forties
247: Neap tides occur ____________.
A: at the start of spring, when the Sun is nearly over the
equator
B: only when the Sun and Moon are on the same sides of the
Earth and are nearly in line
C: when the Sun and Moon are at approximately 90ø to each
other, as seen from the Earth
D: when the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line, regardless
248: What is the index error of sextant A in illustration D050NG?
A: 0ø 10" off the arc
B: 0ø 10" on the arc
C: 3ø 00" off the arc
D: 4ø 20" off the arc
250: Weather systems in the middle latitudes generally travel
from _______.
A: west to east
B: east to west
C: north to south
D: None of the above
251: A mid-channel buoy, if lighted, will show a ___________.
A: fixed red light
B: Morse (A) white light
C: green light
D: flashing red light
252: A large automated navigational buoy, such as those that have
replaced some lightships, would be shown on a chart by which
symbol?
253: Loran-C is which type of system?
A: Reflected electron
B: Electrical radiation
C: Quarterpoint electrical navigation
D: Hyperbolic radio navigation
254: The range of tide is the __________.
A: difference between the heights of high and low tide
B: distance the tide moves out from the shore
C: duration of time between high and low tide
D: maximum depth of the water at high tide
255: On March 17, at 0500 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian
steaming eastward to west longitude. What is your local
time?
A: You are in -12 time zone.
B: It is 1700, March 18.
C: It is 0500, March 16.
D: It is 0500, March 18.
256: The belt of light and variable winds between the westerly
wind belt and the northeast trade winds is called the
______________.
A: subtropical high pressure belt
B: intertropical convergence zone
C: doldrum belt
D: polar frontal zone
257: Spring tides occur ___________.
A: at the start of spring, when the Sun is nearly over the
equator
B: only when the Sun and Moon are on the same side of the Earth
and nearly in line
C: when the Sun and Moon are at approximately 90ø to each other
as seen from the Earth
D: when the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line, in any
258: You are enroute to Savannah, GA, from Recife, Brazil. There
is a strong N'ly wind blowing. As you cross the axis of the
Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter ______________.
A: cirrus clouds
B: long swells
C: smoother seas and warmer water
D: steeper waves, closer together
Error reading USCG question 259
weather charts. The symbol indicated at letter "Q"
represents a _______________.
A: convergence zone
B: squall line
C: convergence line
D: weather boundary
260: The National Ocean Service publishes the ___________.
A: Light Lists
B: Coast Pilots
C: pilot charts
D: Sailing Directions
261: You are heading out to sea in a buoyed channel and see a
quick-flashing green light on a buoy ahead of you. In U.S.
waters, you should leave the buoy ______________.
A: well clear on either side
B: about 50 yards off on either side
C: to port
D: to starboard
262: Which of the buoy symbols in illustration D032NG indicates a
safe water mark?
263: Loran-C uses the multiple pulse system because __________.
A: less signal energy is necessary for receiver operation
B: more signal energy is available at the receiver
C: it significantly increases the peak power
D: it increases the signal capacity
264: Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant is the
principle cause of index error?
A: Telescope not being parallel to the frame
B: Index mirror and horizon glass not being parallel
C: Index mirror not being perpendicular to the frame
D: Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame
265: It is 1200 local time for an observer at 54ø E
longitude. Which statement is TRUE?
A: It is afternoon at Greenwich.
B: It is midnight at 126ø E longitude.
C: The observer is in time zone -4.
D: All of the above are true.
266: The horse latitudes are characterized by __________________.
A: weak pressure gradients and light, variable winds
B: the formation of typhoons or hurricanes in certain seasons
C: steady winds in one direction for six months followed by
wind reversal for the next six months
D: steady winds generally from the southeast in the Southern
267: You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The
range line is 309ø T. You are steering 306ø T and have the
range in sight as shown. The range continues to open. What
action should you take?
A: Alter course to the right to 309ø T or more to bring
the range in line.
B: Alter course to the left until the range closes, then
steer to the left of 306ø T.
C: Alter course to the left to close the range, then
alter course to 309ø T.
D: Maintain course as it is normal for the range to open as
268: The illustration shows the symbols used on radiofacsimile
weather charts. The symbol indicated at letter "L"
represents a ______________________.
A: convergence line
B: maritime air mass
C: warm front
D: convergence zone
269: The wind at Frying Pan shoals has been south-southwesterly
at an average velocity of 30 knots. The predicted set and
drift of the rotary current are 232ø at 0.8 knot. What
current should you expect?
A: 065ø at 1.2 knots
B: 092ø at 1.3 knots
C: 139ø at 0.6 knot
D: 224ø at 0.4 knot
270: You are entering port and have been instructed to anchor, as
your berth is not yet available. You are on a SW'ly
heading, preparing to drop anchor, when you observe the
range lights depicted in illustration D047NG on your
starboard beam. You should ___________.
A: drop the anchor immediately as the range lights mark an area
free of obstructions
B: drop the anchor immediately as a change in the position of
the range lights will be an indication of dragging anchor
C: ensure your ship will NOT block the channel or obstruct the
range while at anchor
D: NOT drop the anchor until the lights are in line
271: Your vessel is leaving New York harbor in dense fog. As the
vessel slowly proceeds toward sea, you sight a green can
buoy on the starboard bow. Which action should you take?
A: Turn hard right to get back into the channel.
B: Pass the buoy close to, leaving it to your port.
C: Stop and fix your position.
D: Stand on, leaving the buoy to your starboard.
272: What does the symbol shown indicate on a chart?
A: A sunken vessel marked by a buoy
B: A safe water beacon
C: A red and white can buoy
D: A can buoy with a rotating white light
273: Loran-C is which type of navigation system?
A: Hyperbolic, long-range navigation system
B: Short-range electronic
C: Long-range, high frequency navigation system
D: Long-range, with a frequency of 1950 kHz
274: Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant causes
side error?
A: Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame
B: Index mirror not being perpendicular to the frame
C: Telescope not being parallel to the frame
D: Elliptical centering error
275: Which statement concerning illustration D010NG is correct?
(Soundings and heights are in meters)
A: The sunken wreck southwest of Beito Island shows the hull or
superstructure above the sounding datum.
B: There is a 12-meter deep hole inside the 5-meter curve just
west of Beito Island.
C: The position of the lightship is indicated by the center of
the star on the symbol's mast.
D: Maury Lightship swings about her anchor on a circle with a
276: The region of high pressure extending around the Earth at
about 35ø N latitude is called the ___________.
A: prevailing westerlies
B: horse latitudes
C: troposphere
D: doldrums
277: Your vessel goes aground in soft mud. You would have the
best chance of refloating it on the next tide if it grounded
at __________.
A: low water neap
B: low water spring
C: high water neap
D: high water spring
278: You are underway on course 050² T and your maximum speed is
11 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 070² T, 80 miles
from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 270² T
at 19 knots. If you maneuver at 11 knots to avoid the
hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA?
A: 84 miles
B: 79 miles
C: 74 miles
D: 66 miles
279: As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in
a magnetic compass _____________.
A: remains aligned with compass north
B: also turns to starboard
C: first turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port
D: turns counterclockwise to port
280: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, a lighted buoy
with a spherical topmark marks ___________________.
A: the port side of the channel
B: safe water
C: a hazard to navigation
D: the position of underwater cables
281: A lighted buoy to be left to starboard, when entering a U.S.
port from seaward, shall have a __________.
A: white light
B: red light
C: green light
D: light characteristic of Morse (A)
282: The symbol which appears beside a light on a chart reads "Gp
Fl R (2) 10 sec 160 ft 19M". Which characteristic describes
the light?
A: It is visible 10 miles.
B: Its distinguishing number is "19M".
C: It has a radar reflector.
D: None of the above
283: Loran-C operates on a single frequency centered on
_____________.
A: 100 kHz
B: 500 kHz
C: 1,850 kHz
D: 1,950 kHz
284: The marine sextant is subject to seven different types of
errors, four of which may be corrected by the navigator. An
error NOT correctable by the navigator is _________________.
A: index error
B: prismatic error
C: perpendicularity of the horizon glass
D: perpendicularity of the index mirror
285: The apparent wind is zero when the true wind is __________.
A: zero
B: from ahead and equal to the ship's speed
C: from astern and equal to the ship's speed
D: from astern and is twice the ship's speed
286: On the pole side of the trade wind belt, there is an area
of high pressure with weak pressure gradients and light,
variable winds. This area is called the _________.
A: prevailing westerlies
B: geostrophic winds
C: doldrums
D: horse latitudes
287: The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are
reckoned in the tide tables is the same as that used for the
charts of the locality. The depression of the datum below
mean sea level for Hampton Roads, Virginia is _____________.
A: between -.7 and +.5 feet
B: between 1.9 and 3.2 feet
C: 4.1 feet
D: 1.2 feet
288: When using a radar in a unstabilized mode, fixes are
determined most easily from __________.
A: center bearings
B: tangent bearings
C: ranges
D: objects that are close aboard
289: A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at
different times and advanced to a common time is a(n)
_________________.
A: running fix
B: dead-reckoning position
C: fix
D: estimated position
290: The true wind is from 330² T, speed 6 knots. You want the
apparent wind to be 30 knots from 10² on your port bow.
To what course and speed must you change?
A: Cn 240², 28.0 knots
B: Cn 270², 28.0 knots
C: Cn 180², 30.0 knots
D: Cn 090², 32.5 knots
291: A buoy marking a wreck will show a(n) _______.
A: white light FL (2) and a topmark of 2 black spheres
B: occulting green light and may be lettered
C: yellow light and will be numbered
D: continuous quick white light and may be numbered
292: The symbol which appears beside a light on a chart reads "Gp
Fl R (2) 10 sec 160 ft 19M". Which characteristic does the
light possess?
A: It is visible two nautical miles.
B: Its distinguishing number is "19M".
C: It has a red light.
D: It flashes once every ten seconds.
293: The use of pulse groups and extremely precise timing at each
Loran-C station makes possible the use of _____________.
A: high frequency pulses
B: combinations of high and low frequency pulses
C: the same frequency for all stations in a chain
D: varied long and short pulses
294: What is a nonadjustable error of the sextant?
A: Prismatic error
B: Index error
C: Side error
D: Error of collimation
295: The difference (measured in degrees) between the GHA of the
body and the longitude of the observer is the _____________.
A: right ascension
B: meridian angle
C: SHA of the observer
D: zenith distance
296: The wind flow from the horse latitudes to the doldrums is
deflected due to __________________.
A: Coriolis force
B: the mid-latitude, semi-permanent high
C: differing atmospheric pressures
D: the prevailing westerlies
297: The tides in Boston Harbor generally _____________.
A: are diurnal in nature
B: have their variations caused by the changing declination of
the Moon
C: have a greater range than the tides in Gulf Coast ports
D: All of the above
298: A great circle crosses the equator at 173ø E. It will also
cross the equator at what other longitude?
A: 7ø W
B: 73ø E
C: 73ø W
D: 173ø W
299: Steady precipitation is typical of _______________________.
A: coming cold weather conditions
B: a warm front weather condition
C: high pressure conditions
D: scattered cumulus clouds
300: Which of the symbols shown represents a warm front?
301: In the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, lateral aids as seen
entering from seaward will display lights with which
characteristic?
A: Flashing
B: Occulting
C: Quick Flashing
D: All of the above
302: Which symbol represents a 20-fathom curve?
A: -..-..-..-..-
B: - - - - - - - -
C: - - . - - . - - . - - .
D: - - - - - - - -
303: A Loran-C receiver in operation first receives pulses from
the _____________.
A: slave station
B: master station
C: multiple stations
D: secondary stations
304: In order to remove index error from a sextant, you should
adjust the ___________________.
A: index mirror to make it parallel to the horizon glass with
the index set at zero
B: horizon glass to make it parallel to the index mirror with
the index set at zero
C: horizon glass to make it parallel to the sextant frame
D: telescope to make it perpendicular to the sextant frame
305: IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from
seaward, the port side of a channel would be marked by a
_____________.
A: red can buoy
B: black can buoy
C: red conical buoy
D: black conical buoy
306: Weather conditions in the middle latitudes generally move
_________.
A: eastward
B: westward
C: northward
D: southward
307: The time meridian that is used when computing the currents
for Pensacola Bay, Florida, is _____________.
A: 60ø W
B: 75ø W
C: 90ø W
D: 105ø W
308: The wind at Frying Pan shoals has been west-northwesterly at
an average velocity of 40 knots. The predicted set and
drift of the rotary current are 323ø at 0.6 knot. What
current should you expect?
A: 001ø at 0.7 knot
B: 018ø at 0.4 knot
C: 052ø at 0.6 knot
D: 089ø at 0.9 knot
309: You are underway on course 050² T and your maximum speed is
12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 120² T, 110 miles
from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 285² T
at 25 knots. What course should you steer at 12 knots to
have the maximum CPA?
A: 332²
B: 339²
C: 346²
D: 357²
310: Which sextant shown has an index error of 3'30" off the
arc?
311: You are steaming southward along the west coast of the
United States when you encounter a buoy showing a flashing
red light. The buoy should be left on ______________.
A: the vessel's starboard side
B: the vessel's port side
C: either side close aboard
D: either side well clear
312: The depth of water on a chart is indicated as 23 meters.
This is equal to _________________.
A: 11.5 fathoms
B: 12.6 fathoms
C: 69.0 feet
D: 78.6 feet
313: The Loran-C receiver _____________.
A: is not affected by interference
B: can be used at any distance with accuracy
C: can be affected by interference
D: is reliable only from sunrise to sunset
314: Which of these sextant errors is nonadjustable?
A: Prismatic error
B: Graduation error
C: Centering error
D: All of the above
315: Which statement about the time diagram shown DO08NG is TRUE?
A: You are in west longitude.
B: Your date is ahead of Greenwich.
C: The meridian angle of the Sun is east.
D: The GHA of the Sun is less than 180².
316: According to Buys Ballot's law, when an observer in the
Northern Hemisphere experiences a northwest wind, the center
of low pressure is located to the ______________.
A: northeast
B: west-southwest
C: northwest
D: south-southeast
317: The time meridian used for tide computations in New York
Harbor is _____________.
A: 52ø30' W
B: 60ø00' W
C: 75ø00' W
D: 82ø30' W
318: Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid
must have a device to indicate the _____________.
A: distance to the next port
B: speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
C: time of the next navigational satellite pass
D: None of the above
Error reading USCG question 319
weather charts. The symbol indicated at letter "F"
represents a _______________.
A: maritime air mass
B: weather boundary
C: convergence zone
D: squall line
320: Sometimes foreign charts are reproduced by DMA. On such a
chart, a wire-dragged, swept area may be shown in green or
____________.
A: red
B: black
C: purple
D: yellow
321: Which buoy may be even numbered?
A: Mid-channel buoy
B: Unlighted nun buoy
C: Lighted green buoy
D: All of the above
322: The chart symbol indicating that the bottom is coral is
_____________.
323: The position accuracy of Loran-C degrades with increasing
distance from the transmitting stations as ________________.
A: gains are made over the signal path
B: a result of variation in propagation conditions
C: the frequency of the pulses increases
D: the stations shift pulses
324: Index error of a sextant is primarily caused by __________.
A: improperly correcting the other errors in a sextant
B: the horizon glass not being parallel to the horizon mirror
C: the horizon glass not being parallel to the index mirror
D: human error in taking a celestial observation
325: What is the longitude of the geographical position of a body
whose Greenwich hour angle is 210ø30'?
A: 30ø30' E
B: 59ø30' W
C: 120ø30' W
D: 149ø30' E
326: You are steaming west in the North Atlantic in an
extratropical cyclonic storm, and the wind is dead ahead.
According to the law of Buys Ballot, the center of low
pressure lies to the ________.
A: north
B: south
C: east
D: west
327: When daylight savings time is kept the times of tide and
current calculations must be adjusted. One way of doing
this is to __________.
A: subtract one hour from the times listed under the
reference stations
B: add one hour to the times listed under the reference
stations
C: apply no correction, as the times in the reference
stations are adjusted for daylight savings time
D: add 15² to the standard meridian when calculating the
328: The direction of prevailing winds in the Northern hemisphere
is caused by the ______________________________.
A: magnetic field at the North Pole
B: Gulf Stream
C: Earth's rotation
D: Arctic cold fronts
329: The symbols shown are used on radiofacsimile weather charts.
Which symbol indicates a weather boundary?
330: You are taking bearings on two known objects ashore. The
BEST fix is obtained when the angle between the lines of
position is ___________.
A: 90ø
B: 30ø
C: 45ø
D: 60ø
331: What indicates a buoy that should be left to port when
entering from seaward? (U.S. Aids to Navigation System)
A: White light
B: Group flashing characteristic
C: Nun shape
D: Odd number
332: Which chart symbol indicates the bottom is clay?
333: Loran-C stations transmit groups of pulses at specific
times. The time interval between transmissions from the
master station is the ________.
A: coding delay
B: group repetition interval
C: pulse interval
D: phase code
334: The index error is determined by adjusting the ____________.
A: sextant frame
B: horizon glass
C: index mirror
D: micrometer drum
335: What is the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is
A: 127ø33' E
B: 52ø27' E
C: 61ø52' W
D: 61ø52' E
336: You are steaming eastward in the North Atlantic in an
extratropical cyclonic storm and the wind is dead ahead.
According to the law of Buys Ballot, the center of the low
pressure lies ______________.
A: ahead of you
B: astern of you
C: to the north
D: to the south
337: To predict the actual depth of water using the Tide Tables,
the number obtained from the Tide Tables is __________.
A: the actual depth
B: added to or subtracted from the charted depth
C: multiplied by the charted depth
D: divided by the charted depth
338: The illustration shows the symbols used on radio facsimile
weather charts. The symbol indicated at letter "N"
represents ____________________.
A: hail
B: freezing rain
C: rain
D: snow
339: The wind at Frying Pan shoals has been north-northeasterly
at an average velocity of 30 knots. The predicted set and
drift of the rotary current are 355ø at 0.8 knot. What
current should you expect?
A: 010ø at 1.1 knots
B: 047ø at 0.3 knot
C: 325ø at 0.7 knot
D: 279ø at 1.0 knot
340: Information about the direction and velocity of rotary tidal
currents is found in the ___________.
A: Mariner's Guide
B: Nautical Almanac
C: Tide Tables
D: Tidal Current Tables
341: Buoys which only mark the left or right side of the channel
will never exhibit a light with which characteristic?
A: Flashing
B: Quick flashing
C: Composite group flashing
D: Equal interval (isophase)
342: A polyconic projection is based on a __________________.
A: plane tangent at one point
B: cylinder tangent at one parallel
C: cone tangent at one parallel
D: series of cones tangent at selected parallels
344: A marine sextant has the index arm set at zero and the
reflected image of the horizon forms a continuous line with
the actual image. When the sextant is rotated about the
line of sight the images separate. The sextant has
___________________.
A: error of perpendicularity
B: side error
C: prismatic error
D: centering error
345: A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar ________.
A: should never use radar bearings
B: should only use radar bearings when the range exceeds the
distance to the horizon
C: can use radar information from one object to fix the
position
D: must use information from targets forward of the beam
346: If your weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure
area to be 100 miles due east of your position, what winds
can you expect in the Northern Hemisphere?
A: East to northeast
B: East to southeast
C: North to northwest
D: South to southeast
347: The illustration shows the symbols used on radiofacsimile
weather charts. Which of these symbols indicates rain?
348: When using a radar in an unstabilized mode, fixes are
determined most easily from _____________________.
A: center bearings
B: tangent bearings
C: objects that are close aboard
D: ranges
349: The direction of the southeast trade winds is a
result of the __________.
A: equatorial current
B: humidity
C: rotation of the earth
D: change of seasons
350: When making landfall at night, the light from a powerful
lighthouse may sometimes be seen before the lantern breaks
the horizon. This light is called the ___________.
A: diffusion
B: backscatter
C: loom
D: elevation
351: Which buoy may be odd numbered?
A: A spherical buoy
B: An unlighted can buoy
C: A red buoy
D: A yellow buoy
352: Which chart projection would be most suitable for marine
surveying?
A: Gnomonic
B: Lambert conformal
C: Mercator
D: Polyconic
354: In order to remove side error from a sextant, you should
adjust the _________________.
A: horizon glass to make it parallel to the horizon mirror with
the index set at zero
B: horizon glass to make it perpendicular to the index mirror
with the index set at zero
C: horizon glass to make it perpendicular to the sextant frame
D: telescope to make it parallel to the sextant frame
355: During the month of October the Sun's declination is ______.
A: north and increasing
B: north and decreasing
C: south and increasing
D: south and decreasing
356: When facing into the wind in the Northern Hemisphere the
center of low pressure lies _________________.
A: directly in front of you
B: directly behind you
C: to your left and behind you
D: to your right and behind you
357: On 10 August 1983 you will dock near Days Point, Weehawken,
on the Hudson River, at 1800 DST (ZD +4). The charted depth
alongside the pier is 24 feet (7.3 meters). What will be
the depth of water when you dock?
A: 23.5 feet (7.1 m)
B: 23.9 feet (7.2 m)
C: 24.9 feet (7.5 m)
D: 26.3 feet (8.0 m)
358: What will be the set of the rotary current at Nantucket
Shoals at 1245 (ZD +5) 14 January 1983?
A: 015ø
B: 125ø
C: 162ø
D: 225ø
359: You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at
4.5 knots on course 233ø T, and bears 264ø T, 68 miles from
you. What is the time to intercept if you make 13 Knots?
A: 6h 31m
B: 6h 47m
C: 7h 03m
D: 7h 34m
Error reading USCG question 360
weather charts. The symbol indicated at letter "M"
represents _______.
A: rain
B: snow
C: hail
D: ice
361: As your vessel is heading southward along the east coast of
the United States, you encounter a buoy showing a red
flashing light. How should you pass this buoy?
A: Pass it about 50 yards off on either side.
B: Leave it to your starboard.
C: Leave it to your port.
D: Pass it well clear on either side.
362: Which statement about a simple conic chart projection
is TRUE?
A: It is an equal-area projection.
B: It is a conformal projection.
C: Meridians appear as curved lines.
D: The scale is correct along any meridian.
364: What causes the error of collimation with regards to the
four adjustments to a sextant?
A: Telescope not parallel to the frame
B: Personal error
C: The frame and index mirror not perpendicular
D: The frame and horizon glass not perpendicular
365: The Sun at a maximum declination north would be
approximately at ______________.
A: aphelion
B: perihelion
C: autumnal equinox
D: first point of Aries
366: If an observer in the Northern Hemisphere faces the surface
wind, the center of low pressure is to his______________.
A: left, slightly behind him
B: right, slightly behind him
C: left, slightly in front of him
D: right, slightly in front of him
367: What will be the time after 0800 EST (ZD +5) that the height
of the tide at South Freeport, ME, will be 6.0 feet
(1.8 meters) on 7 November 1983?
A: 0936
B: 0942
C: 0951
D: 1001
368: A great circle crosses the equator at 134ø E. It will also
cross the equator at what other longitude?
A: 46ø W
B: 124ø W
C: 134ø W
D: 34ø E
369: You are underway on course 050² T and your maximum speed is
11 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 070² T, 80 miles
from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 270² T
at 19 knots. What course should you steer at 11 knots to
have the maximum CPA?
A: 250²
B: 234²
C: 227²
D: 2152
370: Prevailing winds between 30² N and 60² N latitude are from
the __________________.
A: north
B: south
C: east
D: west
371: Which buoy may be odd numbered?
A: Mid-channel buoy
B: Unlighted nun buoy
C: Lighted green buoy
D: All of the above
372: You would find the variation on a polyconic projection chart
__________.
A: on the compass rose
B: on the mileage scale
C: written on the chart title
D: at each line of longitude
374: There are seven sources of error in the marine sextant. Of
the four errors listed, which one is adjustable?
A: Error of collimation
B: Prismatic error
C: Graduation error
D: Centering error
375: If the Sun's observed altitude is 47ø50', the zenith
distance is _____.
A: 42ø10'
B: 42ø50'
C: 47ø50'
D: 132ø10'
376: According to Buys Ballot's law, when an observer in the
Northern Hemisphere experiences a northeast wind the center
of low pressure is located to the ______________.
A: northeast
B: west-southwest
C: northwest
D: south-southeast
377: Determine the height of the tide at 2045 EST (ZD +5) at
Augusta, ME, on 8 March 1983.
A: 1.4 feet (0.5 meter)
B: 1.9 feet (0.6 meter)
C: 2.3 feet (0.7 meter)
D: 2.6 feet (0.8 meter)
378: A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar _________.
A: should never use radar bearings
B: can use radar information from one object to fix the
position
C: should only use radar bearings when the range exceeds the
distance to the horizon
D: must use information from targets forward of the beam
379: The steady current circling the globe at about 60ø S
is the __________.
A: Prevailing Westerly
B: Sub-Polar Flow
C: West Wind Drift
D: Humboldt Current
380: Prevailing winds between 30ø N and 60ø N latitude are from
the _______________.
A: east
B: west
C: north
D: south
381: A nun buoy will _______________.
A: be green in color
B: have an even number
C: be left to port when entering from seaward
D: be cylindrical in shape
382: Which would you consult for information about the general
current circulation in the North Atlantic Ocean?
A: Pilot chart
B: Coast Pilot
C: Current Table
D: Climatological Atlas
384: Which is a nonadjustable error of the sextant?
A: Error of perpendicularity
B: Side error
C: Error of collimation
D: Centering error
385: The difference of latitude (l) between the geographic
position (GP) of a celestial body and your position, at the
time of upper transit, is represented by _____.
A: colatitude
B: codistance
C: zenith distance
D: altitude
386: Your vessel is on course 180² T speed 22 knots. The
apparent wind is from 70² off the port bow, speed 20 knots.
The true direction and speed of the wind are ______________.
A: 45² T, 21.0 knots
B: 51² T, 24.2 knots
C: 58² T, 21.2 knots
D: 64² T, 26.0 knots
388: You are underway on course 120² T and your maximum speed is
12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 150² T, 120 miles
from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 295² T
at 20 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the
hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA?
A: 89 miles
B: 96 miles
C: 105 miles
D: 117 miles
389: The edge of a hurricane has overtaken your vessel in the
Gulf of Mexico, and the northwest wind of a few hours ago
has shifted to the west. This is an indication that you are
located in the __________.
A: navigable semicircle
B: dangerous semicircle
C: low pressure area
D: eye of the storm
390: During the winter months, the southeast trade winds are
________.
A: stronger than during the summer months
B: weaker than during the summer months
C: drier than during the summer months
D: wetter than during the summer months
391: When outbound from a U.S. port, a buoy displaying a flashing
red light indicates ____________.
A: a junction with the preferred channel to the left
B: a sharp turn in the channel to the right
C: the port side of the channel
D: a wreck to be left on the vessel's starboard side
392: A pilot chart does NOT contain information about ________.
A: average wind conditions
B: tidal currents
C: magnetic variation
D: average limits of field ice
393: If your position is LAT 25ø N, LONG 35ø W, what is the
correction you would apply to an RDF bearing received from a
transmitting station in LAT 30ø N, LONG 40ø W?
A: -1.3ø
B: +1.3ø
C: -2.1ø
D: +2.1ø
394: An instrument designed to maintain a continuous record of
atmospheric pressure is a(n) _________________.
A: mercurial barometer
B: aneroid barometer
C: barograph
D: thermograph
395: If the Sun's observed altitude is 27ø12', the zenith
distance is _____.
A: 62ø48'
B: 27ø12'
C: 152ø48'
D: 43ø12'
396: Your vessel is on course 150² T, speed 17 knots. The
apparent wind is from 40² off the starboard bow, speed 15
knots. What is the speed of the true wind?
A: 9.0 knots
B: 10.2 knots
C: 11.0 knots
D: 12.0 knots
397: The mean tide level at Peaks Island, ME, is _____.
A: 1.8 feet (0.5 meters)
B: 2.5 feet (0.8 meters)
C: 3.2 feet (1.0 meters)
D: 4.5 feet (1.4 meters)
398: The velocity of the apparent wind can be less than the true
wind and from the same direction, if certain conditions are
present. One condition is that the ___________.
A: ship's speed is more than the true wind velocity
B: true wind is from dead astern
C: true wind is on the beam
D: true wind is from dead ahead
399: Where will you find information about the duration of slack
water?
A: American Practical Navigator
B: Sailing Directions
C: Tide Tables
D: Tidal Current Tables
400: Information about the currents for the Pacific Coast of
the U. S. are found in the _____.
A: Ocean Current Tables
B: Nautical Almanac
C: Tide Tables
D: Tidal Current Tables
401: You are steaming in a westerly direction along the Gulf
Coast. You see ahead of you a lighted buoy showing a red
isophase light. Which action should you take?
A: Alter course to port and leave the buoy to starboard.
B: Alter course to starboard and leave the buoy to port.
C: Alter course and leave the buoy near by on either side.
D: Alter course and pass the buoy well-off on either side.
402: All of the following can be found on a Pilot Chart EXCEPT
information concerning the ______________.
A: percentage of frequency of wave heights
B: percentage of poor visibility conditions
C: sea surface temperatures
D: amounts of precipitation
403: Your position is LAT 20ø00' N, LONG 45ø00' W when you take
a radio bearing on a ship in distress in LAT 15ø00' N, LONG
40ø00' W. Your RDF bearing corrected for calibration error
is 135.6ø T. What is the rhumb line course to rendezvous
with the vessel in distress?
A: 134.9ø T
B: 135.6ø T
C: 136.2ø T
D: 136.9ø T
404: An aneroid barometer is an instrument _____________________.
A: used to measure the speed of wind
B: in which the pressure of the air is measured
C: that tells which direction a storm is coming from
D: used to measure the height of waves
405: At upper transit, if the zenith distance is 34ø, the
geographical distance from the observer to a body's GP
is _____.
A: 510 miles
B: 1220 miles
C: 2040 miles
D: 2260 miles
406: Your vessel is on course 135² T speed 18 knots. From the
appearance of the sea you estimate the speed of the true
wind as 24.5 knots. The apparent wind is 40² on the
starboard bow. Determine the speed of the apparent wind.
A: 24.2 knots
B: 28.4 knots
C: 32.2 knots
D: 35.5 knots
407: What would be the height of the tide at Crisfield, MD, at
0310 DST (ZD +4) on 6 May 1983?
A: 0.1 foot
B: 0.5 foot
C: 1.1 feet
D: 1.6 feet
408: A buoy bears 176ø T at 3000 yards. What is the course
to make good to leave the buoy 100 yards to port?
A: 174ø T
B: 176ø T
C: 178ø T
D: 180ø T
409: On November 1st the zone time is 1700 EST (ZD +5) in LONG
75ø W. What is the corresponding zone time and date in
LONG 135ø E?
A: 0700, November 2nd
B: 0700, November 1st
C: 2200, November 1st
D: 2200, October 31st
410: The height of the tide at low water is 0.0 feet. The range
is 9.0 feet. The duration is 06h 00m. The height of the
tide 02h 12m before high water will be _________________.
A: 8.3 feet
B: 6.3 feet
C: 4.7 feet
D: 2.7 feet
411: When entering from seaward, a buoy displaying a
single-flashing red light would indicate ____________.
A: a junction with the preferred channel to the left
B: a sharp turn in the channel to the right
C: the starboard side of the channel
D: a wreck to be left on the vessel's port side
412: If you were sailing in the North Pacific and were interested
in the ice and iceberg limits, you could find this
information in the __________.
A: Pilot Chart
B: Coast Pilot
C: Notice to Mariners
D: None of the above
413: You would need to apply the conversion angle to an RDF
bearing, prior to plotting the bearing on a chart, when the
ship and the station are both on ______________.
A: latitude 50ø S, 200 miles apart
B: longitude 50ø W, 150 miles apart
C: the equator, 175 miles apart
D: latitude 30ø N, 50 miles apart
414: The barometer is an instrument for measuring the __________.
A: temperature
B: relative humidity
C: dew point
D: atmospheric pressure
415: If the Sun's observed altitude is 54ø30', what is the zenith
distance?
A: 35ø30'
B: 45ø30'
C: 12û30'
D: 14ø30'
416: A ship is on course 195ø at a speed of 15 knots. The
apparent wind is from 40ø on the port bow, speed 30 knots.
The direction and speed of the true wind are _____________.
A: 068ø T, 30 knots
B: 127ø T, 21 knots
C: 263ø T, 42 knots
D: 292ø T, 42 knots
417: On 6 July 1983, at 1830 DST (ZD +4), what will be the
predicted height of tide at Newburgh, NY?
A: 3.3 feet
B: 2.6 feet
C: 2.4 feet
D: 2.0 feet
418: In most cases, the direction of the apparent wind lies
between the bow and ____________.
A: the direction of the true wind
B: true north
C: the beam on the windward side
D: the beam on the lee side
419: The ocean bottom that extends from the shoreline out to an
area where there is a marked change in slope to a greater
depth is the ________.
A: abyssal plain
B: continental shelf
C: borderland
D: offshore terrace
420: You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The
range line is 309ø T. You are steering 306ø T and have the
range in sight as shown. The range continues to open. What
action should you take?
A: Alter course to the left until the range closes then
steer to the left of 306ø T.
B: Maintain course as it is normal for the range to open as
you get close.
C: Alter course to the left to close the range, then
alter course to 309ø T.
D: Alter course to the right to 309ø T or more to bring
421: Daylight savings time is a form of zone time that adopts the
time _____________.
A: one zone to the west
B: one zone to the east
C: two zones to the west
D: two zones to the east
422: If you are sailing from the East Coast of the United
States to the Caribbean Sea, which publication would contain
information on weather, currents, and storms?
A: Sailing Charts of the Caribbean Sea
B: Pilot Charts of the North Atlantic
C: Light Lists, Atlantic and Gulf Coast
D: Tidal Current Tables
423: You have calibrated your RDF. When compiling the
calibration table, the correction to be applied to any
future RDF bearings is listed against the ______________.
A: true bearing of the transmitter
B: relative bearing of the transmitter
C: heading of the vessel
D: time of reception
424: For an accurate barometer check, you would ________________.
A: check it with a barometer on another vessel
B: take readings from several barometers and average them
C: check it with the barometer at the ship chandlery
D: check it against radio or National Weather Service reports
425: 90ø - Ho = _____.
A: sextant altitude
B: co-latitude
C: LHA
D: zenith distance
426: The wind speed and direction observed from a moving vessel
is known as _________________.
A: coordinate wind
B: true wind
C: apparent wind
D: anemometer wind
427: On 23 March 1983, at Kingston Point, NY, what is the
earliest time after 1700 EST (ZD +5) that the predicted tide
will be +2.0 feet?
A: 1730
B: 1800
C: 1854
D: 2030
428: A buoy bears 178ø T at 3000 yards (2700 meters). What is the
course to make good to leave the buoy 100 yards (90 meters)
to starboard?
A: 174ø T
B: 176ø T
C: 178ø T
D: 180ø T
429: A great circle crosses the equator at 127ø W. It will also
cross the equator at what other longitude?
A: 127ø E
B: 53ø E
C: 27ø E
D: 27ø W
430: The southeast trade winds actually blow toward the ________.
A: southeast
B: south
C: east
D: northwest
431: When a buoy marks a channel bifurcation, the preferred
channel is NOT indicated by ______________.
A: the shape of an unlighted buoy
B: the light color of a lighted buoy
C: the color of the topmost band
D: whether the number is odd or even
432: When using a Lambert conformal chart in high latitudes,
angles such as bearings are measured in reference to
______________.
A: the meridian through the object of the bearing
B: the meridian through the ship's position
C: the meridian midway between the ship and the object
D: any meridian
433: You are swinging ship to calibrate the RDF. The gyro error
is 2ø W. The RDF gyro bearing of a station is 308ø at the
same time the visual bearing is 307ø. At the time of the
bearing, you are heading 270ø T. When you prepare the
calibration chart, you would indicate the _______.
A: correction is -1ø when the relative bearing is 035ø
B: error is -1ø when the heading is 270ø
C: correction is +1ø when the relative bearing is 325ø
D: error is -1ø on all headings
434: The purpose of the "set" hand on an aneroid barometer is to
_______.
A: adjust the barometer
B: indicate any change in the reading of the barometer
C: provide a correction for height above sea level
D: provide a correction for temperature changes
435: If an observer is at 35ø N latitude, his zenith is
_____.
A: 55ø S of the celestial equator
B: at the north celestial pole
C: 35ø N of the celestial equator
D: 55ø N of the celestial equator
436: A wind vane on a moving vessel shows _________________.
A: dead reckoning wind direction
B: true wind direction
C: apparent wind direction
D: estimated wind direction
437: Your vessel will be docking at Chester, PA, during the
evening of 22 April 1983. The chart shows a depth of 20
feet (6.1 meters) at the pier. What will be the depth of
water available at 1856 EST (ZD +5)?
A: 22.4 feet (6.8 meters)
B: 23.4 feet (7.2 meters)
C: 24.9 feet (7.6 meters)
D: 25.7 feet (7.8 meters)
438: Your longitude is 124² E, and your local mean time is 0520
on the 5th of the month. The mean time and date at
Greenwich is _________.
A: 1336 on the 4th
B: 1336 on the 5th
C: 2104 on the 4th
D: 2104 on the 5th
439: If a weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure
system to be 100 miles due east of you, what winds can you
expect in the Southern Hemisphere?
A: South-southwesterly
B: North-northwesterly
C: South-southeasterly
D: North-northeasterly
440: You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The
range line is 309ø T. You are steering 306ø T. The range
appears as shown and is closing. Which action should you
take?
A: Continue on the present heading until the range is in
line, then alter course to the left.
B: Immediately alter course to the right to bring the range
in line.
C: Immediately alter course to 309ø T.
D: Continue on course until the range is closed, then
441: A yellow buoy may exhibit a(n) _____________.
A: fixed red light
B: flashing light
C: white light
D: occulting light
442: In very high latitudes, the most practical chart projection
is the _____________.
A: Mercator
B: gnomonic
C: azimuthal
D: Lambert conformal
443: You are swinging ship to calibrate the RDF. The RDF gyro
bearing is 054ø at the same time the visual bearing is 053ø
pgc. Gyro error is 1ø W. At the time of the bearings the
heading was 339ø pgc. Which statement about the
calibrations are TRUE?
A: 1ø must be subtracted from all RDF bearings.
B: 1ø must be subtracted from all bearings when the ship is
headed 339ø T.
C: 1ø must be subtracted from all RDF bearings of 053ø T.
D: 1ø must be subtracted from all RDF bearings of 075ø
444: A sylphon cell is a part of a ________________.
A: maximum thermometer
B: barograph
C: thermograph
D: hygrometer
445: The values of the Greenwich hour angle and declination,
tabulated in all almanacs, are for the _________________.
A: upper limb of a celestial body
B: lower limb of a celestial body
C: centers of the various celestial bodies
D: lower limb of the Sun and Moon; center of the stars and
446: The usual sequence of directions in which a tropical cyclone
moves in the Southern Hemisphere is ______________.
A: northwest, west, and south
B: southwest, south, and southeast
C: north, northwest, and east
D: west, northwest, and north
447: On 27 April 1983, at 1105 DST (ZD +4), what will be the
predicted height of tide at Falkner Island, CT?
A: 5.3 feet (1.6 m)
B: 5.6 feet (1.7 m)
C: 6.2 feet (1.9 m)
D: 6.8 feet (2.7 m)
448: Mean high water is the reference datum used to measure ____.
A: soundings on the east coast of the United States
B: soundings in European waters
C: heights of topographical features in the United States
D: both heights and soundings worldwide
449: You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at
5 knots on course 063ø T, and bears 136ø T at 78 miles from
you. What is the course to steer at 13 knots to intercept
vessel A?
A: 340ø
B: 295ø
C: 158ø
D: 114ø
450: You are enroute to Jacksonville, FL, from San Juan, P.R.
There is a fresh N'ly wind blowing. As you cross the axis
of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter ________.
A: cirrus clouds
B: smoother seas and warmer water
C: steeper waves, closer together
D: long swells
451: Which light characteristic can be used on a special purpose
mark?
A: Fixed
B: Occulting
C: Equal interval
D: Quick flashing
452: When navigating in high latitudes and using a chart based on
a Lambert conformal projection, ______________.
A: a straight line drawn on the chart approximates a great
circle
B: the chart should not be used outside of the standard
parallels
C: the course angle is measured at the mid-longitude of the
track line
D: distance cannot be measured directly from the chart
453: The quadrantal correction to be applied to an RDF bearing is
determined ______________.
A: from Bowditch Vol. II
B: from a table on board your ship
C: by requesting the calibration station to provide the
information after the RDF is calibrated
D: by comparing the true and relative bearings of the
454: On what does the operation of an aneroid barometer depend?
A: Thin, metal, air tight cell
B: Curved tube containing alcohol
C: Column of mercury supported by atmospheric pressure
D: Expansion of mercury in a closed tube
455: The height of eye correction is smaller than geometrical dip
because of ____________.
A: the angle between the horizontal and the line of sight to
the visible horizon
B: index error
C: parallax
D: terrestrial refraction
456: Which condition exists in the eye of a hurricane?
A: Wind rapidly changing direction
B: A temperature much lower than that outside the eye
C: Towering cumulonimbus clouds
D: An extremely low barometric pressure
457: Find the height of the tide at Port Wentworth, GA, on
5 October 1983, at 1840 DST (ZD +4).
A: 3.0 feet
B: 3.5 feet
C: 4.0 feet
D: 4.4 feet
458: The prevailing westerlies of the Southern Hemisphere
blow 18-30 knots _______________________.
A: all year long
B: during the summer months only
C: during the winter only
D: during spring only
459: A buoy bears 178ø T at 3000 yards (2700 meters). What is
the course to make good to leave the buoy 100 yards
(90 meters) to port?
A: 174ø T
B: 176ø T
C: 178ø T
D: 180ø T
460: When using horizontal sextant angles of three objects to fix
your position, an indeterminate position will result in
which situation?
A: The objects lie in a straight line.
B: The vessel is inside of a triangle formed by the objects.
C: The vessel is outside of a triangle formed by the objects.
D: A circle will pass through your position and the three
461: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, a yellow buoy may
_______.
A: mark a fish net area
B: be lighted with a white light
C: show a fixed red light
D: All of the above
462: For what purpose would using a Lambert conformal chart be
more convenient than using a Mercator?
A: Plotting radio bearings over a long distance
B: Determining latitude and longitude of a fix
C: Measuring rhumb line distances
D: Measuring rhumb line directions
463: The signal transmitted by a radiobeacon station is called
its ____________________.
A: group sequence
B: frequency
C: directional signal
D: characteristic signal
464: Prior to reading an aneroid barometer, you should tap the
face lightly with your finger to _________________.
A: expose any loose connections
B: demagnetize the metal elements
C: bring the pointer to its true position
D: contract and expand the glass face
465: When applying a dip correction to the sighted sextant
angle (hs), you always subtract the dip because you are
correcting _____________.
A: hs to the visible horizon
B: hs to the sensible horizon
C: hs to the celestial horizon
D: Ho to the celestial horizon
466: In the relatively calm area near the hurricane center, the
seas are ______________.
A: moderate but easily navigated
B: calm
C: mountainous and confused
D: mountainous but fairly regular as far as direction is
467: At what time after 1400 EST (ZD +5), on 4 January 1983, will
the height of the tide at Port Wentworth, GA, be 3.0 feet?
A: 1612
B: 1630
C: 1653
D: 1718
468: Which of the symbols in illustration D018NG represents a
cold front?
469: Where are the prevailing westerlies of the Southern
Hemisphere located?
A: Between the Equator and 10ø latitude
B: Between 10ø and 20ø latitude
C: Between 30ø and 60ø latitude
D: Between 60ø and 90ø latitude
470: You are underway on course 120ø T and can make 12 knots. The
eye of a hurricane bears 150ø T at 120 miles. The hurricane
is on course 295ø at 20 knots. What course should you steer
at 12 knots to have the maximum CPA?
A: 312ø
B: 330ø
C: 348ø
D: 001ø
471: Yellow lights may appear on ______________.
A: special purpose buoys
B: vertically-striped buoys
C: horizontally-banded buoys
D: spherical buoys
472: Which conic projection chart features straight lines which
closely approximate a great circle?
A: Polyconic
B: Lambert conformal
C: Orthographic
D: Stereographic
473: The quadrantal error of a radio bearing is caused by
__________.
A: polarization at sunrise and sunset
B: not taking the bearing from the transmitting antenna
C: the signal passing over land before it reaches sea
D: the metal in a ship's structure
474: Which indication on the barometer is most meaningful in
forecasting weather?
A: The words "Fair -- Change -- Rain"
B: The direction and rate of change of barometric pressure
C: The actual barometric pressure
D: The relative humidity
475: A correction for augmentation is included in the Nautical
Almanac corrections for _________________.
A: the Sun
B: the Moon
C: Venus
D: None of the above
476: Tropical cyclones normally form within which of the
following belts of latitude?
A: 5ø to 15ø
B: 15ø to 30ø
C: 30ø to 45ø
D: 45ø to 60ø
477: Determine the height of the tide at 1430 EST (ZD +5) at New
Bedford, MA, on 10 April 1983.
A: 1.1 feet
B: 1.2 feet
C: 1.4 feet
D: 1.7 feet
478: The velocity of the apparent wind can be more than the true
wind, and come from the same direction, if certain
conditions are present. One condition is that the
__________.
A: ship's speed must be less than the true wind velocity
B: true wind must be from dead astern
C: true wind velocity must be faster than the ship's speed
D: true wind must be from dead ahead
479: You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at
5 knots on course 063ø T, and bears 136ø T at 78 miles from
you. What is the course to steer at 13 knots to intercept
vessel A?
A: 114ø
B: 158ø
C: 295ø
D: 340ø
480: What kind of pressure systems travel in easterly waves?
A: High pressure
B: Low pressure
C: Subsurface pressure
D: Terrastatic pressure
481: A special mark (yellow buoy), if lighted, may exhibit which
light rhythm?
A: Flashing
B: Morse "A"
C: Equal interval
D: Occulting
482: Which statement about a gnomonic chart is correct?
A: A rhumb line appears as a straight line.
B: Distance is measured at the midlatitude of the track line.
C: Meridians appear as curved lines converging toward the
nearer pole.
D: Parallels, except the equator, appear as curved lines.
483: Coral atolls, or a chain of islands at right angles to the
radar beam, may show as a long line rather than as
individual targets due to ______.
A: the effects of beam width
B: limitations on range resolution
C: the pulse length of the radar
D: the multiple-target resolution factor
484: The needle of an aneroid barometer points to 30.05 on the
dial. This indicates that the barometric pressure is
_________________________.
A: 30.05 inches of mercury
B: 30.05 millimeters of mercury
C: 30.05 millibars
D: falling
485: A phase correction is applied to observations of
________________.
A: the Sun
B: stars
C: planets
D: All of the above
486: Tropical cyclones do not form within 5² of the Equator
because ______________.
A: there are no fronts in that area
B: it is too hot
C: it is too humid
D: of negligible Coriolis force
487: What will be the time after 0600 (ZD +3), on 6 March 1983,
that the height of the tide at Puerto Rosales, Argentina,
will be 9.0 feet (2.7 meters)?
A: 0740
B: 0754
C: 0840
D: 0922
488: A great circle crosses the equator at 93ø W. It will also
cross the equator at what other longitude?
A: 13ø E
B: 87ø E
C: 177ø E
D: 177ø W
489: You are anchored in the Aleutian Island chain and receive
word that a tsunami is expected to strike the islands in six
hours. What is the safest action?
A: Get underway and be in deep, open-ocean water when the
tsunami arrives.
B: Increase the scope of the anchor cable and drop the second
anchor underfoot at short stay.
C: Get underway and be close inshore on the side of the island
away from the tsunami.
D: Plant both anchors with about a 60ø angle between them, and
490: You are underway on course 050² T and your maximum speed is
10 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 100² T, 90 miles
from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 285² T
at 19 knots. Which course should you steer at 10 knots to
have the maximum CPA?
A: 221²
B: 226²
C: 233²
D: 238²
491: A special purpose buoy shall be ______________.
A: lighted with a white light
B: striped black and red
C: lighted with a red light
D: yellow
492: Which type of projection is formed if a plane is tangent to
the Earth, and points are projected geometrically from the
center of the Earth?
A: Lambert conformal
B: Oblique gnomonic
C: Mercator
D: Transverse conic
493: The picture shown represents the geographic location of
a vessel and the radar presentation at the same time. Which
statement is TRUE?
A: Ship No. 1 is not detected due to the shadow effect of the
headland.
B: The small island is not detected due to the effect of beam
width.
C: A tangent bearing of the headland to the south-southeast
should be corrected by adding one-half of the beam width.
D: Ship No. 2 is not detected due to the reflective mass of
494: Barometers are usually calibrated to indicate atmospheric
pressure in ___________________.
A: inches of mercury and centimeters
B: feet of mercury and millibars
C: inches of mercury and millimeters
D: inches of mercury and millibars
495: A semidiameter correction is applied to observations of
_________.
A: Mars
B: the Moon
C: Jupiter
D: All of the above
496: Severe tropical cyclones (hurricanes, typhoons) occur in
all warm-water oceans except the ________________.
A: Indian Ocean
B: North Pacific Ocean
C: South Pacific Ocean
D: South Atlantic Ocean
497: What will be the time after 0300 (ZD +4), on 5 March 1983,
when the height of the tide at Port of Spain, Trinidad, will
be 2.5 feet (.76 meters) ?
A: 0548
B: 0602
C: 0618
D: 0634
498: What is an advantage of the magnetic compass aboard vessels?
A: Compass error is negligible at or near the earth's magnetic
poles.
B: It does not have to be checked as often.
C: It is reliable due to it's essential simplicity.
D: All points on the compass rose are readily visible.
499: Which of the symbols in illustration D018NG represents an
occluded front?
500: The National Imagery and Mapping Agency would produce a
chart of the coast of ________.
A: Alaska
B: Canada
C: Puerto Rico
D: Hawaii
501: Which of the buoys listed below could be used to mark an
anchorage?
A: White buoy numbered "3"
B: White buoy with a green top
C: White buoy with orange bands
D: Yellow buoy lettered "N"
502: A gnomonic projection is based on a(n) _____________.
A: plane tangent at one point
B: cylinder tangent at the equator
C: cone tangent at one parallel
D: infinite series of cones tangent at selected parallels
503: You are approaching a light fitted with a RACON.
The light may be identified on the radar by _____.
A: a dashed line running from the center of the scope to the
light
B: an audible signal when the sweep crosses the light
C: a circle appearing on the scope surrounding the light
D: a coded signal appearing on the same bearing at a greater
504: Barometer readings in weather reports are given in terms of
pressure at _______________.
A: sea level
B: Washington, D.C.
C: the weather station
D: the broadcasting station
505: The error in the measurement of the altitude of a celestial
body, caused by refraction, increases as the
_______________.
A: horizontal parallax decreases
B: observer's height above sea level increases
C: humidity of the atmosphere decreases
D: altitude of the body decreases
506: You are to sail from Elizabethport, N.J., on 22 May 1983,
with a maximum draft of 28 feet. You will pass over an
obstruction in the channel near Sandy Hook that has a depth
of 26.5 feet. The steaming time from Elizabethport to the
obstruction is 1h 40m. What is the earliest time (ZD + 4)
you can sail on the afternoon of 22 May and pass over the
obstruction with 2 feet of clearance?
A: 1454
B: 1424
C: 1405
D: 1329
507: What will be the time after 1000 EST (ZD +5), on 4 March
1983, that the height of the tide at City Island, NY, will
be 2.4 feet?
A: 1228
B: 1240
C: 1244
D: 1248
508: Which statement about the chartlet in illustration D010NG is
TRUE? (Soundings and heights are in meters)
A: There is a dangerous eddy southeast of Beito Island.
B: Maury lightship is visible for 17 miles.
C: The bottom to the south-southeast of the lightship is soft
coral.
D: There is a 12-meter deep west of Beito Island and inside the
509: A line of position derived by radar range from an
identified point on a coast will be a(n) __________.
A: straight line
B: arc
C: parabola
D: line parallel to the coast
510: Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?
A: Aero light
B: Radar station
C: Radar transponder beacon
D: Radiobeacon
511: A survey (special purpose mark) buoy _______________.
A: must be lighted
B: may have a flashing red light
C: may have a fixed white light
D: None of the above
512: On a gnomonic chart, a great circle track between Los
Angeles and Brisbane will appear as a _____________.
A: loxodromic curve
B: curved line concave to the equator
C: straight line
D: spiral approaching the poles as a limit
513: You are radar scanning for a buoy fitted with a racon.
Which radar screen represents the presentation you should
expect on the PPI?
514: What instrument measures wind velocity?
A: Hydrometer
B: Barometer
C: Psychrometer
D: Anemometer
515: The small circle of the celestial sphere parallel to the
celestial equator, and transcribed by the daily motion of
the body, is called the _______________.
A: hour circle of the body
B: parallel of declination
C: vertical circle of the body
D: parallel of altitude
516: A hurricane moving northeast out of the Gulf passes west of
your position. You could expect all of the following
EXCEPT _________.
A: higher than normal swells
B: high winds
C: winds veering from south, through west, to northwest
D: light showers
517: On 5 March 1983, at 0630 EST (ZD +5), what will be the
predicted height of tide at Ocracoke, Ocracoke Inlet, NC?
A: 0.1 foot
B: 1.2 feet
C: 1.9 feet
D: 2.3 feet
519: The chart of a beach area shows a very flat slope to the
underwater beach bottom. What type of breakers can be
expected when trying to land a boat on this beach?
A: Surging
B: Spilling
C: Plunging
D: Converging
520: On charts of U.S. waters, a magenta marking is NOT used for
marking a ____________.
A: 5-fathom curve
B: prohibited area
C: lighted buoy
D: radiobeacon
521: Which sextant in illustration D050NG has an index error of
2ø10" on the arc?
522: All straight lines represent great circle tracks on a chart
based on a(n) __________________.
A: Mercator projection
B: polyconic projection
C: orthographic projection
D: gnomonic projection
523: A radar display in which North is always at the top of the
screen is a(n) _____________.
A: unstabilized display
B: stabilized display
C: composition display
D: relative display
524: An anemometer on a moving vessel measures _________________.
A: apparent wind speed only
B: true wind speed and true wind direction
C: true wind speed only
D: apparent wind speed and true wind direction
525: In the celestial equator system of coordinates, what is
comparable to latitude on the terrestrial sphere?
A: Altitude
B: Right ascension
C: Celestial meridians
D: Declination
526: When a hurricane passes over colder water or land and loses
its tropical characteristics, the storm becomes a(n)
______________.
A: high pressure area
B: extratropical low-presure system
C: tropical storm
D: easterly wave
527: On 6 June 1983, at 1719 EST (ZD +5), what will be
the predicted height of tide at Chester, PA?
A: 0.8 feet( 0.2 meters)
B: 1.1 feet (0.3 meters)
C: 3.5 feet (1.1 meters)
D: 4.7 feet (1.4 meters)
528: What should you expect when you encounter a tsunami in the
open ocean?
A: Violent seas from mixed directions
B: No noticeable change from the existing sea state
C: Winds increasing to gale force from the northwest in the
Northern Hemisphere
D: A major wave of extreme height and length
529: In some river mouths and estuaries the incoming high-tide
wave crest overtakes the preceding low-tide trough. This
results in a wall of water proceeding upstream, and is
called a __________.
A: seiche
B: bore
C: boundary wave
D: surge
530: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, a lighted buoy
with a spherical topmark marks __________.
A: the port side of the channel
B: the position of underwater cables
C: safe water
D: a hazard to navigation
531: You have been informed that dredging operations may be
underway in your vicinity. Which buoy indicates the
dredging area?
A: White buoy with a green top
B: White and international orange buoy
C: Yellow buoy
D: Yellow and black vertically-striped buoy
532: In a river subject to tidal currents, the best time to dock
a ship without the assistance of tugs is _____________.
A: at high water
B: at slack water
C: at flood tide
D: when there is a following current
533: You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown
at the center, and the heading flash always points to 0².
If bearings are measured in relation to the flash, what type
of bearings are produced?
A: Relative
B: True
C: Compass
D: Magnetic
534: What is TRUE concerning an anemometer on a moving vessel?
A: It measures true wind speed.
B: It measures true wind speed and true wind direction.
C: It measures apparent wind speed.
D: It measures apparent wind speed and true wind direction.
535: The tropical year differs from which year by 20 minutes?
A: Astronomical year
B: Natural year
C: Equinoctial year
D: Sidereal year
536: You are enroute from Puerto Rico to New York. A hurricane
makes up and is approaching. If the wind veers steadily,
this indicates that your vessel is ______________________.
A: in the dangerous semicircle
B: in the navigable semicircle
C: directly in the path of the storm
D: in the storm center
537: What will be the height of tide at Gargathy Neck, VA, at
1800 DST (ZD +4), on 16 August 1983?
A: 2.3 feet
B: 2.9 feet
C: 3.3 feet
D: 3.6 feet
538: Which symbol in illustration D018NG represents a stationary
front?
539: You are underway on course 050² T and your maximum speed is
13 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 120² T, 100 miles
from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 265² T
at 25 knots. What course should you steer at 13 knots to
have the maximum CPA?
A: 324² T
B: 306² T
C: 299² T
D: 276² T
540: A white buoy with an orange rectangle on it is used to
indicate _____.
A: danger
B: a controlled area
C: an exclusion area
D: general information
541: A yellow buoy may mark a(n) ______________.
A: wreck
B: shoal area
C: anchorage area
D: middle ground
542: The only cylindrical chart projection widely used for
navigation is the ____________________.
A: Lambert conformal
B: Mercator
C: azimuthal
D: gnomonic
543: A radar display which is oriented, so that north is always
at the top of the screen, is called a(n) __________.
A: relative display
B: composite display
C: stabilized display
D: unstabilized display
544: The instrument most commonly used to gather the data
for determining the relative humidity is the _________.
A: hydrometer
B: psychrometer
C: barometer
D: anemometer
545: The arc of a great circle which passes through the body and
celestial poles is part of the ____________.
A: hour circle
B: diurnal circle
C: observer's meridian
D: altitude circle
546: If it is impossible to avoid a hurricane in the
Northern Hemisphere, the most favorable place to be when
the storm passes is in ________.
A: the dangerous semicircle
B: the eye (center) of the storm
C: that half of the storm lying to the right of the storm's
path
D: that half of the storm lying to the left of the storm's
547: On 2 November 1983, at 1630 EST (ZD +5), what will be the
predicted height of tide at Fulton, FL?
A: 2.8 feet (0.8 meters)
B: 3.4 feet (1.0 meters)
C: 4.2 feet (1.3 meters)
D: 5.6 feet (1.7 meters)
548: When the declination of the Moon is 0ø12.5' S, you can
expect some tidal currents in Gulf Coast ports to ________.
A: have either a double ebb or a double flood
B: become reversing currents
C: become weak and variable
D: exceed the predicted velocities
549: On a working copy of a weather map, an occluded front is
represented by which color line?
A: Red
B: Blue
C: Alternating red and blue
D: Purple
550: The description "Racon" beside an illustration on a chart
would mean a _____.
A: radar transponder beacon
B: radar conspicuous beacon
C: radar calibration beacon
D: circular radiobeacon
551: Spoil grounds, anchorage areas, cable areas, and military
exercise areas are all marked by yellow buoys. Which
special mark on the buoy will indicate the specific area you
are in?
A: A topmark triangular in shape
B: A topmark spherical in shape
C: Lettering on the buoy
D: A topmark consisting of two cones with the points up
552: A Mercator chart is a _____________.
A: cylindrical projection
B: simple conic projection
C: polyconic projection
D: rectangular projection
553: The beam width of your radar is 2ø. The left tangent
bearing of a small island, as observed on the PPI scope, is
056ø pgc. If the gyro error is 2ø E, what bearing would you
plot on the chart?
A: 052ø
B: 056ø
C: 059ø
D: 060ø
554: A sling psychrometer is a(n) ______________.
A: type of cargo gear
B: instrument used in celestial navigation
C: instrument used to measure relative humidity
D: instrument used to measure specific gravity
555: The letter D shown represents the ________.
A: geoidal horizon
B: celestial horizon
C: visible horizon
D: geometrical horizon
556: In a tropical cyclone in the Northern Hemisphere, a vessel
hove to with the wind shifting counterclockwise would be
______________.
A: in the navigable semicircle
B: in the dangerous semicircle
C: directly in the path of the center
D: ahead of the storm
557: Your vessel has a draft of 23 feet. On 23 June 1983 you
wish to pass over a temporary obstruction near Beaufort, SC,
that has a charted depth of 22 feet. Allowing for a safety
margin of 3 feet, what is the earliest time after 1600 DST
(ZD +4) that this passage can be made?
A: 1751
B: 1815
C: 1855
D: 1944
558: A buoy bears 176ø T at 3000 yards. What is the course to
make good to leave the buoy 100 yards to starboard?
A: 174ø T
B: 176ø T
C: 178ø T
D: 180ø T
559: A great circle crosses the equator at 162ø E. It will also
cross the equator at what other longitude?
A: 62ø E
B: 126ø W
C: 162ø W
D: 18ø W
560: On 14 April 1981, a back sight is taken of the upper limb of
the Sun as seen in the telescope. The height of eye is 45
feet. The index error is 2.5² on the arc. The sextant
altitude (hs) is 117²14.6'. What is the observed altitude
(Ho)?
A: 63²01.9'
B: 63²03.4'
C: 63²07.4'
D: 63²09.9'
561: Buoys which mark dredging areas are painted ____________.
A: black
B: yellow
C: green
D: red
562: You wish to measure the distance on a Mercator chart between
a point in latitude 42ø30' N and a point in latitude 40ø30'
N. To measure 30 miles at a time you should set the points
of the dividers at _______________________.
A: 41ø15' and 41ø45'
B: 41ø45' and 42ø15'
C: 42ø15' and 42ø45'
D: 42ø00' and 42ø30'
563: Your radar has a beam width of 2ø. The radar gyro bearing
of the right tangent of an island is 316ø. The gyro error
is 1ø E. Which true bearing should be plotted on the chart?
A: 313ø
B: 314ø
C: 316ø
D: 317ø
564: A hygrometer is a device used for determining _____________.
A: the absolute temperature
B: atmospheric pressure
C: wind velocity
D: relative humidity
565: The letter B in illustration D006NG represents the ________.
A: geoidal horizon
B: celestial horizon
C: visible horizon
D: sensible horizon
566: You are attempting to locate your position relative to a
hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere. If the wind direction
remains steady, but with diminishing velocity, you are most
likely ______________.
A: in the right semicircle
B: in the left semicircle
C: on the storm track ahead of the center
D: on the storm track behind the center
567: The charted channel depth at Eastport, ME, is 28 feet. You
are drawing 31.5 feet and wish 2 feet clearance under the
keel. What is the earliest time after 1700 DST (ZD +4), on
6 September 1983, that you can enter the channel?
A: 1803
B: 1815
C: 1921
D: 2208
568: The chart of a beach area shows a very steep slope to the
underwater beach bottom. Which type of breakers can be
expected when trying to land a boat on this beach?
A: Surging
B: Converging
C: Spilling
D: Plunging
569: A line of position formed by sighting two charted objects
in line is called a(n) ______________________.
A: relative bearing
B: range line
C: track line
D: estimated position
570: Chart legends printed in capital letters show that the
associated landmark is _____.
A: inconspicuous
B: conspicuous
C: a government facility or station
D: a radio transmitter
571: The Coast Guard Captain of the Port has excluded all traffic
from a section of a port, while a regatta is
taking place. The buoys marking this exclusion area will be
_____________.
A: nun- or can-shaped to conform to the overall direction of
navigation
B: yellow
C: orange and white
D: marked with a spherical topmark
572: You wish to measure the distance on a Mercator chart between
a point in latitude 43ø30' N and a point in latitude 40ø30'
N. To measure 30 miles at a time, you should set the points
of the dividers at ________.
A: 41ø30' and 42ø00'
B: 41ø45' and 42ø15'
C: 42ø00' and 42ø30'
D: 42ø15' and 42ø45'
573: What is the name of the movable, radial guide line
used to measure direction on a radar?
A: Compass rose
B: Cursor
C: Plan position indicator
D: Variable range marker
574: If your mercurial barometer reads 30.50 inches (1033
millibars) and the temperature is 56² F (13²C), what is the
correct reading at 55² N, 150² W?
A: 30.42 inches (1030 millibars)
B: 30.45 inches (1031 millibars)
C: 30.50 inches (1032 millibars)
D: 30.53 inches (1033 millibars)
575: The horizontal plane, perpendicular to the zenith-nadir
axis, that intersects with the celestial sphere and is
tangent to the earth is called the _____________.
A: celestial horizon
B: sensible horizon
C: visible horizon
D: geoidal horizon
576: In a tropical cyclone in the Southern Hemisphere, a vessel
hove to with the wind shifting clockwise would be
______________.
A: ahead of the storm center
B: in the dangerous semicircle
C: directly behind the storm center
D: in the navigable semicircle
577: Your vessel has a draft of 24 feet. On 7 April 1983 you
wish to pass over a temporary obstruction near Lovell, MA,
that has a charted depth of 22 feet. Allowing for a safety
margin of 3.1 feet under your keel, what is the earliest
time after 0100 EST (ZD +5) that this passage can be made?
A: 0248
B: 0304
C: 0334
D: 0356
578: At about GMT 1436, on 3 December 1981, the lower limb of the
Moon is observed with a sextant having an index error of
2.5' on the arc. The height of eye is 32 feet. The sextant
altitude (hs) is 3²38.8'. What is the observed altitude?
A: Ho 4²18.6'
B: Ho 4²29.1'
C: Ho 4²36.3'
D: Ho 4²42.2'
579: Low pressure disturbances, which travel along the
intertropical convergence zone, are called _______________.
A: permanent waves
B: tidal waves
C: tropical waves
D: tropical storms
580: On 21 January 1981, you take a back sight of the Sun's
upper limb as it appears in the scope. The sextant
altitude (hs) is 121`31.5'. The index error is 2.5' on the
arc. The height of eye is 31 feet (9.3 meters). What is
the observed altitude (Ho)?
A: 31`06.2'
B: 58`53.1'
C: 58`12.2'
D: 58`03.2'
581: The Captain of the Port has closed to navigation, and
buoyed, a section of a harbor. These buoys would be painted
________.
A: red or green to conform with the other lateral aids
B: red and green horizontally-striped
C: solid yellow
D: white with orange marks
582: Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart
by using the _____________.
A: latitude scale near the middle of the track line
B: longitude scale near the middle of the track line
C: latitude scale at the midlatitude of the chart
D: latitude or longitude scale at the middle of the scale
583: The radar control used to reduce sea return at close
ranges is the ______________.
A: gain control
B: sensitivity time control
C: fast time constant
D: pulse length control
584: The correction(s) which must be applied to an aneroid
barometer reading include(s) ___________.
A: height error
B: gravity error
C: temperature error
D: All of the above
585: What great circle is always needed to form the astronomical
triangle?
A: Celestial equator
B: Principal vertical circle
C: Celestial meridian
D: Prime vertical circle
586: The approximate distance to a storm center can be determined
by noting the hourly rate of fall of the barometer. If the
rate of fall is 0.08 - 0.12 inches, what is the
approximate distance to the storm center?
A: 50 to 80 miles
B: 80 to 100 miles
C: 100 to 150 miles
D: 150 to 250 miles
587: Your vessel has a draft of 34 feet. On 8 October 1983 you
wish to pass over an obstruction near Jaffrey Point, NH,
that has a charted depth of 31 feet. Allowing for a safety
margin of 3 feet, what is the earliest time after 0900 DST
(ZD +4) that this passage can be made?
A: 0920
B: 1028
C: 1120
D: 1159
588: You are underway on course 050² T and your maximum speed is
10 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 100² T, 90 miles
from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 285² T
at 19 knots. If you maneuver at 10 knots to avoid the
hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA?
A: 39 miles
B: 45 miles
C: 53 miles
D: 59 miles
589: What is the index error of sextant D?
A: 7'10" on the arc
B: 6'50" on the arc
C: 3'00" on the arc
D: 2'10" on the arc
590: On 16 January 1981, you take a sight of a star. The sextant
altitude (hs) is 4²33.0'. The temperature is -10²C, and
the barometer reads 992 millibars. The height of eye is 42
feet. The index error is 1.9' off the arc. What is the
observed altitude (Ho)?
A: 4²10.2'
B: 4²14.3'
C: 4²17.0'
D: 4²24.1'
591: White lights may be found on _____.
A: special purpose buoys
B: preferred channel buoys
C: information and regulatory buoys
D: numbered buoys
592: To measure distance on a Mercator chart between the
parallels of LAT 34ø30' N and LAT 31ø30' N, which 30 mile
scale should be used?
A: 33ø00' N to 33ø30' N
B: 32ø30' N to 33ø00' N
C: 32ø45' N to 33ø15' N
D: 32ø15' N to 32ø45' N
593: Radar makes the most accurate determination of the ______.
A: direction of a target
B: distance to a target
C: size of a target
D: shape of a target
594: Barometers are calibrated at a standard temperature of
______________.
A: 0ø F
B: 32ø F
C: 60ø F
D: 70ø F
595: In the navigational triangle, the angle at the elevated pole
is the ___________.
A: meridian angle
B: altitude
C: right ascension
D: azimuth angle
596: Which condition would NOT indicate the approach of a
tropical storm?
A: Long, high swells
B: Cirrus clouds
C: Halos about the Sun or Moon
D: Decrease in wind velocity
597: You will be loading in Boston Harbor to a maximum draft of
32'06". The charted depth of an obstruction in the channel
near Boston Light is 30 feet and you wish to have 3 feet of
keel clearance. The steaming time from the pier to the
obstruction is 01h 05m. What is the latest time (ZD +4) you
can sail on 17 May 1983 and meet these requirements?
A: 1610
B: 1726
C: 1821
D: 2350
598: A great circle crosses the equator at 141ø E. It will also
cross the equator at what other longitude?
A: 180ø E
B: 41ø E
C: 141ø W
D: 39ø W
599: Magnetic compass deviation _____________.
A: varies depending upon the bearing used
B: is the angular difference between magnetic north and compass
north
C: is published on the compass rose on most nautical charts
D: is the angular difference between geographic and magnetic
600: The dangerous semicircle of a typhoon in the Southern
Hemisphere is that area ____________.
A: measured from due south clockwise 180ø
B: measured from due south counterclockwise 180ø
C: to the left of the storm's track
D: ahead of the typhoon measured from the storm's track to 90ø
601: White and orange buoys, if lighted, show which color light?
A: White
B: Orange
C: Red
D: Alternating yellow and white
602: Between the equator and the 46th parallel of latitude, there
are 3099 meridional parts. How many degrees of equatorial
longitude does 3099 meridional parts represent?
A: 35ø52'45"
B: 51ø39'00"
C: 74ø21'11"
D: 82ø36'12"
603: What is the approximate wave length of an X Band Radar
operating on a frequency of approximately 9500 MHz?
A: 3 cm
B: 10 cm
C: 30 cm
D: 100 cm
604: Chronometer error may be found by ______________.
A: radio time signal
B: comparison with a timepiece of known error
C: applying the prevailing chronometer rate to previous
readings
D: All of the above
605: Which is NOT a side of the celestial navigational triangle?
A: Co-latitude
B: Zenith distance
C: Altitude
D: Co-declination
606: Early indications of the approach of a hurricane may be all
of the following EXCEPT ____________________.
A: short confused swells
B: gradually increasing white clouds (mare's tails)
C: pumping barometer
D: continuous fine mist-like rain
607: The charted depth alongside the south face of Mystic Pier,
Charlestown, MA, is 35 feet. Your maximum draft is 38 feet.
You wish to have 2 feet under the bottom, on a rising tide,
when you go alongside to discharge a heavy lift. What is
the earliest time after 0900 EST (ZD +5), on 2 February
1983, that you can dock?
A: 1020
B: 1050
C: 1130
D: 1150
608: In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line
distance NOT approximately the same as the great circle
distance?
A: The two points are in low latitudes in the same hemisphere.
B: The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere.
C: The two points are near the equator, but in different
hemispheres.
D: One point is near the equator, one point is in a high
609: A tropical wave is located 200 miles due west of your
position, which is north of the equator. Where will the
wave be in 24 hours?
A: Farther away to the west
B: Farther away to the east
C: In the same place
D: Closer and to the west
610: The apparent wind's speed can be zero only when two
conditions are present. One condition is that the
true wind ____________.
A: must be from dead ahead
B: speed must be zero
C: must be from dead astern
D: must be on the beam
611: Information markers, when lighted, will display _________.
A: yellow lights
B: green lights
C: white lights
D: red lights
612: Which statement is TRUE concerning a Mercator projection?
A: Degrees of longitude decrease in length as latitude
increases.
B: The length of the meridians is increased to provide for
equal expansion in all directions.
C: The mileage between the meridians is increased as the
latitude increases.
D: All of the above
613: Your radar indicates a target; however, there is no visible
object at the point indicated. A large mountain,
approximately 50 miles away on the same bearing as the
target, is breaking the horizon. You should suspect the
radar target is caused by ______________.
A: a submerged submarine
B: ducting
C: sub-refraction
D: ionospheric skip waves
614: A marine chronometer should be rewound once every
______________.
A: 12 hours
B: day
C: 3 days
D: week
615: The spinning motion of a planet around its axis is called
_________.
A: revolution
B: rotation
C: orbit
D: space motion
616: What indicates that a tropical cyclone can be expected at
your position within 24 to 48 hours?
A: A daily fluctuation of over 6 millibars in the barometric
reading
B: A sudden wind shift from southwest to northwest followed by
steadily increasing winds
C: The normal swell pattern becoming confused, with the length
of the swell increasing
D: An overcast sky with steadily increasing rain from
617: You are bound for the Chelsea docks in the Hudson River.
The Captain wants to arrive at the docks at the first slack
water on 28 July 1983. You are keeping daylight saving
time. What time should you be at the docks?
A: 0215
B: 0530
C: 0811
D: 0911
619: According to Buys Ballot's Law, when an observer in the
Southern Hemisphere experiences a northwest wind, the center
of the low pressure is located to the ____________.
A: east-northeast
B: south-southwest
C: east-southeast
D: west-southwest
620: Chart legends which indicate a conspicuous landmark are
printed in _____.
A: capital letters
B: italics
C: boldface print
D: underlined letters
621: Navigational marks used for informational or regulatory
purposes are ______________.
A: solid yellow
B: white with orange geometric shapes
C: red and white vertically-striped
D: green and red horizontally-banded
622: The scale of a Mercator projection is 4 inches equals 1²
LONG. What is the expansion in inches between the 60th and
61st parallels?
A: 8.11 inches
B: 7.70 inches
C: 7.48 inches
D: 6.98 inches
623: An indirect radar echo is caused by a reflection of the main
lobe of the radar beam off the observer's vessel. Which of
the following is NOT a characteristic of indirect echoes?
A: Their bearing is almost constant, even when the true bearing
of the contact changes appreciably.
B: They always appear on a bearing of 90ø from the true bearing
of the contact.
C: The indirect echoes usually appear in shadow sectors.
D: When plotted, their movements are usually abnormal.
624: When using a mechanical (windup type) marine chronometer,
how often should it be reset?
A: Only when it is overhauled
B: Whenever the chronometer error exceeds approximately four
minutes
C: At the start of each voyage
D: If the chronometer rate changes from gaining to losing or
625: The center of a circle of equal altitude, plotted on the
surface of the Earth, is the ______________.
A: dead reckoning position of the observer
B: assumed position of the observer
C: geographical position of the body
D: assumed position of the body
626: What indicates the arrival of a hurricane within 24 to 36
hours?
A: The normal swell becoming lower and from a steady direction
B: Long bands of nimbostratus clouds radiating from a point
over the horizon
C: The barometer drops 2 millibars between 1000 and 1600
D: Unusually good weather with above average pressures followed
627: You are on a coastwise voyage bound for Marcus Hook, PA.
Your speed is 15 knots. You wish to use the flood tide to
facilitate docking starboard side to, heading seaward. To
have the most favorable tide throughout, you should time
your arrival at the entrance to Delaware Bay _____.
A: for 1 hour before flood begins
B: for 1 hour after flood begins
C: for 3 hours after flood begins
D: for 1 hour before ebb begins
629: The rise and fall of the ocean's surface due to a distant
storm is known as __________.
A: sea
B: waves
C: fetch
D: swell
630: What kind of weather would you expect to accompany the
passage of a tropical wave?
A: Heavy rain and cloudiness
B: Good weather
C: A tropical storm
D: Dense fog
631: A light characteristic of composite group flashing indicates
that there is a(n) __________.
A: sharp turn in the channel
B: narrowing in the channel at that point
C: junction in the channel
D: obstruction that must be left to port
632: You must construct a Mercator projection for an area
bounded by latitudes 40ø - 47ø N and longitudes 176ø E to
176ø W on a paper 28 X 36 inches. Allow a neat line of
one inch. What will be the separation between meridians?
A: 3.190 inches
B: 3.249 inches
C: 3.529 inches
D: 3.714 inches
633: You have another ship overtaking you close aboard to
starboard. You have 3 radar targets bearing 090ø relative
at ranges of .5 mile, 1 mile, and 1.5 miles. In this case,
the unwanted echoes are called _________.
A: multiple echoes
B: spoking
C: indirect echoes
D: side-lobe echoes
634: What will cause the ARPA to emit a visual alarm, audible
alarm, or both?
A: An acquired target entering into a guard zone
B: A tracked target lost for one radar scan
C: A tracked target entering your preset CPA-TCPA limits
D: A target being initially detected within a guard zone
636: Tropical cyclones are classified by form and intensity.
Which system does not have closed isobars?
A: Hurricane
B: Tropical disturbance
C: Tropical depression
D: Cyclone
637: Your draft is 24 feet. You wish to pass over an obstruction
near Lovell Island, MA, on 6 May 1983. The charted depth is
22 feet. Allowing a safety margin of 3.0 feet, what is the
earliest time after 0200 DST (ZD +4) that this passage can
be made?
A: 0215
B: 0245
C: 0310
D: 0350
638: Swell is the rise and fall of the ocean's surface due to
_____________.
A: fetch
B: distant winds
C: local storms
D: the pull of the moon
639: In the Northern Hemisphere, what type of cloud formations
would you expect to see to the west of an approaching
tropical wave?
A: Cumulus clouds lined up in rows extending in a northeast to
southwest direction
B: High altostratus clouds in the morning hours
C: Cirrostratus clouds lined up in rows extending in a
northeast to southwest direction
D: Cirrostratus clouds lined up in rows extending in a north to
641: Buoys which mark isolated dangers are painted with
alternating _____________ .
A: red and black bands
B: green and black bands
C: red and white stripes
D: green and white bands
642: Which government agency publishes the U.S. Coast Pilot?
A: Army Corps of Engineers
B: National Imagery and Mapping Agency
C: National Ocean Service
D: U.S. Coast Guard
643: When using the radar for navigating _____________.
A: the best fix is obtained by using a tangent bearing and a
range
B: and using two radar ranges for a fix, the objects of the
ranges should be close to reciprocal bearings
C: and using ranges, the most rapidly changing range should be
measured last
D: and crossing a radar range of one object with the visual
644: Your ARPA has been tracking a target and has generated the
targets course and speed. The radar did not receive a
target echo on its last two scans due to the weather. What
should you expect under these circumstances?
A: The ARPA will generate data as if the target was still being
tracked by radar.
B: The ARPA will give an audible and/or visual lost target
alarm.
C: The ARPA will generate data based on sea return echoes from
the vicinity where the target was lost.
D: The ARPA has lost all "memory" of the target and must
645: The arc of an hour circle between the celestial equator and
a point on the celestial sphere, measured northward or
southward through 90ø, is the _______________.
A: altitude
B: declination
C: latitude
D: azimuth angle
646: You have determined that you are in the right semicircle of
a tropical cyclone in the Northern Hemisphere. What action
should you take to avoid the storm?
A: Place the wind on the starboard quarter and hold that
course.
B: Place the wind on the port quarter and hold that course.
C: Place the wind on the port bow and hold that course.
D: Place the wind on the starboard bow and hold that course.
647: You will enter Argentia, Newfoundland, at 1200 (ZD +3), 5
October 1983. What will be the height of tide based on the
Canadian chart datum?
A: 0.51 feet
B: 1.2 feet
C: 2.1 feet
D: 3.4 feet
648: Weather systems in the middle latitudes generally travel
from _______.
A: north to south
B: west to east
C: east to west
D: None of the above
649: You are on course 226ø T. In order to check the latitude of
your vessel, you should observe a celestial body on which
bearing?
A: 226ø
B: 270ø
C: 000ø
D: 026ø
650: What classification of tropical cyclone would have closed
isobars, counter clockwise rotary circulation, and
sustained winds between 34 and 63 knots?
A: A tropical disturbance
B: A tropical depression
C: A tropical storm
D: A hurricane
651: Which topmark in illustration D023NG identifies an isolated
danger?
652: What agency of the U.S. Government issues charts of U.S.
waters and Coast Pilots?
A: National Ocean Service
B: National Imagery and Mapping Agency
C: U.S. Coast Guard
D: U.S. Naval Observatory
653: You have been observing your radar screen and notice that a
contact on the screen has remained in the same position,
relative to you, for several minutes. Your vessel is making
10 knots through the water. Which statement is TRUE?
A: The contact is dead in the water.
B: The contact is on the same course and speed as your vessel.
C: The contact is on a reciprocal course at the same speed as
your vessel.
D: The radar is showing false echoes and is probably defective.
654: Your ARPA has automatic speed inputs from the log. Due to
currents, the log is indicating a faster speed than the
speed over the ground. What should you expect under these
circumstances?
A: The generated CPA will be less than the actual CPA.
B: The generated TCPA will be later than the actual TCPA.
C: The range of initial target acquisition will be less than
normal.
D: The targets true course vector will be in error.
655: The equator is _____________.
A: the primary great circle of the Earth perpendicular to the
axis
B: the line to which all celestial observations are reduced
C: the line from which a celestial body's altitude is measured
D: All of the above
656: In the Northern Hemisphere you are caught in the dangerous
semicircle with plenty of sea room available. The best
course of action is to bring the wind on the ______________.
A: starboard bow and make as much headway as possible
B: starboard quarter, and make as much headway as possible
C: port quarter, and make as much headway as possible
D: port bow, and make as much headway as possible
657: Current refers to the ___________.
A: vertical movement of the water
B: horizontal movement of the water
C: density changes in the water
D: None of the above
658: Monsoons are characterized by _____________.
A: light, variable winds with little or no humidity
B: strong, gusty winds that blow from the same general
direction all year
C: steady winds that reverse direction semiannually
D: strong, cyclonic winds that change direction to conform to
660: What is the length of a nautical mile?
A: 1,850 meters
B: 5,280 feet
C: 1,760 yards
D: 6,076 feet
661: Under the IALA Buoyage Systems, safe water marks may
show a __________.
A: composite group-flashing, Fl(2 + 1), red light
B: composite group-flashing, Fl(2 + 1), green light
C: quick-flashing, Q(9)15s, white light
D: white Morse (A) light
662: What publication contains descriptions of the coast line,
buoyage systems, weather conditions, port facilities, and
navigation instructions for the United States and its
possessions?
A: Coast Pilots
B: Sailing Directions
C: Port Index
D: Light List
663: You are underway at 10 knots. At 1800 you note a radar
contact dead ahead at a range of 10 miles. At 1812 the
contact is dead ahead at a range of 8 miles. The estimated
speed of the contact is ________.
A: dead in the water
B: 5 knots
C: 10 knots
D: 15 knots
664: Which ARPA data should you use in order to determine if a
close quarters situation will develop with a target vessel?
A: Set and drift of the current
B: Relative track information
C: Predicted time of CPA
D: Initial range of acquisition
665: 17 degrees of latitude is equal to _________________.
A: 68 miles
B: 510 miles
C: 1020 miles
D: 4080 miles
666: In the Northern Hemisphere, your vessel is believed to be in
the direct path of a hurricane, and plenty of sea room is
available. The best course of action is to bring the wind
on the _____________________.
A: starboard bow, note the course, and head in that direction
B: starboard quarter, note the course, and head in that
direction
C: port quarter, note the course, and head in that direction
D: port bow, note the course, and head in that direction
667: The navigable semicircle of a typhoon in the Southern
Hemisphere is the area ______________.
A: behind the typhoon, measured from 90² to 180² from each side
of the storm's track
B: to the right of the storm's track
C: ahead of the typhoon, measured from the storm's track
to 90² on each side
D: measured from due south, counterclockwise 180²
668: You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at
6 knots on course 133ø T, and bears 042² at 105 miles from
you. What is the course to steer at 10 knots to intercept
vessel A?
A: 063ø
B: 068ø
C: 073ø
D: 079ø
669: It is desirable that a vessel encountering hurricane or
typhoon conditions sends weather reports to the closest
meteorological service at least every _______________.
A: hour
B: 3 hours
C: 6 hours
D: 8 hours
670: A NAVAREA warning carries the following number; 1986/87
(11). Which statement is TRUE?
A: The warning was issued in 1986, the 87th sequentially
numbered warning and broadcast 11 times.
B: This is warning number 1986 issued in 1987, and it affects
sub-region 11.
C: This warning is valid in 1986 and 1987 and is the eleventh
two-year warning.
D: The subject of this warning first appeared in 1986; this
671: You sight a buoy fitted with a double-sphere topmark. If
sighted at night, this buoy would show a ______________.
A: quick-flashing red light
B: quick-flashing green light
C: flashing white light showing a group of two flashes
D: flashing red light showing a group of three flashes
672: You are planning to enter an unfamiliar U.S. port. Which
publication provides information about channel depths,
dangers, obstructions, anchorages, and marine facilities
available in that port?
A: American Practical Navigator
B: Notice to Mariners
C: Coast Pilot
D: Sailing Directions
673: You are underway at 5 knots and see on your radar a contact
10 miles directly astern of you. 12 minutes later, the
contact is 8 miles directly astern of you. What is the
estimated speed of the contact?
A: Dead in the water
B: 1 knot
C: 10 knots
D: 15 knots
674: When using an ARPA, what should you consider in order to
evaluate the information displayed?
A: The target vessel's generated course and speed are based
solely on radar inputs.
B: Navigational constraints may require a target vessel to
change course.
C: The trial maneuver feature will automatically determine a
course that will clear all targets.
D: You cannot determine if a small target has been lost due to
675: 15ø of latitude is equal to _____________.
A: 600 miles
B: 900 miles
C: 1200 miles
D: 1500 miles
676: If you are caught in the left semicircle of a tropical
storm, in the Southern Hemisphere, you should bring the wind
________________.
A: on the starboard quarter, hold course and make as
much way as possible
B: 2 points on the port quarter, and make as much way as
possible
C: on the port bow, and make as much way as possible
D: dead ahead and heave to
677: A swift current occurring in a narrow passage connecting two
large bodies of water, which is produced by the continuously
changing difference in height of tide at the two ends of the
passage, is called a _______________.
A: hydraulic current
B: rectilinear current
C: rotary current
D: harmonic current
678: On 25 December 1981 you observe the Sun's lower limb. The
sextant altitude (hs) is 4ø06.9'. The height of eye is 47
feet and the index error is 1.6' on the arc. The
temperature is 19ø F. and the barometer reads 1030.8
millibars. What is the observed altitude (Ho)?
A: 3ø57.4'
B: 4ø01.9'
C: 4ø02.5'
D: 4ø03.4'
679: A tropical wave is usually preceded by __________________.
A: tropical storms
B: good weather
C: heavy rain and cloudiness
D: heavy seas
680: The apparent wind's speed can be zero only when two
conditions are present. One condition is that the true
__________.
A: wind must be on the beam
B: wind's speed must be zero
C: wind must be from dead ahead
D: wind's speed equals the ship's speed
681: You sight a spar buoy with the top mark shown in the
illustration. You must _______________________ .
A: pass to the east of the buoy
B: pass to the south of the buoy
C: pass to the north of the buoy
D: keep well clear of the buoy and pass on either side
682: Which table is NOT found in the U.S. Coast Pilots?
A: Climatological table
B: Luminous range table
C: Meteorological table
D: Coastwise distance table
683: A radar contact will remain stationary on a relative motion
radar display only when it is __________________.
A: on the same course as your vessel
B: at the same speed as your vessel
C: on the same course and speed as your vessel
D: on a reciprocal course at the same speed as your vessel
684: The ARPA may swap targets when automatically tracking if two
targets ______________.
A: are tracked on reciprocal bearings
B: are tracked at the same range
C: are tracked on the same bearing
D: pass close together
685: Thirty-two meters equals ______________.
A: 17.50 feet
B: 58.52 feet
C: 96.00 feet
D: 104.99 feet
686: The pressure gradient between the horse latitudes and
doldrums runs ______________.
A: east to west
B: north to south
C: northeast to southwest
D: northwest to southeast
687: The drift and set of tidal, river, and ocean currents
refer to the _________________.
A: position and area of the current
B: speed and direction toward which the current flows
C: type and characteristic of the current's flow
D: None of the above
688: In mid-ocean, the characteristics of a wave are determined
by three factors. What is NOT one of these factors?
A: Effect of the moon's gravity
B: Fetch
C: Wind velocity
D: Length of time a wind has been blowing
689: What is the index error of sextant C?
A: 0'20" on the arc
B: 1'00" on the arc
C: 2'00" on the arc
D: 5'10" on the arc
690: What level of development of a tropical cyclone has a
hundred mile radius of circulation, gale force winds, less
than 990 millibars of pressure and vertically formed
cumulonimbus clouds?
A: A tropical disturbance
B: A tropical depression
C: A tropical storm
D: A typhoon
691: Of the four light characteristics shown which one does NOT
represent a safe water mark of the IALA Buoyage System?
692: Which publication should you check for complete information
on Puget Sound weather conditions?
A: Sailing Directions
B: Light List
C: Coast Pilot
D: Chart of the area
693: Which general statement concerning radar is FALSE?
A: Raising the antenna height increases the radar range.
B: The ability of radar to detect objects is unaffected by
weather conditions.
C: Radar bearings are less accurate than radar ranges.
D: Radar should be checked regularly during clear weather to
694: Your ARPA has two guard zones. What is the purpose of the
inner guard zone?
A: Alert the watch officer that a vessel is approaching the
preset CPA limit
B: Warn of small targets that are initially detected closer
than the outer guard zone
C: Guard against target loss during critical maneuvering
situations
D: Sound an alarm for targets first detected within the zone
695: An azimuth angle for a body is measured from the __________.
A: observer's meridian
B: Greenwich meridian
C: body's meridian
D: zenith distance
696: The diurnal pressure variation is most noticeable in the
_________.
A: polar regions
B: horse latitudes
C: roaring forties
D: doldrums
697: The set of the current is the __________.
A: speed of the current at a particular time
B: maximum speed of the current
C: direction from which the current flows
D: direction in which the current flows
698: You are in LONG 165ø E, zone time at 0400, 1 November 1981.
What is the zone time and date in LONG 165ø W?
A: 0600, 31 October
B: 1800, 31 October
C: 1800, 1 November
D: 0600, 1 November
699: You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at
6 knots on course 133ø T, and bears 343ø T at 92 miles from
you. What is the course to steer at 9 knots to intercept
vessel A?
A: 033ø
B: 038ø
C: 042ø
D: 047ø
700: You are enroute to Savannah, GA, from Recife, Brazil. There
is a strong N'ly wind blowing. As you cross the axis of the
Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter _____________.
A: smoother seas and warmer water
B: long swells
C: steeper waves, closer together
D: cirrus clouds
701: In the IALA Buoyage System, buoys with alternating red and
green horizontal bands are used to indicate _____________.
A: fishing areas
B: spoil grounds
C: the preferred channel
D: isolated dangers
702: Which publication contains information on navigation
regulations, landmarks, channels, anchorages, tides,
currents, and clearances of bridges for Chesapeake Bay?
A: Coast Pilot
B: Light List
C: Sailing Directions
D: Pilot Charts
703: Which statement concerning the operation of radar in fog is
TRUE?
A: Radar ranges are less accurate in fog.
B: Navigation buoys will always show up on radar.
C: A sandy beach will show up clearer on radar than a rocky
cliff.
D: Small wooden boats may not show up on radar.
704: What is TRUE of the history display of a target's past
positions on an ARPA?
A: It provides a graphic display to emphasize which vessel is
on a collision course.
B: In the true presentation, it provides a quick visual check
to determine if a vessel has changed course.
C: The display is one of the primary inputs and must be in use
when using the trial maneuver capability.
D: It provides a graphic display of a target vessel's relative
705: The precession of the equinoxes occurs in a(n) ____________.
A: easterly direction
B: westerly direction
C: northerly direction
D: southerly direction
706: A steep barometric gradient indicates ___________.
A: calms
B: light winds
C: strong winds
D: precipitation
707: Set of the current is _____________.
A: its velocity in knots
B: direction from which it flows
C: estimated current
D: direction towards which it flows
708: Which statement about Radio Navigational Warning Broadcasts
is TRUE?
A: Radio navigational warnings are valid for 10 days, unless
cancelled earlier.
B: NAVAREA warnings cover coastal areas only, while HYDROLANTS
or HYDROPACS cover entire ocean areas.
C: Radio navigational warnings issued by DMAHTC are printed in
the Daily Memorandum and the Notice to Mariners.
D: HYDROLANTS and HYDROPACS cover the same geographical areas
709: A sea breeze is a wind ______________.
A: that blows towards the sea at night
B: that blows towards an island during the day
C: caused by cold air descending a coastal incline
D: caused by the distant approach of a hurricane
710: What is the FIRST sign of the existence of a well developed
tropical cyclone?
A: Gale force winds from the north
B: An unusually long ocean swell
C: Steep, short-period waves and light wind
D: Thunderstorms and higher than usual humidity
711: In the IALA Maritime Buoyage System, a red and white
vertically-striped buoy is used as a(n) _____________.
A: safe water mark
B: cardinal mark
C: isolated danger mark
D: special mark not primarily used for navigation
712: Information about the pilotage available at Miami harbor may
best be obtained from which publication?
A: World Port Index
B: Sailing Directions
C: Pilot Chart
D: United States Coast Pilot
713: The closest point of approach (CPA) of a contact on a
relative motion radar may be determined __________________.
A: immediately when the contact is noted on radar
B: only if the radar scope is watched constantly
C: after the contact has been marked at least twice
D: by an occasional glance at the radar
714: When using the ARPA in heavy rain, which action should you
take?
A: Increase the radar gain to pick up weak echoes through the
rain.
B: Increase the STC setting to reduce close-in spurious
signals.
C: Navigate as though the effective range of the radar has been
reduced.
D: Increase the range of the inner and outer guard rings.
715: The length of the year with respect to the vernal equinox is
the __________________.
A: tropical year
B: sidereal year
C: anomalistic year
D: All of the above
716: Standard atmospheric pressure in inches of mercury is _____.
A: 30.00
B: 28.92
C: 29.92
D: 29.00
717: Which term refers to the direction a current is flowing?
A: Set
B: Drift
C: Vector direction
D: Stand
718: You are to sail from Elizabethport, N.J., on 22 May 1983
with a maximum draft of 28 feet. You will pass over an
obstruction in the channel near Sandy Hook that has a depth
of 27 feet. The steaming time from Elizabethport to the
obstruction is 1h 40m. What is the earliest time (ZD +4)
you can sail on the afternoon of 22 May and pass over the
obstruction with 3 feet of clearance?
A: 1354
B: 1324
C: 1305
D: 1252
719: You are on course 209ø T. In order to check the longitude
of your vessel, you should observe a celestial body on which
bearing?
A: 209ø
B: 270ø
C: 299ø
D: 000ø
720: Which change in the condition of the seas could indicate the
formation of a tropical storm or hurricane several hundred
miles from your location?
A: A long swell from an unusual direction
B: A lengthy lull in the wind and seas
C: Large seas coming from different directions
D: A brisk chop from the southeast
721: Under the IALA Buoyage System, a red and white
vertically-striped buoy would NOT indicate ______________.
A: a landfall
B: the extreme end of an islet
C: a mid-channel
D: a center line
722: Which publication would describe the explosive anchorages in
the ports on the east coast of the United States?
A: Sailing Directions
B: Pilot Rules for Inland Waters
C: Coast Pilot
D: Notice to Mariners
723: If there is any doubt as to the proper operation of a radar,
which statement is TRUE?
A: Only a radar expert can determine if the radar is operating.
B: All radars have indicator lights and alarms to signal
improper operation.
C: A radar range compared to the actual range of a known
object can be used to check the operation of the radar.
D: The radar resolution detector must be energized to check the
725: The First Point of Aries is the position of the Sun on the
celestial sphere on or about _________________.
A: March 21
B: June 21
C: September 21
D: December 21
726: Atmospheric pressure at sea level is equal to __________.
A: 14.7 pounds per square inch
B: 29.92 inches of mercury
C: 1013.25 millibars
D: All of the above
727: What is an ebb current?
A: A current at minimum flow
B: A current coming in
C: A current going out
D: A current at maximum flow
728: In the Bay of Fundy, during twilight, you a take sight
of Mars. The sextant altitude (hs) is 03²35.5'. Your
height of eye is 32 feet and there is no index error. The
air temperature is -10²C and the barometer reads 1010
millibars. What is the observed altitude (Ho)?
A: 03²14.5'
B: 03²15.8'
C: 03²16.2'
D: 03²28.8'
729: The doldrums are characterized by __________.
A: steady, light to moderate winds
B: frequent calms
C: clear skies
D: low humidity
730: In the Northern Hemisphere, the largest waves or swells
created by a typhoon or hurricane will be located ________.
A: in the southeast quadrant of the storm
B: directly behind the storm center
C: forward and to the right of its course
D: behind and to the left of its course
731: Under the IALA Buoyage Systems, a vertically-striped buoy
may be striped red and __________.
A: green
B: black
C: white
D: yellow
732: What publication has information on the climate, distances,
navigation regulations, outstanding landmarks,
channels and anchorages of Long Island Sound?
A: Light List
B: Coast Pilot
C: Sailing Directions
D: Pilot Chart
733: What would give the best radar echo?
A: The beam of a three masted sailing vessel with all sails
set.
B: A 110-foot fishing vessel with a radar reflector in its
rigging.
C: A 300-foot tanker, bow on.
D: A 600-foot freighter, beam on.
734: You are approaching Chatham Strait from the south in foggy
weather. You have Coronation Island and Hazy Islands on the
radar. Suddenly the radar malfunctions. You then resort
to using whistle echoes to determine your distance off
Coronation Island. Your stopwatch reads 16.3 seconds for
the echo to be heard. How far are you off Coronation
Island?
A: 1.0 mile
B: 1.5 miles
C: 2.0 miles
D: 2.5 miles
735: The period of the Earth's revolution from perihelion to
perihelion is the _________________.
A: astronomical year
B: anomalistic year
C: solar year
D: sidereal year
736: A line on a weather chart connecting places which have the
same barometric pressure is called an _______________.
A: isotherm
B: isallobar
C: isobar
D: isotope
737: What describes an ebb current?
A: Horizontal movement of the water away from the land
following low tide
B: Horizontal movement of the water toward the land following
low tide
C: Horizontal movement of the water away from the land
following high tide
D: Horizontal movement of the water toward the land following
739: The upper vertex of a great circle track is in
LONG 156ø00' E. Sailing eastward, the great circle track
will cross the equator in LONG _______________.
A: 114ø00' W
B: 110ø00' W
C: 66ø00' W
D: 66ø00' E
740: A very light breeze that causes ripples on a small area of
still water is a __________.
A: cat's paw
B: hog's breath
C: williwaw
D: chinook
741: What is the light phase characteristic of a lighted
isolated-danger mark?
A: Interrupted quick flashing
B: Very quick flashing
C: Long flashing
D: Group flashing
742: You are preparing to take a tow from San Diego to Portland,
OR. Good seamanship would require that you have on board,
available for reference and use, all of the following EXCEPT
the _____________________.
A: Coast Pilot
B: harbor and coastal charts for ports of refuge enroute
C: Sailing Directions (Enroute)
D: Light List
743: The Consol navigation system, used in Russian and Northern
European waters, can be used _______________.
A: for precise navigation in coastal waters
B: by measuring the phase difference of the dots and dashes
C: as an aid to ocean navigation
D: if the vessel is fitted with a special Consol receiver
744: A hand held instrument used to measure distances between
objects and the ship is a ______________.
A: vernier
B: psychrometer
C: hygrometer
D: stadimeter
745: Retrograde motion is the ______________.
A: movement of the points of intersection of the planes of the
ecliptic and the equator
B: apparent westerly motion of a planet with respect to stars
C: movement of a superior planet in its orbit about the Sun
D: movement of the celestial north pole in an elliptical
746: Lines drawn through points on the Earth having the same
atmospheric pressure are known as ______________.
A: isothermal
B: millibars
C: isobars
D: seismics
747: The movement of water away from the shore or downstream is
called a(n) _______________.
A: reversing current
B: ebb current
C: flood current
D: slack current
748: You are steaming west in the South Atlantic in an
extratropical cyclonic storm, and the wind is dead ahead.
According to the law of Buys Ballot, the center of low
pressure lies ____________.
A: to the north of you
B: to the south of you
C: dead ahead of you
D: dead astern of you
749: You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at
4.5 knots on course 233ø T, and bears 264ø T at 68 miles
from you. What is the course to steer at 13 knots to
intercept vessel A?
A: 249ø
B: 256ø
C: 262ø
D: 268ø
750: On a working copy of a weather map, a cold front is
represented by what color line?
A: Red
B: Blue
C: Alternating red and blue
D: Purple
751: Under the IALA Buoyage Systems, a yellow buoy may mark
______________.
A: fish net areas
B: spoil areas
C: military exercise zones
D: All of the above
752: Which publication would NOT be used on a voyage from Houston
to New York?
A: Coast Pilot
B: Light List
C: Radio Navigational Aids
D: Sailing Directions (Enroute)
753: Which method of position-finding requires no special
receiving equipment?
A: Consol
B: Omega
C: Loran C
D: Decca
754: Deviation in a compass is caused by the _______________.
A: vessel's geographic position
B: vessel's heading
C: earth's magnetic field
D: influence of the magnetic materials of the vessel
755: The sidereal day begins when the _____________.
A: Sun is over the lower branch of the reference meridian
B: Sun is over the upper branch of the reference meridian
C: first point of Aries is over the lower branch of the
reference meridian
D: first point of Aries is over the upper branch of the
756: What is a common unit of measure for atmospheric pressure?
A: centimeters
B: Inches
C: Degrees
D: Feet
757: The term "flood current" refers to that time when the water
_________.
A: is flowing towards the land
B: is moving towards the ocean
C: level is not changing
D: level is rising because of heavy rains
758: A tropical cyclone has recurved and entered temperate
latitudes. In the Northern Hemisphere when a large high
pressure system lies north of the storm, what situation may
occur?
A: The low may suddenly deepen, and the cyclone intensify and
pick up speed.
B: The left semicircle may become the dangerous semicircle.
C: The low and the high may merge and cancel out the weather
characteristics of each.
D: The high may force the cyclone to reverse its track.
759: At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line.
At 0200 you again fix your position and it is 0.5 mile west
of your DR. Which statement is TRUE?
A: The set is 090ø, drift 0.5 knot.
B: The set is 270ø, drift 0.25 knot.
C: The set is 270ø, drift 0.5 knot.
D: The set is 270ø, drift 1.0 knot.
760: As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in
a magnetic compass ____________.
A: first turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port
B: also turns to starboard
C: remains aligned with compass north
D: turns counterclockwise to port
761: Under the IALA Buoyage Systems, a safe water mark may NOT
________.
A: be spherical
B: display a white light
C: be lettered
D: show a quick flashing light
762: Chart correction information is NOT disseminated through
the _____.
A: Summary of Corrections
B: Local Notice to Mariners
C: Daily Memorandum
D: Chart Correction Card
763: Time signals broadcast by WWV and WWVH are transmitted
______________.
A: every 15 minutes
B: every 30 minutes
C: every hour
D: continuously throughout day
764: Magnetic variation changes with a change in _____________.
A: the vessel's heading
B: sea conditions
C: seasons
D: the vessel's position
765: Diurnal aberration is due to ______________.
A: motion of the Earth in its orbit
B: rotation of the Earth on its axis
C: the body's orbital motion during the time required for its
light to reach the Earth
D: a false horizon
766: Which position includes the effects of wind and current?
A: Dead reckoning position
B: Leeway position
C: Set position
D: Estimated position
767: What describes a flood current?
A: Horizontal movement of the water toward the land after high
tide
B: Horizontal movement of the water toward the land after low
tide
C: Horizontal movement of the water away from the land
following high tide
D: Horizontal movement of the water away from the land
768: The wind velocity is higher in the dangerous semicircle of
a tropical cyclone because of the _____________.
A: wind circulation and forward motion of the storm
B: extension of the low pressure ridge
C: recurvature effect
D: direction of circulation and pressure gradient
770: You are plotting a running fix in an area where there is a
determinable current. How should this current be treated in
determining the position?
A: The course and speed made good should be determined and used
to advance the LOP.
B: The drift should be added to the ship's speed.
C: The current should be ignored.
D: The set should be applied to the second bearing.
771: Under the IALA Buoyage Systems, a spherical buoy will mark
the _________.
A: safe water
B: port side of the channel
C: a hazard to navigation
D: the position of an underwater cable
773: What is the basic principle of the magnetic compass?
A: Magnetic materials of the same polarity repel each other and
those of opposite polarity attract.
B: The Earth's magnetic lines of force are parallel to the
surface of the Earth.
C: Magnetic meridians connect points of equal magnetic
variation.
D: The compass needle(s) will, when properly compensated, lie
774: Variation is not constant; it is different with every change
in __________.
A: speed
B: vessel heading
C: geographical location
D: cargo
775: A sidereal day is shorter than a solar day. This difference
is due to ________________.
A: irregularities in the daily rotational rate of the Sun
B: the space motion of the solar system
C: the precession of the equinoxes
D: the use of different reference points
776: You are navigating in pilotage waters using running fixes.
The maximum time between fixes should be about ____________.
A: 4 hours
B: 1 hour
C: 30 minutes
D: 5 minutes
777: With respect to a reversing current, slack water occurs when
there is ______________.
A: little or no horizontal motion of the water
B: little or no vertical motion of the water
C: a weak ebb or flood current
D: when winds cause water to back up in a river mouth
778: The navigable semicircle of a hurricane in the Northern
Hemisphere is that area of the storm measured ___________.
A: from true north clockwise to 180² T
B: from true north counterclockwise to 180² T
C: from the bow counterclockwise to 180² relative
D: from the direction of the storm's movement counterclockwise
779: Which sextant shown has an index error of 0'20" on the arc?
780: Apparent wind speed blowing across your vessel while
underway can be measured by a(n) __________.
A: barometer
B: wind vane
C: anemometer
D: thermometer
781: The IALA Buoyage Systems do NOT apply to _______________.
A: the sides and centerlines of navigable channels
B: natural dangers and other obstructions, such as wrecks
C: lighthouses and lightships
D: areas in which navigation may be subject to regulation
782: Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or important
changes to aids to navigation by means of _________________.
A: marine broadcast Notice to Mariners
B: Weekly Notices to Mariners
C: corrected editions of charts
D: Light Lists
783: Magnetism which is present only when the material is under
the influence of an external field is called ____________.
A: permanent magnetism
B: induced magnetism
C: residual magnetism
D: terrestrial magnetism
784: Variation is the angular measurement between _____________.
A: compass north and magnetic north
B: compass north and true north
C: magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian
D: your vessel's heading and the magnetic meridian
785: An amplitude of the Sun in high latitudes _________________.
A: is most accurate before sunrise
B: is most accurate after sunset
C: should only be observed when the Sun's lower limb is above
the horizon
D: is most accurate when the Sun's center is observed on the
786: The greater the pressure difference between a high and a low
pressure center, the __________.
A: dryer the air mass will be
B: cooler the temperature will be
C: greater the force of the wind will be
D: warmer the temperature will be
787: You are on a voyage from New Orleans to Boston. When
navigating off the Florida coast, you will get the greatest
benefit from the Gulf Stream if you navigate _____________.
A: about 45 miles east of Cape Canaveral
B: about 25 miles east of Daytona Beach
C: along the 50-fathom curve
D: close inshore between Fowey Rocks and Jupiter Inlet
789: The dangerous semicircle of a hurricane in the Northern
Hemisphere is that area of the storm __________.
A: to the right of the storm's track
B: measured from true north clockwise to 180ø T
C: measured from true north counterclockwise to 180ø T
D: between the ship's heading and the bearing to the eye
791: Under the IALA Buoyage Systems, the topmark of a red and
white vertically-striped buoy shall be ______________.
A: X-shaped
B: two black spheres
C: a single red sphere
D: a single red cone
792: Information about temporary, short term changes affecting
the safety of navigation in U.S. waters is distributed to
navigational interests by the __________________.
A: Daily Memorandum
B: HYDROLANT or HYDROPAC broadcasts
C: Local Notice to Mariners
D: Summary of Corrections
793: The permanent magnetism of a vessel may change in strength
due to _____________.
A: a collision with another vessel
B: being moored on a constant heading for a long period of time
C: being struck by lightning
D: All of the above
794: Your position is LAT 30ø N, LONG 45ø W. From this position
you receive an RDF bearing from a transmitting vessel in LAT
32² N, LONG 40ø W. The bearing corrected for calibration
error is 63.7ø. What is the direction of the rhumb line
between these two positions?
A: 65.9ø
B: 65.0ø
C: 63.7ø
D: 62.4ø
795: The path of a celestial body during its daily apparent
revolution around the Earth is called its ____________.
A: ecliptic
B: diurnal circle
C: altitude circle
D: circle of position
796: Cyclones tend to move ______________.
A: perpendicular to the isobars in their warm sectors
B: parallel to the isobars in their warm sectors
C: parallel to the line of the cold front
D: perpendicular to the line of the cold front
797: Which statement is TRUE concerning the current of the Gulf
Stream?
A: It reaches its daily maximum speed a few hours before the
transit of the Moon.
B: It is slower at the time of neap tides than at spring tides.
C: When the Moon is at its maximum declination the stream is
narrower than when the Moon is on the equator.
D: Variations in the trade winds affect the current.
798: A HYDROLANT warning would normally be sent for all of the
following EXCEPT _____________________.
A: extinguishment of Robbins Reef Light in New York City's
Upper Bay
B: unexploded ordinance in ocean waters at a depth of 78
fathoms (143 meters)
C: the presence of a large unwieldy tow in congested offshore
water
D: a report of an overdue ship
799: In Region A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from
seaward, the starboard side of a channel would be marked by
a _________________________.
A: green can buoy
B: red can buoy
C: green conical buoy
D: red conical buoy
800: You are to sail from Elizabethport, N.J., on 17 November
1983 with a maximum draft of 27 feet. You will pass over an
obstruction in the channel near Sandy Hook that has a depth
of 26 feet. The steaming time from Elizabethport to the
obstruction is 1h 50m. What is the earliest time (ZD +5)
you can sail on 17 November and pass over the obstruction
with 2 feet of clearance?
A: 0059
B: 0121
C: 0159
D: 0221
801: You are entering an African port and see ahead of you a red
can-shaped buoy. What action should you take?
A: Alter course to leave the buoy to port
B: Alter course to leave the buoy to starboard
C: Pass the buoy close aboard on either side
D: Pass the buoy well clear on either side
802: Which is a weekly publication advising mariners of important
matters affecting navigational safety?
A: Light List
B: Notice to Mariners
C: Coast Pilot
D: Sailing Directions
803: Which buoy will NOT display white retroreflective material?
A: Safe water mark
B: Isolated danger mark
C: Preferred channel mark
D: Daymark of no lateral significance
804: A relative bearing is always measured from ____________.
A: true north
B: magnetic north
C: the vessel's beam
D: the vessel's head
805: If the right ascension of a body is 9 hours, it also ______.
A: is 135ø
B: corresponds to an SHA for the body of 45ø
C: means that the GP of the body is in the western hemisphere
D: All of the above
806: Temperature and moisture characteristics are modified in a
warm or cold air mass due to ___________.
A: pressure changes in the air mass
B: movement of the air mass
C: the heterogeneous nature of the air mass
D: upper level atmospheric changes
807: The approximate mean position of the axis of the Gulf Stream
east of Palm Beach, FL, is _________________.
A: 35 nautical miles
B: 25 nautical miles
C: 15 nautical miles
D: 5 nautical miles
808: On a working copy of a weather map, a stationary front is
represented by which color line?
A: Red
B: Blue
C: Alternating red and blue
D: Purple
809: The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both
variation and _____________.
A: deviation
B: annual rate of variation change
C: precession
D: compass error
810: The position labeled B is a(n) ____.
A: fix
B: running fix
C: estimated position
D: dead reckoning position
811: Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, a green spar buoy with a
triangular topmark would indicate that the buoy
_______________.
A: should be left to port when heading out to sea
B: may be left close aboard on either side
C: is on the north side of a point of interest
D: is marking the preferred channel
812: You are informed of defects or changes in aids to navigation
by _____.
A: Local Notice to Mariners
B: Weekly Notice to Mariners
C: marine broadcasts
D: All of the above
813: At the magnetic equator there is no induced magnetism in the
vertical soft iron because _____________.
A: the lines of force cross the equator on a 0ø-180ø
alignment
B: the quadrantal error is 0ø
C: there is no vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field
D: the intercardinal headings have less than 1ø error
814: Frost smoke will occur when ___________________.
A: extremely cold air from shore passes over warmer water
B: warm dry air from shore passes over cooler water
C: cold ocean water evaporates into warm air
D: cool rain passes through a warm air mass
815: When entering from seaward, a buoy displaying a
single-flashing red light indicates ____________.
A: a junction with the preferred channel to the left
B: a sharp turn in the channel to the right
C: the starboard side of the channel
D: a wreck to be left on the vessel's port side
816: Cyclones that have warm sectors usually move ____________.
A: westerly
B: parallel to the isobars in the warm sector
C: toward the nearest high pressure area
D: faster than the accompanying cold front
817: Which current would you encounter on a direct passage from
London, England, to Capetown, South Africa?
A: Falkland Current
B: Brazil Current
C: Norway Current
D: Benguela Current
818: Ocean swells originating from a typhoon can move ahead
of it at speeds near _______________________.
A: 10 knots
B: 20 knots
C: 30 knots
D: 50 knots
819: Which sextant in illustration D050NG has an index error of
4' 20" off the arc?
820: A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at
different times and advanced to a common time is a(n)
__________.
A: dead-reckoning position
B: running fix
C: estimated position
D: fix
822: Charts should be corrected by using information published in
the _______________.
A: Light List
B: American Practical Navigator
C: Notice to Mariners
D: Coast Pilot
823: The greatest directive force is exerted on the magnetic
compass when the _____________.
A: needles are nearly in line with the meridian
B: vessel is near the magnetic poles
C: variation is near zero
D: vessel is near the magnetic equator
824: An "atoll cloud" forming over an island due to heating of
the land during the daytime would be which type?
A: Cirrus
B: Cumulus
C: Stratus
D: Nimbus
825: While steering a course of 150ø T, you wish to observe the
Sun for a speed check. What would the azimuth have to be?
A: 000ø T
B: 090ø T
C: 150ø T
D: 240ø T
826: In the U.S., in which direction do air masses usually move?
A: Easterly
B: Southerly
C: Northerly
D: Southwesterly
827: The Benguela Current flows in a ____________.
A: SW'ly direction along the NW coast of Africa
B: S'ly direction off the East Coast of Australia
C: NW'ly direction along the SW coast of Africa
D: SW'ly direction along the SE coast of Greenland
828: The true wind has been determined to be from 210² T, speed
12 knots. You desire the apparent wind to be 30 knots from
10² on the port bow. What course must you steer, and what
speed must you make for this to occur?
A: 235² T, 18.6 knots
B: 245² T, 20.0 knots
C: 325² T, 22.4 knots
D: 335² T, 23.6 knots
829: You are plotting a running fix in an area where there is a
determinable current. How should this current be treated in
determining the position?
A: The drift should be added to the ship's speed.
B: The set should be applied to the second bearing.
C: The current should be ignored.
D: The course and speed made good should be determined and used
830: The highest frequency of tropical cyclones in the
North Atlantic Ocean occurs during ____________________.
A: January, February and March
B: April, May and June
C: August, September and October
D: July, November and December
831: Under the IALA-A Buoyage system, a buoy marking the
starboard side of the channel when approaching from seaward
may have a _________.
A: triangular topmark
B: red light
C: can shape
D: isophase light
832: What is the most important source of information to be used
in correcting charts and keeping them up to date?
A: Fleet Guides
B: Notice to Mariners
C: Sailing Directions
D: Pilot Charts
833: The magnetic compass magnets are acted on by the horizontal
component of the Earth's total magnetic force. This
magnetic force is GREATEST at the _____________.
A: north magnetic pole
B: south magnetic pole
C: magnetic prime vertical meridian
D: magnetic equator
834: In many areas "atoll" clouds (clouds of vertical
development) are produced over small islands. These are the
result of ______________.
A: rising air currents produced by the warm islands
B: warm air from the sea rising over higher land areas
C: cool land air mixing with warm sea air
D: descending air over the islands
835: When taking stars, those bodies to the east and west will
________.
A: change altitude rapidly
B: change altitude slowly
C: remain in an almost fixed position
D: appear to be moving in the plane of the horizon
836: In North America the majority of the weather systems move
from ___________.
A: north to south
B: south to north
C: east to west
D: west to east
837: The Brazil Current flows in which general direction?
A: Northwesterly
B: Southwesterly
C: Southerly
D: Northerly
838: A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar ___________.
A: must use information from targets forward of the beam
B: should never use radar bearings
C: should only use radar bearings when the range exceeds the
distance to the horizon
D: can use radar information from one object to fix the
839: When using a radar in an unstabilized mode, fixes are
determined most easily from ________________.
A: ranges
B: center bearings
C: tangent bearings
D: objects that are close aboard
840: Which position includes the effects of wind and current?
A: Estimated position
B: Set position
C: Leeway position
D: Dead reckoning position
841: Under the IALA-A Buoyage system, a buoy marking the port
hand of the channel when approaching from seaward may NOT
have a ____________.
A: red light
B: conical shape
C: group-flashing light
D: square topmark
842: Coast Pilots and navigational charts are kept corrected
and up-to-date by using the ____________.
A: pilot charts
B: Notices to Mariners
C: Tide Tables
D: Current Tables
843: The line which connects the points of zero magnetic dip is
_________.
A: an agonic line
B: the magnetic equator
C: a magnetic meridian
D: All of the above
844: A cloud of marked vertical development (often anvil-shaped)
would be classified as ______________.
A: cirrus
B: cirrocumulus
C: altocumulus
D: cumulonimbus
845: During one synodic rotation, a body makes one complete turn
relative to the _______________.
A: Earth
B: Sun
C: stars
D: vernal equinox
846: Weather systems in the middle latitudes generally travel
from _______.
A: east to west
B: north to south
C: west to east
D: None of the above
847: On a voyage from Halifax, N.S., to Dakar, West Africa, the
Canary Current will _____________.
A: set the vessel to the left
B: set the vessel to the right
C: offer resistance in the form of a head current
D: furnish additional thrust in the form of a fair or following
849: The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal
range of 12 miles and a height above water of 25 feet (7.6
meters). Your height of eye is 30 feet (9.1 meters) and the
visibility is 0.5 mile. At what approximate range will you
first sight the light?
A: 0.5 mile
B: 1.4 miles
C: 5.2 miles
D: 12.0 miles
850: When is the peak of the hurricane season in the western
North Pacific?
A: January through March
B: April through June
C: July through October
D: November through December
851: You would expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A
Buoyage System in ______________________.
A: the Philippines
B: Australia
C: Republic of Korea
D: Chile
852: What is published by the U.S. Coast Guard?
A: Light List
B: Nautical Charts
C: Tide Tables
D: U.S. Coast Pilot
853: The standard magnetic compass heading differs from the true
heading by ________________.
A: compass error
B: latitude
C: variation
D: deviation
854: The appearance of nimbostratus clouds in the immediate
vicinity of a ship at sea would be accompanied by which of
the following conditions?
A: Rain and poor visibility
B: Dropping barometric pressure and backing wind in the
Northern Hemisphere
C: High winds and rising sea
D: Severe thunderstorms
855: Which condition exists at the summer solstice in the
Northern Hemisphere?
A: The north polar regions are in continual darkness.
B: The Northern Hemisphere is having short days and long
nights.
C: The Southern Hemisphere is having winter.
D: The Sun shines equally on both hemispheres.
856: The flow of air around an anticyclone in the Southern
Hemisphere is _____.
A: clockwise and outward
B: counterclockwise and outward
C: clockwise and inward
D: counterclockwise and inward
857: The current that, in many respects, is similar to the Gulf
Stream is the _____________.
A: Kuroshio
B: California Current
C: Oyashio
D: Benguela Current
858: Your ship is proceeding on course 320² T at a speed of 25
knots. The apparent wind is from 30² off the starboard bow,
speed 32 knots. What is the relative direction, true
direction and speed of the true wind?
A: Relative 80², true 040² T, 16.2 knots
B: Relative 40², true 080² T, 16.4 knots
C: Relative 80², true 060² T, 15.2 knots
D: Relative 60², true 040² T, 18.6 knots
859: At 1800 ZT on 31 October, your position is LAT 24ø50' N,
LONG 92ø37' W. You are preparing a weather report form, WS
Form B-80. How should you encode the first three groups
after the call sign if you estimate the wind?
A: 31123, 99929, 70249
B: 31183, 99249, 79237
C: 31243, 99249, 70926
D: 01003, 99248, 70926
860: The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal
range of 10 miles and a height above water of 38 feet (9.1
meters). Your height of eye is 52 feet (15.8 ,meters) and
the visibility is 11.0 miles. At which approximate range
will you first sight the light?
A: 10.5 miles
B: 13.9 miles
C: 15.6 miles
D: 18.0 miles
861: You would expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A
Buoyage System in __________________.
A: Argentina
B: Japan
C: India
D: Canada
862: The U.S. Coast Guard publishes ______.
A: Light Lists
B: U.S. Coast Pilots
C: Radio Navigational Aids
D: All of the above
863: The compass heading of a vessel differs from the true
heading by _______________.
A: compass error
B: variation
C: magnetic dip
D: deviation
864: Uniform, grayish-white cloud sheets that cover large
portions of the sky, and are responsible for a large
percentage of the precipitation in the temperate latitudes,
are called ______________.
A: altostratus
B: altocumulus
C: cirrostratus
D: cirrocumulus
865: The radius of a circle of equal altitude of a body is equal
to the _______________.
A: coaltitude of the body
B: altitude of the body
C: codeclination of the body
D: polar distance
866: Anticyclones are usually characterized by _____.
A: dry, fair weather
B: high winds and cloudiness
C: gustiness and continuous precipitation
D: overcast skies
867: Which ocean current is "warm" based on the latitude in which
it originates and on the effect it has on climate?
A: Kuroshio Current
B: Benguela Current
C: Peru Current
D: California Current
868: Your ship received a HYDROLANT advising of a special warning
to mariners from the Department of State for ships in the
Persian Gulf. You are 400 miles south of, and bound for,
the Persian Gulf. What action should you take?
A: Continue on course as the warning is advisory in nature
only.
B: Send an AMVER report and acknowledge receipt of the warning.
C: Remain a minimum of 500 miles outside the Persian Gulf and
maintain radio silence.
D: Send a MERWARN message advising your position, course, speed
869: Tropical storms and hurricanes are most likely to form in
the Southern hemisphere during ______________________.
A: January through March
B: April through May
C: June through August
D: September through November
871: Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, a buoy marking the
starboard side of the channel when approaching from seaward
must have a(n) _____________.
A: pillar shape
B: green color
C: square topmark
D: even number
872: Which agency publishes the Light Lists?
A: United States Coast Guard
B: National Ocean Service
C: Oceanographic Office
D: Army Corps of Engineers
873: Compass error is equal to the _______________.
A: deviation minus variation
B: variation plus compass course
C: combined variation and deviation
D: difference between true and magnetic heading
874: Altocumulus clouds are defined as ______________.
A: high clouds
B: middle clouds
C: low clouds
D: vertical development clouds
875: Sidereal hour angle is always _______________.
A: measured westward from the hour circle containing the first
point of Aries
B: measured from the point on the celestial sphere occupied by
the Sun at the vernal equinox
C: subtracted from the LHA of the star to obtain the LHA of
Aries
D: All of the above
876: A generally circular low pressure area is called a(n) _____.
A: cyclone
B: anticyclone
C: cold front
D: occluded front
877: Cold water flowing southward through the western part of the
Bering Strait between Alaska and Siberia is joined by water
circulating counterclockwise in the Bering Sea to form the
_____________.
A: Alaska Current
B: Subarctic Current
C: Kuroshio Current
D: Oyashio Current
878: At 0600 ZT on 31 January, your position is LAT 00ø49' S,
LONG 84ø27' E. You are preparing a weather report form, WS
Form B-80. How should you encode the first three groups
after the call sign if you estimate the wind?
A: 30243, 90008, 30848
B: 31003, 99049, 38427
C: 31003, 99008, 30844
D: 31063, 99049, 58427
879: You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at
4.5 knots on course 233ø T, and bears 346ø T at 68 miles
from you. What is the course to steer at 13 knots to
intercept vessel A?
A: 328ø
B: 323ø
C: 318ø
D: 314ø
880: You are taking bearings on two known objects ashore. The
BEST fix is obtained when the angle between the lines of
position is _____________.
A: 60ø
B: 90ø
C: 45ø
D: 30ø
881: Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, when entering from
seaward, a bouy indicating the preferred channel is to
starboard may have a ______________.
A: green light
B: long-flashing light characteristic
C: square topmark
D: conical shape
882: Some lights used as aids to marine navigation have a red
sector to indicate a danger area. The limits of a colored
sector of a light are listed in the Light List in which of
the following manners?
A: Geographical positions outlining the area of the sector
B: True bearings as observed from the ship toward the light
C: An outline of the area of the sector
D: True bearings as observed from the light toward the ship
883: When changing from a compass course to a true course you
should apply ____________.
A: variation
B: deviation
C: variation and deviation
D: a correction for the direction of current set
884: Which cloud type is normally associated with thunderstorms?
A: Cirrus
B: Stratus
C: Cumulus
D: Cumulonimbus
885: The daily path of a celestial body that is parallel to the
celestial equator is the ______________.
A: altitude circle
B: vertical circle
C: diurnal circle
D: hour circle
886: The circulation around a low pressure center in the Northern
Hemisphere is _____.
A: counterclockwise
B: variable
C: clockwise
D: anticyclonic
887: Which current would you encounter on a direct passage from
southern Africa to Argentina, South America?
A: South Atlantic
B: South Equatorial
C: Agulhas
D: Guinea
888: Recurvature of a hurricane's track usually results in the
forward speed ______________________.
A: increasing
B: decreasing
C: remaining the same
D: varying during the day
889: The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal
range of 6 miles and a height above water of 18 feet (5.5
meters). Your height of eye is 47 feet (14.3 meters) and
the visibility is 1.5 miles. At what approximate range will
you first sight the light?
A: 1.5 miles
B: 2.0 miles
C: 6.0 miles
D: 12.7 miles
890: If several fixed navigational lights are visible at the same
time, each one may be positively identified by checking all
of the following EXCEPT what against the Light List?
A: Rhythm
B: Period
C: Intensity
D: Color
891: Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, a buoy indicating the
preferred channel is to port would have __________________.
A: an even number
B: an odd number
C: a pillar shape
D: horizontal bands
892: When a buoy is in position only during a certain period of
the year, where may the dates when the buoy is in position
be found?
A: Light List
B: Notice to Mariners
C: On the chart
D: Coast Pilot
893: One point of a compass is equal to how many degrees?
A: 7.5
B: 11.25
C: 17.5
D: 22.5
894: On a clear, warm day, you notice the approach of a tall
cumulus cloud. The cloud top has hard well defined edges
and rain is falling from the dark lower edge. Should this
cloud pass directly overhead __________.
A: it will be preceded by a sudden increase in wind speed
B: it will be preceded by a sudden decrease in wind speed
C: the wind speed will not change as it passes
D: the wind will back rapidly to left in a counterclockwise
895: The ecliptic is ______________.
A: the path the Sun appears to take among the stars
B: the path the Earth appears to take among the stars
C: a diagram of the zodiac
D: a great circle on a gnomonic chart
896: The wind direction around a low pressure area in the
Northern Hemisphere is _____.
A: clockwise and inward
B: clockwise and outward
C: counterclockwise and inward
D: counterclockwise and outward
897: What current flows southward along the west coast of the
United States and causes extensive fog in that area?
A: Davidson Current
B: North Pacific Current
C: Alaska Current
D: California Current
898: At 1200 ZT, on 31 July, your position is LAT 24ø33' N, LONG
173ø05' W. You are preparing a weather report form, WS
Form, B-80. How should you encode the first three groups
after the call sign if you estimate the wind?
A: 01003, 99245, 71731
B: 01243, 92433, 71731
C: 31243, 99245, 71731
D: 31003, 92433, 71730
899: A latitude line will be obtained by observing a body
__________.
A: on the prime vertical
B: on the celestial horizon
C: at lower transit
D: on the Greenwich meridian
900: An orange and white buoy with a rectangle on it is a(n) ___.
A: informational buoy
B: junction buoy
C: safe water buoy
D: All of the above
901: Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, a buoy indicating that the
preferred channel is to port when entering from seaward, can
have a ___________________.
A: can shape
B: group-flashing (2) light
C: red-and-green vertical stripes
D: green light
902: All of the following information concerning lighted aids to
navigation may be read directly from the Light List EXCEPT
the _________________.
A: location
B: height of light above water
C: luminous range
D: light characteristics
903: Eight points of a compass are equal to how many degrees?
A: 45
B: 90
C: 180
D: 360
904: All of the following are associated with cumulonimbus clouds
EXCEPT ______________.
A: steady rainfall
B: hail storms
C: thunderstorms
D: tornadoes or waterspouts
905: The Sun's center is coincident with the principal vertical
circle when _____.
A: in lower transit
B: the hour circle and prime vertical are coincident
C: the declination is zero degrees and the azimuth is exactly N
135ø E
D: the declination is zero degrees and the azimuth is exactly N
906: In the Northern Hemisphere, an area of counterclockwise wind
circulation surrounded by higher pressure is a _____.
A: low
B: high
C: warm front
D: cold front
907: In which month will the equatorial counter current be
strongest?
A: January
B: April
C: August
D: October
908: From LAT 07ø12' N, LONG 80ø00' W, to LAT 47ø12' S, LONG
169ø18' E, the initial great circle course angle is
137.25ø. How would you name this course?
A: N 137.25ø E
B: S 137.25ø E
C: N 137.25ø W
D: S 137.25ø W
909: What is the average speed of movement of a hurricane prior
to recurvature?
A: 4 to 6 knots
B: 6 to 8 knots
C: 10 to 12 knots
D: 15 to 20 knots
910: The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal
range of 12 miles and a height above water of 25 feet (7.6
meters). Your height of eye is 38 feet (11.6 meters) and
the visibility is 5.5 miles. At what approximate range will
you FIRST sight the light?
A: 5.5 miles
B: 6.3 miles
C: 8.0 miles
D: 12.0 miles
911: Under the IALA-B Buoyage System, a buoy displaying a red
light will ______________.
A: be left to starboard when entering from seaward
B: show a light characteristic of Morse Code "A"
C: be lettered
D: have a radar reflector
912: The Light List Does NOT contain information on __________.
A: Loran-C station systems
B: aeronautical lights useful for marine navigation
C: radiobeacon systems
D: radio direction finder calibration stations
913: How many points are there in a compass card?
914: If the sky was clear, with the exception of a few cumulus
clouds, it would indicate _____________________.
A: rain
B: hurricane weather
C: fair weather
D: fog setting in
915: The Sun's center may be coincident with both the celestial
equator and the observer's prime vertical circle when
_____.
A: it crosses the December solstitial point
B: it crosses the June solstitial point
C: it is in upper transit
D: its declination is zero
916: Stormy weather is usually associated with regions of _____.
A: low barometric pressure
B: high barometric pressure
C: steady barometric pressure
D: changing barometric pressure
917: As the South Equatorial Current approaches the east coast of
Africa, it divides with the main part flowing south to form
the warm ________.
A: Agulhas Current
B: Canary Current
C: Benguela Current
D: Madagascar Current
918: At 1200 ZT, on 31 August, your position is LAT 43ø14' S,
LONG 175ø44' E. You are preparing a weather report form, WS
Form B-80. How should you encode the first three groups
after the call sign if you estimate the wind?
A: 01003, 94314, 51757
B: 31003, 99432, 31757
C: 31123, 99432, 31754
D: 31243, 94314, 31757
919: You are plotting a running fix in an area where there is a
determinable current. How should this current be treated in
determining the position?
A: The drift should be added to the ship's speed.
B: The course and speed made good should be determined and used
to advance the LOP.
C: The current should be ignored.
D: The set should be applied to the second bearing.
920: What is the average speed of the movement of a hurricane
following the recurvature of its track?
A: 5 to 10 knots
B: 20 to 30 knots
C: 40 to 50 knots
D: Over 60 knots
921: Under the IALA-B Buoyage System, a conical buoy will be
______________.
A: red in color
B: numbered with an odd number
C: left to port when entering from seaward
D: All of the above
922: How is the intensity of a light expressed in the Light
Lists?
A: Luminous range
B: Geographic range
C: Nominal range
D: Meteorological range
923: A magnetic compass is marked in how many degrees?
A: 90
B: 180
C: 360
D: 400
924: The form of cloud often known as "mackerel sky" which is
generally associated with fair weather is ______________.
A: nimbostratus
B: stratus
C: cirrocumulus
D: cumulonimbus
925: Your vessel is at the equator at midnight on 1 January, and
a star is observed rising. At what time will this same star
rise on 1 February, assuming your vessel's location is still
at the equator?
A: 2208
B: 2110
C: 2158
D: 2317
926: When a low pressure area is approaching, the weather
generally _____.
A: improves
B: worsens
C: remains the same
D: is unpredictable
927: The set of the equatorial countercurrent is generally to
the _____________.
A: north
B: east
C: southwest
D: northwest
928: The position labeled "D" was plotted because ____________.
A: a dead reckoning position is plotted for each course change
B: a dead reckoning position is plotted withen 30 minutes of
a running fix
C: the vessel's speed changed at 1125
D: All of the above
929: Which error is NOT included in the term "current" when used
in relation to a fix?
A: Poor steering
B: Leeway
C: Known compass error
D: Ocean currents
930: Which statement about radio navigational warnings is TRUE?
A: The topics for warnings included in HYDROLANTS, HYDROPACS,
and NAVAREA warnings are the same.
B: NAVAREA warnings concern only coastal navigation and inland
navigation in large bays or sounds such as Puget Sound.
C: The United States is responsible for NAVAREA warnings in
the North Atlantic north of 7ø N, and west of 15ø W.
D: Long range radio navigational warnings are usually
931: Under the IALA-B Buoyage System, when entering from seaward,
a buoy that should be left to port will be ______________.
A: black
B: red
C: green
D: yellow
932: To find the specific phase characteristic of a lighthouse on
a sound of the United States you would use the ___________.
A: American Practical Navigator
B: Light List
C: Nautical Chart Catalog
D: U.S. Coast Pilot
933: How many degrees are there on a compass card?
A: 360ø
B: 380ø
C: 390ø
D: 420ø
934: Clouds that form as small white flakes or scaly globular
masses covering either small or large portions of the sky
are ______________.
A: cirrus
B: cirrostratus
C: altostratus
D: cirrocumulus
935: The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal
range of 5 miles and a height above water of 21 feet (6.4
meters). Your height of eye is 32 feet (9.8 meters) and the
visibility is 1.0 mile. At what approximate range will you
first sight the light?
A: 1.0 mile
B: 1.5 miles
C: 5.0 miles
D: 11.7 miles
936: A cyclone in its final stage of development is called a(n)
__________.
A: tornado
B: anticyclone
C: occluded cyclone or occluded front
D: polar cyclone
937: The north equatorial current flows to the _____________.
A: east
B: northeast
C: southwest
D: west
939: That half of the hurricane to the right hand side
of its track (as you face the same direction that
the storm is moving) in the Northern Hemisphere
is called the ______________________.
A: windward side
B: leeward side
C: safe semicircle
D: dangerous semicircle
940: What is the length of a nautical mile?
A: 6,076 feet
B: 5,280 feet
C: 2,000 yards
D: 1,850 meters
941: While preparing to enter a Brazilian port, you see ahead a
red and green horizontally-striped buoy. The upper band is
red. What action should you take?
A: Alter course to leave the buoy to port.
B: Alter course to leave the buoy to starboard.
C: Pass the buoy close aboard on either side.
D: Pass the buoy well clear on either side.
942: Light Lists for coastal waters are _____________.
A: published every year and require no corrections
B: published every second year and must be corrected
C: published every five years and require no correction
D: accurate thru NM number on title page and must be corrected
943: You should plot your dead reckoning position _____.
A: when you obtain an estimated position
B: ONLY in piloting waters
C: at every speed change
D: All of the above are correct.
944: High clouds, composed of small white flakes or scaly
globular masses, and often banded together to form a
"mackerel sky", would be classified as ________________.
A: cirrus
B: cirrocumulus
C: altostratus
D: cumulonimbus
945: What is NOT a side of the navigational triangle used in
sight reduction?
A: Altitude
B: Zenith distance
C: Colatitude
D: Polar distance
946: The wind circulation around a high pressure center in the
Northern Hemisphere is _____.
A: counterclockwise and moving towards the high
B: counterclockwise and moving outward from the high
C: clockwise and moving towards the high
D: clockwise and moving outward from the high
947: The cold ocean current which meets the warm Gulf Stream
between latitudes 40ø and 43ø N to form the "cold wall" is
called the _____________.
A: North Cape Current
B: Labrador Current
C: Greenland Current
D: North Atlantic Current
948: You are hove to in a hurricane on a heading of 328ø T. The
anemometer indicates that the apparent wind is from 030ø
relative at 119 knots. How should this be encoded on the
A: 88619
B: 87819
C: 8519
D: 80319
949: In Region A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from
seaward, the port side of a channel would be marked by a
_______________________.
A: black can buoy
B: red can buoy
C: black conical buoy
D: red conical buoy
950: Where is the dangerous semicircle located on a hurricane
in the Southern Hemisphere?
A: To the left of the storm's track
B: To the right of the storm's track
C: In the high pressure area
D: On the south side
951: In which country would you expect the channels to be marked
with the IALA-B Buoyage System?
A: Poland
B: Morocco
C: Peru
D: Saudi Arabia
952: What is TRUE concerning new editions of Light Lists?
A: Supplements to new editions are issued monthly by the U.S.
Coast Guard.
B: New editions are published by the National Ocean Survey.
C: New editions are corrected through the date shown on the
title page.
D: None of the above
953: The magnetic compass operates on the principle that ______.
A: like magnetic poles attract
B: unlike magnetic poles repel
C: unlike poles attract
D: the poles of the compass line up with the geographic poles
954: A thin, whitish, high cloud popularly known as "mares tails"
is _________.
A: altostratus
B: stratus
C: cumulus
D: cirrus
955: The line of position determined from a sight with an
observed altitude (Ho) of 88ø45.0' should be ____________.
A: reduced to the meridian and plotted as a latitude line
B: calculated as a longitude line
C: plotted by using an intercept from an assumed position
D: plotted as an arc around the GP of the body
956: Good weather is usually associated with a region of _______.
A: low barometric pressure
B: high barometric pressure
C: falling barometric pressure
D: pumping barometric pressure
957: The Humboldt Current flows in which direction?
A: North
B: South
C: East
D: West
958: You are preparing a weather report form. Twenty-five
percent of the sky is covered with clouds, and the
anemometer indicates that the apparent wind is from 062²
relative at 13 knots. You are on course 238ø T at 22 knots.
How should you encode group Nddff?
A: 20220
B: 20613
C: 30219
D: 32413
959: What is the index error of sextant B in illustration D050NG?
A: 0'30" off the arc
B: 1'00" off the arc
C: 3'30" off the arc
D: 1'30" on the arc
960: The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal
range of 15 miles and a height above water of 29 feet (8.8
meters). Your height of eye is 52 feet (15.8 meters) and
visibility is 6.0 miles. At which approximate range will you
first sight the light?
A: 9.0 miles
B: 11.0 miles
C: 14.5 miles
D: 15.0 miles
961: In which country would you expect the channels to be marked
with the IALA-B Buoyage System?
A: Brazil
B: Tanzania
C: New Zealand
D: Norway
962: Chart legends which indicate a conspicuous landmark are
printed in _____.
A: underlined letters
B: boldfaced print
C: italics
D: capital letters
963: To center a compass bowl in its binnacle, you should have
the ship on an even keel, heading north or south, and adjust
the screws until _____________.
A: the compass heading is in line with the lubber's line
B: there is no lost motion in the gimbal rings
C: no change of heading by compass is observed if you raise and
lower the heeling magnet
D: the gimbal rings do not strike the compass frame when they
964: The thin, whitish, high clouds composed of ice crystals,
popularly known as "mare's tails" are ______________.
A: cirrus
B: cirrocumulus
C: altostratus
D: nimbostratus
965: In order for a star to be used for a sight at lower transit,
the star must _________.
A: be circumpolar
B: have a declination equal to or greater than your
latitude
C: have a GHA of 180ø
D: have the SHA equal to or less than the LHA
966: Most high pressure areas in the United States are
accompanied by __________________.
A: precipitation
B: clear, cool weather
C: humid, sticky weather
D: cool fogs
967: On a voyage from New York to Durban, South Africa, you
should expect the Agulhas Current to present a strong
_____________.
A: offshore set
B: onshore set
C: head current
D: fair or following current
968: The world is divided into NAVAREAS by the National Imagery
and Mapping Agency for the dissemination of important marine
information. Which NAVAREAS include the U.S.
coasts?
A: I and II
B: IV and XII
C: V and X
D: VI and VII
970: You are preparing a weather report form, WS Form B-80. The
sky is overcast, and the anemometer indicates that the
apparent wind is from 144ø relative at 8 knots. You are on
course 162ø T at 15 knots. How should you encode group
Nddff?
A: 91521
B: 83322
C: 81408
D: 01615
971: You are in British waters on course 090ø T when you sight a
flashing white light with a characteristic of VQ(9)10s. You
immediately change course to 030ø T. After one hour, you
sight another flashing white light with the characteristic
of VQ. You must pass well _______.
A: south of this buoy
B: west of this buoy
C: north of this buoy
D: east of this buoy
972: In which source could you find the number of a chart for a
certain geographic area?
A: Chart No. 1
B: Catalog of Charts
C: American Practical Navigator
D: U.S. Coast Guard Light List
973: The heading of a vessel is indicated by what part of the
compass?
A: Card
B: Needle
C: Lubber's line
D: Gimbals
974: Which cloud commonly produces a halo about the Sun or Moon?
A: Cirrostratus
B: Cirrocumulus
C: Altostratus
D: Altocumulus
975: The change in the length of the day becomes greater as
latitude increases because of the ___________________.
A: path of the ecliptic relative to the equator
B: decreasing distance between meridians
C: changing distance between the Earth and the Sun
D: increased obliquity of the Sun's diurnal circle
976: The atmosphere in the vicinity of a high pressure area is
called a(n) ______________.
A: anticyclone
B: cold front
C: occluded front
D: cyclone
977: In the Sargasso Sea there are large quantities of seaweed
and no well defined currents. This area is located in the
_____________.
A: Central North Atlantic Ocean
B: Caribbean Sea
C: Western North Pacific Ocean
D: area off the west coast of South America
978: The wind velocity is higher in the dangerous semicircle of a
tropical cyclone because of the _____________.
A: recurvature effect
B: extension of the low pressure ridge
C: wind circulation and forward motion of the storm
D: direction of circulation and pressure gradient
979: Which kind of conditions would you observe as the eye of a
storm passes over your vessel's position?
A: Huge waves approaching from all directions, clearing skies,
light winds, and an extremely low barometer
B: Flat calm seas, heavy rain, light winds, and an extremely
low barometer
C: Flat calm seas, heavy rain, light winds, and high pressure
D: Huge waves approaching from all directions, clearing skies,
980: When the declination of the Moon is 0ø12.5' S, you can
expect some tidal currents in Gulf Coast ports to ________.
A: have either a double ebb or a double flood
B: become weak and variable
C: become reversing currents
D: exceed the predicted velocities
981: The characteristic of a lighted cardinal mark may be
______________.
A: very quick flashing
B: flashing
C: fixed
D: occulting
982: The National Imagery and Mapping Agency's List of Lights for
coasts other than the United States and its possessions does
NOT provide information on _________.
A: lighted buoys in harbors
B: storm signal stations
C: radio direction finder stations at or near lights
D: radio beacons located at or near lights
983: Error may be introduced into a magnetic compass by
________.
A: making a structural change to the vessel
B: a short circuit near the compass
C: belt buckles
D: All of the above
984: The bases of middle clouds are located at altitudes of
between ______________.
A: 3,000 to 6,500 feet (914 to 1981 meters)
B: 6,500 to 20,000 feet (1981 to 6096 meters)
C: 10,000 to 35,000 feet (3048 to 10,668 meters)
D: 20,000 to 60,000 feet (6096 to 18,288 meters)
985: A time diagram is a diagram on the plane of the _________.
A: celestial meridian
B: celestial equator
C: celestial horizon
D: principal vertical circle
986: A warm air mass is characterized by ______________.
A: stability
B: instability
C: gusty winds
D: good visibility
987: Which current is responsible for the movement of icebergs
into the North Atlantic shipping lanes?
A: Iceland Current
B: Baltic Current
C: Labrador Current
D: Baffin Current
988: You are preparing a weather report form, WS Form B-80.
One-half of the sky is covered with clouds, and the
anemometer indicates that the apparent wind is from 340ø
relative at 14 knots. You are on course 307ø T at 12.6
knots. How should you encode group Nddff?
A: 53414
B: 54013
C: 42205
D: 43013
989: The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal
range of 18 miles and a height above water of 22 feet (6.7
meters). Your height of eye is 16 feet (4.9 meters) and the
visibility is 2.0 miles. At which approximate range will
you first sight the light?
A: 2.0 miles
B: 2.7 miles
C: 4.2 miles
D: 5.8 miles
990: You plot a fix using three lines of position and find they
intersect in a triangle. You should plot the position of
the vessel ___________________.
A: outside of the triangle
B: anywhere in the triangle
C: on the line of position from the nearest object, between
the other two lines of position
D: in the geometric center of the triangle
991: You are underway in the North Sea on course 328ø T when you
sight a buoy broad on your port bow. You are in the best
navigable water if the buoy ____________.
A: has a topmark of two cones with points down
B: is a western quadrant buoy
C: is painted yellow on the top half and black on the bottom
D: exhibits a light with the characteristic of VQ(3)5s
992: What publication contains information on Loran, Decca, and
Consol systems?
A: Pub. 117, Radio Navigational Aids
B: Appropriate volume of the Sailing Directions
C: Pub. 102, International Code of Signals
D: Light List
993: When crossing the magnetic equator the _____________.
A: Flinders bar should be inverted
B: heeling magnet should be inverted
C: the quadrantal spheres should be rotated 180ø
D: Flinders bar should be moved to the opposite side of the
994: Which list of clouds is in sequence, from highest to lowest
in the sky?
A: Altostratus, cirrostratus, stratus
B: Cirrostratus, altostratus, stratus
C: Stratus, cirrostratus, altostratus
D: Altostratus, stratus, cirrostratus
995: What is the equivalent of 83ø29.6' in time units?
A: 5h 47m 34.8s
B: 5h 18m 22.7s
C: 5h 01m 42.3s
D: 5h 33m 58.4s
996: Warm air masses will generally have ___________.
A: turbulence within the mass
B: stratiform clouds
C: heavy precipitation
D: good visibility
997: A coastal current _________.
A: is generated by waves striking the beach
B: flows outside the surf zone
C: flows in a circular pattern
D: is also known as a longshore current
998: The navigable semicircle of a tropical storm in the
South Indian Ocean is located on which side of the storm's
track?
A: Rear
B: Front
C: Left
D: Right
999: You are preparing a weather report form, WS Form B-80.
Three-quarters of the sky is covered with clouds, and the
anemometer indicates that the apparent wind is from 226ø
relative at 17.7 knots. You are on course 020ø T at 8
knots. How should you encode group Nddff?
A: 80208
B: 72218
C: 72318
D: 62324
1000: You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The
range line is 309ø T. You are steering 306ø T. The range
appears as shown and is closing. Which action should you
take?
A: Continue on course until the range is closed, then
alter course to the right.
B: Continue on the present heading until the range is in
line, then alter course to the left.
C: Immediately alter course to the right to bring the range
in line.
D: Immediately alter course to 309ø T to bring the range
1001: While steaming in English waters on course 280ø T, you sight
a buoy showing a very quick-flashing (VQ) white light well
to port. Maintaining course, you sight another buoy showing
a quick-flashing (Q) white light. You should pass ________.
A: north of the buoy
B: west of the buoy
C: east of the buoy
D: south of the buoy
1002: What publication contains information about the port
facilities in Cadiz, Spain?
A: World Port Index
B: United States Coast Pilot
C: Nautical Index
D: Sailing Directions
1003: The quadrantal spheres are used to ___________.
A: remove deviation on the intercardinal headings
B: remove deviation on the cardinal compass headings
C: remove heeling error
D: compensate for induced magnetism in vertical soft iron
1004: A low, uniform layer of cloud resembling fog, but not
resting on the ground, is called _______________.
A: cumulus
B: nimbus
C: stratus
D: cirrus
1005: The refraction correction table given in the Nautical
Almanac is based on a standard or average atmospheric
density with a temperature of 50ø F (10ø C) and atmospheric
pressure of ______________.
A: 29.72 inches (1006 millibars)
B: 29.83 inches (1010 millibars)
C: 29.89 inches (1012 millibars)
D: 29.93 inches (1014 millibars)
1006: An air mass is termed "warm" if ______________.
A: it is above 70ø F
B: the ground over which it moves is cooler than the air
C: it originated in a high pressure area
D: it originated in a low pressure area
1007: When a current flows in the opposite direction to the waves,
the wave _____________.
A: length is increased
B: height is increased
C: velocity increases
D: length is unchanged
1008: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range
of 18 miles and is 38 feet high. If the visibility is 6
miles and your height of eye is 15 feet, at which distance
will you sight the light?
A: 18.0 nm
B: 14.8 nm
C: 11.7 nm
D: 6.0 nm
1009: You are preparing a weather report form, WS Form B-80. The
dry bulb thermometer reads 34ø F, and the wet bulb
thermometer reads 31ø F. Using the ships code card, how
would you encode the air temperature groups in the report?
A: 10340, 2127/
B: 10111, 2104/
C: 10011, 2104/
D: 10340, 2031/
1010: What is a characteristic of a rhumb line?
A: It is the shortest distance between two points on the Earth.
B: It plots as a straight line on a Lambert conformal chart.
C: It cuts each meridian at the same angle.
D: The course angle constantly changes to form the loxodromic
1011: You are underway in the North Sea on course 127ø T. You
sight a buoy with the topmarks shown bearing two points on
the starboard bow. Which action must be taken?
A: Alter course to starboard until the buoy is at least two
points on the port bow, then hold course.
B: Alter course to port until the buoy is broad on the
starboard quarter, then hold course.
C: Change course to have the buoy close aboard either side.
D: Ensure the bearings change to the right.
1012: General information about the location, characteristics,
facilities, and services for U.S. and foreign ports may be
obtained from which publication?
A: World Port Index
B: Sailing Directions
C: Distances Between Ports
D: Coast Pilot
1013: The purpose of the soft iron spheres mounted on arms
on the binnacle is to compensate for ___________.
A: the vertical component of the permanent magnetism of the
vessel
B: the residual deviation
C: magnetic fields caused by electrical currents in the
vicinity
D: induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron
1014: Relative humidity is the percentage of water vapor that is
in the air as compared to the maximum amount it can hold
at ______________.
A: a specific barometric pressure
B: a specific temperature
C: a specific wind speed
D: any time
1015: Which statement about the time diagram in illustration
D005NG is correct?
A: The Greenwich hour angle of the Sun is greater than 180².
B: The meridian angle of the Sun is labeled west.
C: The date of Greenwich is the day after the date for observer
at M.
D: The Sun has already passed the lower branch of the
1016: A source of an air mass labeled mTw is ______________.
A: the equator
B: the Gulf of Mexico
C: Alaska
D: Canada
1017: Which statement(s) concerning the effect of Coriolis force
on ocean currents is(are) correct?
A: The deflection of the current is to the left in the Northern
Hemisphere.
B: The Coriolis force is greater in the lower latitudes.
C: The Coriolis force is more effective in deep water.
D: All of the above
1018: An aneroid barometer reading should be corrected for
differences in _____________________ .
A: elevation
B: temperature
C: wind speed
D: latitude
1019: You are preparing a weather report form, WS Form B-80. The
dry bulb thermometer reads 30ø F (-1²), and the wet bulb
thermometer reads 28ø F (-2ø C). Using the Ships Code Card,
how would you encode the air temperature groups in the
report?
A: 10011, 2003/
B: 11300, 2124/
C: 11011, 2124/
D: 11011, 2104/
1020: The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal
range of 6 miles and a height above water of 18 feet (5.5
meters). Your height of eye is 40 feet (12.2 meters) and
the visibility is 27.0 miles. At which approximate range
will you first sight the light?
A: 5.6 miles
B: 6.4 miles
C: 9.8 miles
D: 12.1 miles
1021: You are underway in the North Sea on course 142ø T when you
sight a buoy bearing 105ø T. The buoy's white light has a
characteristic of continuous very-quick flashing. To
ensure that your vessel remains in the best navigable water
you would ______________.
A: continue on course and ensure that the bearings change to
the left
B: pass between the buoy and another buoy showing a fixed white
light
C: alter course to port and pass the buoy close aboard to
either side
D: alter course to port and pass north of the buoy
1022: What is the approximate geographic range of Fenwick Island
Light, Delaware, if your height of eye is 37 feet (11.6
meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST
PILOTS".
A: 24.8 nm
B: 17.8 nm
C: 15.9 nm
D: 10.3 nm
1023: Which compensates for induced magnetism in the horizontal
soft iron of a vessel?
A: Iron spheres mounted on the binnacle
B: A single vertical magnet under the compass
C: The Flinders bar
D: Magnets in trays inside the binnacle
1024: The dew point is reached when the _______________.
A: temperature of the air equals the temperature of the
seawater
B: atmospheric pressure is 14.7 lbs. per square inch
C: relative humidity reaches 50%
D: air becomes saturated with water vapor
1025: A first magnitude star is ___________________.
A: 2.5 times as bright as a second magnitude star
B: 3 times as bright as a second magnitude star
C: 5 times as bright as a second magnitude star
D: 10 times as bright as a second magnitude star
1026: An air mass that has moved down from Canada would most
likely have the symbols ______________.
A: mPk
B: cPk
C: cTk
D: cTw
1027: In the Northern Hemisphere the major ocean currents tend to
flow _____________.
A: clockwise around the North Atlantic and North Pacific Oceans
B: clockwise or counterclockwise depending on whether it is
warm or cold current
C: counterclockwise except in the Gulf Stream
D: counterclockwise around the North Atlantic and North Pacific
1028: At what angle to the isobars do surface winds blow over the
open sea?
A: About 90²
B: About 50²
C: About 25²
D: About 15²
1029: Which would be the subject of a NAVAREA warning?
A: A drifting buoy sighted in mid-ocean
B: Extinguishment of Wolf Trap Light located inside Chesapeake
Bay
C: All military exercises on the high seas involving four or
more vessels
D: Off-air times of radio beacons when scheduled for routine
1030: You are preparing a weather report form, WS Form B-80. The
dry bulb thermometer reads 78ø F, and the wet bulb
thermometer reads 75ø F. How would you encode the air
temperature groups in the report?
A: 10256, 2023/
B: 10780, 2074/
C: 00256, 0023/
D: 10256, 2074/
1031: While steaming north of the Irish coast, you sight a buoy
which shows the light rhythm shown in illustration D028NG.
How would you pass this buoy?
A: North of the buoy
B: East of the buoy
C: South of the buoy
D: West of the buoy
1032: What is the approximate geographic range of Point Judith
Light, Rhode Island, if your height of eye is 62 feet (18.9
meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST
PILOTS".
A: 9.6 nm
B: 16.5 nm
C: 18.6 nm
D: 20.7 nm
1033: Deviation which is maximum on intercardinal compass headings
may be removed by the _____________.
A: Flinders bar
B: transverse magnets
C: fore-and-aft magnets
D: soft iron spheres on the sides of the compass
1034: The expression "the air is saturated" means _______________.
A: the relative humidity is 100%
B: the vapor pressure is at its minimum for the prevailing
temperature
C: precipitation has commenced
D: cloud cover is 100%
1035: The approximate positions of the stars are based on sidereal
time, which is based upon rotation of the Earth relative to
______________.
A: winter solstice
B: autumnal equinox
C: summer solstice
D: vernal equinox
1036: A frontal thunderstorm is caused by ______________.
A: pronounced local heating
B: wind being pushed up a mountain
C: a warm air mass rising over a cold air mass
D: an increased lapse rate caused by advection of warm surface
1037: Generally speaking, a ship steaming across the North Pacific
from Japan to Seattle is likely to experience _____________.
A: adverse currents for practically the entire crossing
B: favorable currents for practically the entire crossing
C: favorable currents in the summer months and adverse currents
in the winter months
D: variable currents having no significant effect on the total
1038: You are preparing a weather report form, WS Form B-80. The
dry bulb thermometer reads 54ø F, and the wet bulb
thermometer reads 50ø F. How would you encode the air
temperature groups in the report?
A: 1054/, 2050/
B: 10122, 2008/
C: 1054/, 2047/
D: 054//, 047//
1039: While taking weather observations, you determine that the
wind is coming from the west. In the weather log, you would
record the wind direction as _______.
A: 000ø
B: 090ø
C: 180ø
D: 270ø
1040: An occluded front is usually caused by a __________.
A: cold front becoming stationary
B: warm front becoming stationary
C: cold front overtaking a warm front
D: warm front dissipating
1041: You are steaming along the coast of Ireland in the Irish
Sea. You sight a lighted buoy with a white flashing light
showing a group of two flashes. The buoy indicates you
_______________.
A: must pass south of the buoy
B: must pass north of the buoy
C: should pass well clear on either side of the buoy
D: must pass the buoy close to starboard
1042: What is the approximate geographic range of Shinnecock
Light, NY, if your height of eye is 24 feet (7.3 meters)?
Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS".
A: 8.7 nm
B: 9.9 nm
C: 14.4 nm
D: 15.9 nm
1043: You are about to go to sea and adjust the magnetic compass.
To expedite the adjustment at sea, in what order should the
following dockside adjustments be made?
A: Flinders bar first, then the heeling magnet and spheres
B: Heeling magnet first, then the Flinders bar and spheres
C: Flinders bar first, then the spheres and heeling magnet
D: Spheres first, then the Flinders bar and heeling magnet
1044: The dry-bulb temperature is 78ø F and the wet-bulb
temperature is 62ø F. What is the relative humidity?
A: 16%
B: 24%
C: 39%
D: 79%
1045: The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal
range of 15 miles and a height above water of 40 feet (12.2
meters). Your height of eye is 25 feet (7.6 meters) and the
visibility is 5 miles. At about what range will you FIRST
sight the light?
A: 6.2 miles
B: 9.5 miles
C: 12.9 miles
D: 14.2 miles
1046: The probability of a sudden wind may be foretold by
__________.
A: a partly cloudy sky
B: an overcast sky
C: a fast approaching line of dark clouds
D: the formation of cumulus clouds in the sky
1047: Which is NOT a contributing cause of ocean currents?
A: Surface winds
B: Density differences in the water
C: Underwater topography
D: Gravitational effects of celestial bodies
1048: The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is
________.
A: unpredictable
B: generally too weak to be of concern
C: predicted in Tidal Current Tables
D: generally constant
1049: At 0000 you fix your position and change course to 270ø T.
At 0030 you again fix your position, and it is 0.5 mile east
of your DR. Which statement is TRUE?
A: The set is 090ø, drift 0.5 knot.
B: The set is 090ø, drift 1.0 knot.
C: The set is 270ø, drift 0.5 knot.
D: The set is 270ø, drift 1.0 knot.
1050: The passing of a low pressure system can be determined by
periodically checking the _______________________.
A: thermometer
B: hygrometer
C: barometer
D: anemometer
1051: Under the IALA Buoyage Systems, a cardinal mark may NOT be
used to _______________.
A: indicate that the deepest water in an area is on the named
side of the mark
B: indicate the safe side on which to pass a danger
C: draw attention to a feature in the channel such as a bend,
junction, bifurcation, or end of a shoal
D: indicate the port and starboard sides of well-defined
1052: What is the approximate geographic range of Southwest Ledge
Light, Connecticut, if your height of eye is 32 feet (9.8
meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST
PILOTS".
A: 15.5 nm
B: 13.4 nm
C: 8.7 nm
D: 6.9 nm
1053: Before a magnetic compass is adjusted certain correctors
must be checked to ensure that they are free of permanent
magnetism. These correctors are the _____________.
A: fore-and-aft and athwartships magnets
B: dip needle and heeling magnet
C: heeling magnet and Flinders bar
D: Flinders bar and quadrantal spheres
1054: The dry-bulb temperature is 78ø F (26ø C) and the wet-bulb
temperature is 68ø F (20ø C). What is the relative
humidity?
A: 10%
B: 24%
C: 56%
D: 60%
1055: The radius of a circle of equal altitude for a body equals
the body's ______________.
A: declination
B: polar distance
C: altitude
D: zenith distance
1056: The steepness of a cold front depends on ______________.
A: the direction of wind around the front
B: its velocity
C: the temperature of the air behind the front
D: the precipitation generated by the front
1057: One of the causes of ocean currents is density differences
in the water. This is true because ______________.
A: in an area of high density the water's surface is lower than
in an area of low density
B: surface water flows from an area of high density to one of
low density
C: the lesser the density gradient the freer the water is to
move
D: it is the density differences that cause the currents to
1058: You are preparing a weather report form, WS Form B-80. Your
position is LAT 64ø42' N, LONG 02ø28' W. How would this be
encoded?
A: 90647, 90024
B: 0647N, 00025
C: 99647, 70025
D: 9064N, 9025W
1059: The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal
range of 17 miles and a height above water of 28 feet (8.5
meters). Your height of eye is 32 feet (9.8 meters) and the
visibility is 11.0 miles. At what approximate range will
you first sight the light?
A: 11.0 miles
B: 12.6 miles
C: 15.7 miles
D: 18.0 miles
1060: Isobars on a synoptic chart are useful in predicting _____.
A: temperature
B: dew point
C: wind velocity
D: relative humidity
1061: In waters where the cardinal system is used you would expect
to find danger _______________.
A: lying to the south of an eastern quadrant buoy
B: lying to the south of a northern quadrant buoy
C: lying to the east of an eastern quadrant buoy
D: beneath or directly adjacent to the buoy
1062: What is the approximate geographic range of Horton Point
Light, NY, if your height of eye is 40 feet (12.2 meters)?
Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS".
A: 18.8 nm
B: 19.3 nm
C: 20.3 nm
D: 24.8 nm
1063: When adjusting a magnetic compass using the fore-and-aft
permanent magnets, you should _____________.
A: use the magnets one at a time, putting one in one side and
then one on the opposite side, one step higher.
B: use the magnets in pairs, starting at the top, with trays at
the highest point of travel
C: use the magnets in pairs, from the bottom up, with the trays
at the lowest point of travel
D: fill all the trays with magnets, then remove them one-by-one
1064: The dew point temperature is _________________________.
A: always higher than the air temperature
B: always lower than the air temperature
C: equal to the difference between the wet and dry bulb
temperatures
D: the temperature at which the air is saturated with water
1065: You are in the Northern Hemisphere and a tropical wave is
located 200 miles due east of your position. Where will the
wave be located 12 hours later?
A: Farther away to the east
B: In the same position
C: Nearby to the east
D: Farther away to the west
1066: The slope of a warm front is about ______________.
A: 1 mile vertically to 10 miles horizontally
B: 1 mile vertically to 50 miles horizontally
C: 1 mile vertically to 150 miles horizontally
D: 1 mile vertically to 500 miles horizontally
1067: The two most effective generating forces of surface ocean
currents are _____________.
A: temperature and salinity differences in the water
B: wind and density differences in the water
C: water depth and underwater topography
D: rotation of the Earth and continental interference
1069: What do the numbers on isobars indicate?
A: barometric pressure
B: temperature
C: rain in inches
D: wind speed
1070: Chart legends which indicate a conspicuous landmark are
printed in ______.
A: underlined letters
B: capital letters
C: italics
D: boldface print
1071: A cardinal mark showing an uninterrupted quick-flashing
white light indicates the deepest water in the area is on
the _____________.
A: north side of the mark
B: west side of the mark
C: east side of the mark
D: south side of the mark
1072: What is the approximate geographic range of Assateague
Light, VA, if your height of eye is 52 feet (15.8 meters)?
Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS".
A: 14.1 nm
B: 21.8 nm
C: 23.0 nm
D: 50.2 nm
1073: Chart legends printed in capital letters show that the
associated landmark is _____.
A: inconspicuous
B: a radio transmitter
C: conspicuous
D: a government facility or station
1074: As the temperature for a given mass of air increases, the
__________.
A: dew point increases
B: dew point decreases
C: relative humidity increases
D: relative humidity decreases
1075: The expression "first magnitude" is usually used to refer
only to bodies of magnitude _________________.
A: 1.5 and greater
B: 1.25 and greater
C: 1.0 and greater
D: 0.5 and greater
1076: Which is TRUE concerning the speed of fronts?
A: Cold fronts move faster than warm fronts.
B: Cold fronts move slower than warm fronts.
C: Cold fronts and warm fronts move with equal speed.
D: Cold fronts move slower at the northern end and faster at
1077: A current will develop between areas of different density in
ocean waters. If you face in the same direction the current
is flowing, the water of _____________.
A: high density will be on the left in the Northern Hemisphere
B: high density will be on the right in the Southern Hemisphere
C: low density will be on the left in the Northern Hemisphere
D: low density will be on the left in the Southern Hemisphere
1078: The description "Racon" beside an illustration on a chart
would mean a _____.
A: radar conspicuous beacon
B: radar transponder beacon
C: radar calibration beacon
D: circular radiobeacon
1081: On a voyage along the coast of France, you sight a buoy
with the top marks as shown. You are required to steer ___.
A: west of the buoy
B: east of the buoy
C: south of the buoy
D: north of the buoy
1083: Magnets are placed in horizontal trays in the compass
binnacle to compensate for the _____________.
A: induced magnetism in the vessel's horizontal soft iron
B: change in the magnetic field when the vessel inclines from
vertical
C: permanent magnetism of the vessel
D: magnetic fields caused by electrical currents in the
1084: As the temperature of an air mass decreases, the ________.
A: absolute humidity decreases
B: relative humidity increases
C: specific humidity decreases
D: dew point rises
1085: A chart position enclosed by a semi-circle is a(n) ______.
A: fix
B: estimated position
C: dead reckoning position
D: running fix
1086: When crossing a front isobars tend to __________.
A: change from smooth curves within the air mass to sharp bends
at the front
B: change from sharp bends within the air mass to smooth curves
at the front
C: pass smoothly across the front with no change
D: become closer together at the front and pass through in
1087: The velocity of a rotary tidal current will increase when
the Moon is __________________.
A: new
B: full
C: at perigee
D: All of the above
1088: Which statement about an estimated position is TRUE?
A: It is more reliable than a fix based on radar bearings.
B: It may be based on a single LOP or questionable data.
C: When a 3-LOP fix plots in a triangle, the center of the
triangle is the estimated position.
D: It is usually based on soundings.
1089: You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at
5.5 knots on course 033ø T, and bears 248ø T at 64 miles
from you. What is the course to steer at 13 knots to
intercept vessel A?
A: 262ø
B: 269ø
C: 276ø
D: 281ø
1090: What weather conditions would you expect to find at position
A?
A: Winds NW-W at 15 knots, partly cloudy, and slight seas
B: winds SW-S at 20 knots, heavy rain, and rough seas
C: Winds calm, light rain, and calm seas
D: Winds NE-E at 20 knots, heavy rain, and rough seas
1091: The cardinal mark topmark shown in illustration
D024NG represents which quadrant?
A: Northern
B: Eastern
C: Southern
D: Western
1092: The wind velocity is higher in the dangerous semicircle of
a tropical cyclone because of the _____________.
A: extension of the low pressure ridge
B: wind circulation and forward motion of the storm
C: recurvature effect
D: direction of circulation and pressure gradient
1093: The Flinders bar on a magnetic compass compensates for the
________.
A: induced magnetism in vertical soft iron
B: induced magnetism in horizontal soft iron
C: permanent magnetism in ship's steel
D: vessel's inclination from the vertical
1094: A light, feathery deposit of ice caused by the sublimation
of water vapor directly into the crystalline form, on
objects whose temperatures are below freezing, is called
______________.
A: dew
B: frost
C: glaze
D: snow
1095: The celestial coordinate of a star that is relatively
constant in value is the ______________.
A: Greenwich hour angle
B: local hour angle
C: sidereal hour angle
D: meridian angle
1096: With the passage of an occluded front the temperature _____.
A: rises rapidly
B: remains about the same
C: drops rapidly
D: depends on whether warm type or cold type occlusion
1097: The velocity of a rotary tidal current will be decreased
when the Moon is __________________.
A: at apogee
B: new
C: full
D: All of the above
1098: A chart position enclosed by a square is a(n) _________.
A: fix
B: estimated position
C: dead reckoning position
D: running fix
1101: In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy showing an
uninterrupted quick-flashing white light. Which of the four
topmarks shown will this buoy be fitted with under the IALA
Buoyage system?
1102: What is the approximate geographic range of Race Rock Light,
NY, if your height of eye is 27 feet (8.2 meters)? Refer to
"Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS".
A: 9.9 nm
B: 14.3 nm
C: 15.7 nm
D: 17.4 nm
1103: The vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field causes
induced magnetism in vertical soft iron. This changes with
latitude. What corrects for this coefficient of the
deviation?
A: The Flinders bar
B: The heeling magnet
C: Quadrantal soft iron spheres
D: Bar magnets in the binnacle
1104: Which condition(s) is(are) necessary for the formation of
dew?
A: Clear skies
B: Calm air
C: Earth's surface cooler than the dew point of the air
D: All of the above
1105: The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal
range of 22 miles and a height above water of 48 feet (14.6
meters). Your height of eye is 35 feet (10.7 meters) and
the visibility is 20.0 miles. At what approximate range will
you first sight the light?
A: 10.5 nm
B: 13.2 nm
C: 14.7 nm
D: 32.0 nm
1106: The legend/symbol which designates an occluded front is
represented by a __________________.
A: red line
B: purple line
C: blue line
D: dashed blue line
1107: A rotary current sets through all directions of the compass.
The time it takes to complete one of these cycles is
approximately _______.
A: 2 1/2 hours
B: 3 1/2 hours
C: 6 1/2 hours
D: 12 1/2 hours
1108: Preferred channel buoys indicate the preferred channel to
transit by ______________.
A: odd or even numbers
B: the color of their top band
C: the location of the buoy in the channel junction
D: the buoy's light rhythms
1109: You are on course 146ø T. To check the speed of your
vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?
A: 000ø
B: 056ø
C: 090ø
D: 146ø
1110: To make sure of getting the full advantage of a favorable
current, you should reach an entrance or strait at what time
in relation to the predicted time of the favorable current?
A: At the predicted time
B: 30 minutes before the predicted time
C: One hour after the predicted time
D: 30 minutes before flood, one hour after an ebb
1111: Black double-cone topmarks are the most important feature,
by day, of cardinal marks. Which of the four topmarks
shown indicates the best navigable water lies to the west of
the buoy?
1113: A single vertical magnet placed underneath the compass in
the binnacle is used to compensate for __________.
A: the horizontal component of the permanent magnetism
B: deviation caused by the vessel's inclination from the
vertical
C: induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron
D: induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron
1114: Mechanical lifting of air by the upslope slant of the
terrain is called _____________.
A: vertical lifting
B: convective lifting
C: advective lifting
D: topographic lifting
1116: When a cold air mass and a warm air mass meet, and there is
no horizontal motion of either air mass, it is called a(n)
__________.
A: cold front
B: occluded front
C: stationary front
D: warm front
1117: A rotary current sets through all directions of the compass.
The time it takes to complete one of these cycles is
approximately ________.
A: 3 hours
B: 6 1/2 hours
C: 12 1/2 hours
D: 25 hours
1118: When entering from seaward, a buoy displaying
a single-flashing red light indicates ____________.
A: a junction with the preferred channel to the left
B: the starboard side of the channel
C: a sharp turn in the channel to the right
D: a wreck to be left on the vessel's port side
1119: The position labeled "D" was plotted because ____________.
A: the vessel's speed changed at 1125
B: a dead reckoning position is plotted withen 30 minutes of
arunning fix
C: a dead reckoning position is plotted for each course change
D: All of the above
1120: You are on course 042ø T. To check the course of your
vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?
A: 090ø
B: 132ø
C: 180ø
D: 222ø
1121: The articulated light is superior to other types of buoys
because _____________.
A: the radar reflectors reflect better signals
B: fog horn signals travel farther to sea
C: it is equipped with strobe lights
D: it has a reduced watch circle
1122: A barometer showing falling pressure indicates the approach
of a _____.
A: high pressure system
B: low pressure system
C: high dew point
D: low dew point
1123: What are the only magnetic compass correctors that correct
for both permanent and induced effects of magnetism?
A: Quadrantal spheres
B: Heeling magnets
C: Athwartships magnets
D: Fore-and-aft magnets
1124: The region containing 3/4 of the mass of the atmosphere and
the region to which are confined such phenomena as clouds,
storms, precipitation and changing weather conditions is
called ______________.
A: stratosphere
B: troposphere
C: stratopause
D: tropopause
1125: The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal
range of 19 miles and a height above water of 52 feet (15.8
meters). Your height of eye is 42 feet (12.8 meters) and
the visibility is 10.0 miles. At what approximate range
will you first sight the light?
A: 10.0 miles
B: 16.0 miles
C: 17.3 miles
D: 19.0 miles
1126: When a warm air mass is adjacent to a cold air mass, the
separation line between the two is called a(n) ___________.
A: front
B: isobar
C: isotherm
D: equipotential line
1127: In a river subject to tidal currents, the best time to dock
a ship without the assistance of tugs is _____.
A: at slack water
B: at flood tide
C: when there is a following current
D: at high water
1128: In 1981, when would Jupiter and Saturn be visible in
temperate latitudes for both evening and morning stars?
A: 10 January
B: 27 March
C: 22 June
D: 8 October
1130: During daylight savings time the meridian used for
determining the time is located farther ___________.
A: west in west longitude and east in east longitude
B: east in west longitude and west in east longitude
C: west
D: east
1131: On navigational aids, what does the light characteristic
"Fl(2+1)" mean?
A: A flashing light combined with a fixed light of greater
brightness
B: Light flashes combined in groups, with a different number of
flashes in each group
C: A light showing groups of two or more flashes at regular
intervals
D: A fixed light varied at regular intervals by groups of two
1132: On charts of U.S. waters, a magenta marking is NOT used for
marking a _______________.
A: radiobeacon
B: 5-fathom curve
C: prohibited area
D: lighted buoy
1133: Which compensates for errors introduced when the vessel
heels over?
A: The soft iron spheres on the arms of the binnacle
B: Magnets placed in trays inside the binnacle
C: A single vertical magnet beneath the compass
D: The Flinders bar
1134: The Earth's irregular heating is caused by __________.
A: the time of day
B: the seasons
C: geography
D: All of the above
1135: A position on the Earth has a longitude of 74ø10' E. Its
celestial counterpart would have a _________________.
A: GHA of 285ø50'
B: SHA of 74ø10'
C: SHA of 285ø50'
D: LHA of 74ø10' E
1136: When a warm air mass overtakes and replaces a cold air mass,
the contact surface is called a(n) _______________.
A: warm front
B: cold front
C: line squall
D: occluded front
1137: When the declination of the Moon is 0ø12.5' S, you can
expect some tidal currents in Gulf Coast ports to _________.
A: become weak and variable
B: exceed the predicted velocities
C: become reversing currents
D: have either a double ebb or a double flood
1138: On approaching the English Channel on course 080ø T, you
note the symbol YBY near a charted buoy. You must pass
_________________.
A: northward of the buoy
B: southward of the buoy
C: eastward of the buoy
D: westward of the buoy
1139: A star is observed at lower transit. The line of position
derived from this sight is _______________.
A: on the prime vertical
B: a latitude line
C: a longitude line
D: of no special significance
1140: What is the light characteristic of a lighted,
preferred-channel buoy?
A: Group flashing
B: Composite group flashing
C: Interrupted quick flashing
D: Fixed and flashing
1141: What is characteristic of an isophase light?
A: 4 sec. flash, 2 sec. eclipse, 3 sec. flash, 2 sec. eclipse
B: 2 sec. flash, 5 sec. eclipse
C: 1 sec. flash, 1 sec. eclipse
D: 6 sec. flash, 3 sec. eclipse
1142: Which weather conditions would you expect to find at
position B?
A: Winds NW at 20.5 knots, steady warm temperatures, high seas
B: Winds calm, falling temperatures, clear skies, high seas
C: Winds S-SE at 25 knots, falling temperatures, squally,
high seas
D: None of the above
1143: What is used to correct for both induced and permanent
magnetism, and consequently must be readjusted
with radical changes in latitude?
A: Flinders bar
B: Soft iron spheres
C: Fore-and-aft permanent magnets in their trays
D: Heeling magnet
1144: Freezing salt water spray should be anticipated when the air
temperature drops below what temperature?
A: 32ø F (0.0ø C)
B: 28ø F (-2.2ø C)
C: 0ø F (-17.8ø C)
D: -40ø F (-28.9ø C)
1145: The GHA of a star ______________.
A: increases at a rate of approximately 15ø per hour
B: increases at a rate of approximately 4ø per hour
C: decreases at a rate of approximately 15ø per hour
D: decreases at a rate of approximately 4ø per hour
1146: What is true about a front?
A: It is a boundary between two air masses.
B: There are temperature differences on opposite sides of a
front.
C: There are abrupt pressure differences across a front.
D: All of the above
1147: To make sure of getting the full advantage of a favorable
current, you should reach an entrance or strait at which
time in relation to the predicted time of the favorable
current?
A: One hour after
B: At the predicted time
C: 30 minutes before
D: 30 minutes before flood, one hour after an ebb
1148: The numeral in the center of a wind rose circle on a pilot
chart indicates the __________.
A: total number of observations
B: average wind force on the Beaufort scale
C: average wind force in knots
D: percentage of calms
1149: You are entering port and have been instructed to anchor, as
your berth is not yet available. You are on a SW'ly
heading, preparing to drop anchor, when you observe the
range lights, as shown, on your starboard beam. You should
___________.
A: ensure your ship will NOT block the channel or obstruct the
range while at anchor
B: drop the anchor immediately as the range lights mark an area
free of obstructions
C: drop the anchor immediately as a change in the position of
the range lights will be an indication of dragging anchor
D: NOT drop the anchor until the lights are in line
1150: You are on course 312ø T. To check the speed of your
vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?
A: 312ø
B: 000ø
C: 090ø
D: 222ø
1151: Buoys are marked with reflective material to assist in their
detection by searchlight. Which statement is TRUE?
A: A safe-water buoy will display red and white vertical
stripes of reflective material.
B: All reflective material is white because it is the most
visible at night.
C: A special-purpose mark will display either red or green
reflective material to agree with its shape.
D: A preferred-channel buoy displays either red or green
1153: Heeling error is defined as the change of deviation for a
heel of _____________.
A: 2ø while the vessel is on an intercardinal heading
B: 1ø while the vessel is on a compass heading of 000²
C: 2ø and is constant on all headings
D: 1ø while the vessel is on a compass heading of 180²
1154: The speed at which an ocean wave system advances is called
________.
A: wave length
B: ripple length
C: group velocity
D: wave velocity
1155: Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?
A: Radar station
B: Aero light
C: Radiobeacon
D: Radar transponder beacon
1156: When cold air displaces warm air you have a(n) _________.
A: cold front
B: occluded front
C: stationary front
D: warm front
1157: How many slack tidal currents usually occur each day?
A: One
B: Two
C: Three
D: Four
1158: What type of cloud is indicated by the number 5 in
illustration D039NG?
A: Cirrostratus
B: Cirrocumulus
C: Altocumulus
D: Nimbostratus
1159: Two navigational hazards are located near to each other, but
each is marked by an individual cardinal buoyage system.
The buoys of one cardinal system may be identified from the
other system by __________.
A: the differing light colors
B: one system having odd numbers while the other system has
even numbers
C: one system using horizontal bands while the other system
uses vertical stripes
D: the difference in the periods of the light
1161: What is characteristic of an occulting light?
A: 1 sec. flash, 2 sec. eclipse, 1 sec. flash, 5 sec. eclipse
B: 5 sec. flash, 5 sec. eclipse
C: 4 sec. flash, 2 sec. eclipse, 3 sec. flash, 2 sec. eclipse
D: 6 sec. flash, 6 sec. eclipse
1162: A line connecting all possible positions of your vessel at
any given time is a __________.
A: longitude line
B: latitude line
C: line of position
D: fix
1163: The total magnetic effects which cause deviation of a
vessel's compass can be broken down into a series of
components which are referred to as _____________.
A: divisional parts
B: coefficients
C: fractional parts
D: equations
1164: The largest waves (heaviest chop) will usually develop where
the wind blows _______________________.
A: at right angles to the flow of the current
B: against the flow of the current
C: in the same direction as the flow of the current
D: over slack water
1165: Which statement concerning the chartlet in illustration
D010NG is TRUE? (Soundings and heights are in meters)
A: Maury lightship is visible for 17 miles.
B: There is a dangerous eddy southeast of Beito Island.
C: There is a 12-meter deep west of Beito Island and inside the
5-meter line.
D: The bottom to the south-southeast of the lightship is soft
1166: A series of brief showers accompanied by strong, shifting
winds may occur along or some distance ahead of
a(n) _________________.
A: upper front aloft
B: cyclone
C: occluded front
D: cold front
1167: The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is ___.
A: unpredictable
B: predicted in Tidal Current Tables
C: generally constant
D: generally too weak to be of concern
1168: Which type of cloud is indicated by the number 4?
A: Altocumulus
B: Cirrostratus
C: Cumulus
D: Altostratus
1169: The symbols shown are used on radiofacsimile weather charts.
The symbol indicated at letter "O" represents
_____________.
A: sandstorms
B: thunderstorms
C: snow
D: rain showers
1170: Which statement concerning illustration D010NG is correct?
(Soundings and heights are in meters)
A: Maury Lightship swings about her anchor on a circle with a
21-meter diameter.
B: The sunken wreck southwest of Beito Island shows the hull or
superstructure above the sounding datum.
C: There is a 12-meter deep hole inside the 5-meter curve just
west of Beito Island.
D: The position of the lightship is indicated by the center of
1171: A light that has a light period shorter than its dark period
is described as _________________.
A: flashing
B: pulsating
C: occulting
D: alternating
1172: Which position on illustration D049NG would likely have
stratus or stratocumulus clouds, occasional light drizzle,
steady westerlies around 10 knots, and steady temperatures?
1173: When adjusting a magnetic compass for error, a deviation
table should be made ______________.
A: before correcting for any deviation
B: after correcting for variation
C: after adjusting the fore-and-aft and athwartships permanent
magnets
D: before the quadrantal correctors are placed on the compass
1174: Your vessel is enroute from Japan to Seattle and is located
at position I on the weather map. You should experience
which weather condition?
A: Clear skies with warm temperatures
B: Steady precipitation
C: Overcast skies with rising temperature
D: Thundershowers
1175: Solid green arrows on the main body of a pilot chart
indicate _______.
A: prevailing wind directions
B: prevailing ocean current directions
C: probable surface current flow
D: shortest great circle routes
1176: After a cold front passes, the barometric pressure ________.
A: drops, and the temperature drops
B: drops, and the temperature rises
C: rises, and the temperature drops
D: rises, and the temperature rises
1178: The range of tide is the ___________.
A: distance the tide moves out from the shore
B: difference between the heights of high and low tide
C: duration of time between the high and low tide
D: maximum depth of the water at high tide
1179: Which type of cloud is indicated by the number 3?
A: Cirrocumulus
B: Altocumulus
C: Nimbostratus
D: Cumulus
1180: You are on course 238ø T. To check the course of your
vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?
A: 180ø
B: 238ø
C: 328ø
D: 090ø
1181: An occulting light is one in which _______________.
A: the period of darkness exceeds the period of light
B: there is only a partial eclipse of the light
C: the periods of light and darkness are equal
D: the period of light exceeds the period of darkness
1182: Referring to illustration D049NG, which wind speeds is
reported in position C?
A: 3 knots
B: 10 knots
C: 20 knots
D: 30 knots
1183: The principal purpose of magnetic compass adjustment is to
__________.
A: reduce the variation as much as possible
B: reduce the deviation as much as possible
C: reduce the magnetic dip as much as possible
D: allow the compass bowl to swing freely on its gimbals
1184: Your position X is at LAT 35ø S. Which winds are you
experiencing?
A: Northeasterly
B: Northwesterly
C: Southeasterly
D: Southwesterly
1185: An orange and white buoy with a rectangle on it displays
_________.
A: directions
B: distances
C: locations
D: All of the above
1186: As a cold front passes an observer, pressure __________.
A: drops and winds become variable
B: rises and winds become gusty
C: drops and winds become gusty
D: rises and winds become variable
1187: Off Barnegat, NJ, with the wind coming out of the east, the
wind-driven current will be flowing approximately _________.
A: 016ø
B: 106ø
C: 254ø
D: 286ø
1190: Which type of cloud is indicated by the number 2?
A: Cumulus
B: Cirrostratus
C: Stratocumulus
D: Altostratus
1191: You plot a fix using three lines of position and find they
intersect in a triangle. The actual position of the vessel
____________________.
A: is outside of the triangle
B: may be anywhere in the triangle
C: may be inside or outside of the triangle
D: is the geometric center of the triangle
1192: You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at
5.5 knots on course 033ø T, and bears 284ø T at 43 miles
from you. What is the course to steer at 16 knots to
intercept vessel A?
A: 284ø
B: 303ø
C: 329ø
D: 342ø
1193: If a ship is proceeding towards the magnetic equator, the
uncorrected deviation due to permanent magnetism _________.
A: increases
B: remains the same
C: decreases
D: is unimportant and may be neglected
1194: In the Northern Hemisphere, an observer at point II in the
weather system in illustration D014NG should experience a
wind shift from the _______________.
A: southwest, clockwise to northwest
B: northeast, clockwise to west-southwest
C: northeast, counterclockwise to northwest
D: east, counterclockwise to south-southwest
1195: A position that is obtained by applying estimated current
and wind to your vessel's course and speed is a(n) ________.
A: dead reckoning position
B: fix
C: estimated position
D: None of the above
1196: In the Northern Hemisphere, gusty winds shifting clockwise,
a rapid drop in temperature, thunderstorms or rain squalls
in summer (frequent rain/snow squalls in winter) then a rise
in pressure followed by clearing skies, indicate the passage
of a(n) _______.
A: warm front
B: tropical cyclone
C: anticyclone
D: cold front
1197: Off Fire Island, NY with winds from the southwest, the
average wind-driven current flows in a direction of _______.
A: 014ø
B: 076ø
C: 170ø
D: 256ø
Error reading USCG question 1198
weather charts. Which of these symbols indicates a dust
storm?
1199: The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on
___________.
A: well-charted inner dangers
B: port facilities
C: coastal anchorages
D: offshore traffic separation schemes
1200: You want to transit Pollock Rip Channel, MA, on 6 April
1983. What is the period of time around the 0955 (ZD +5)
slack in which the current does not exceed 0.3 knot?
A: 0911 to 0955
B: 0940 to 1010
C: 0955 to 1044
D: 0935 to 1017
1201: What is NOT true concerning color sectors of lights?
A: Color sectors are expressed in degrees from the light toward
the vessel.
B: Color sectors may indicate dangerous waters.
C: Color sectors may indicate the best water across a shoal.
D: Color sectors may indicate a turning point in a channel.
1202: Referring to illustration D049NG, which wind speeds are
reported at position A?
A: 10 knots
B: 15 knots
C: 20 knots
D: 25 knots
1203: If the compass heading and the magnetic heading are the
same then _________________.
A: the deviation has been offset by the variation
B: there is something wrong with the compass
C: the compass is being influenced by nearby metals
D: there is no deviation on that heading
1204: Which of the symbols in illustration DO18NG designates a
stationary front?
1205: How is the annual rate of change for magnetic variation
shown on a pilot chart?
A: Gray lines on the uppermost inset chart
B: Red lines on the main body of the chart
C: In parenthesis on the lines of equal magnetic variation
D: Annual rate of change is not shown.
1206: Brief, violent showers frequently accompanied by thunder and
lightning are usually associated with ___________________.
A: passage of a warm front
B: passage of a cold front
C: winds shifting counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere
D: stationary high pressure systems
1207: What will be the velocity of the tidal current at New London
Harbor Entrance, CT, at 1615 EST (ZD +5) on 26 December
A: 0.2 knot
B: 0.4 knot
C: 0.7 knot
D: 0.9 knot
1208: Which type of cloud is indicated by the number 1?
A: Cirrus
B: Altostratus
C: Altocumulus
D: Nimbostratus
1209: You are on course 201ø T. To check the speed of your
vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?
A: 090ø
B: 111ø
C: 180ø
D: 201ø
1210: You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The
range line is 309ø T. You are steering 306ø T and have the
range in sight as indicated in illustration D047NG. The
range continues to open. What action should you take?
A: Alter course to the right to 309ø T or more to bring
the range in line.
B: Maintain course as it is normal for the range to open as
you get close.
C: Alter course to the left until the range closes, then
steer to the left of 306ø T.
D: Alter course to the left to close the range, then
1211: Red sectors of navigation lights warn mariners of _________.
A: floating debris
B: heavily trafficked areas
C: recently sunken vessels
D: shoals or nearby land
1213: If the magnetic heading is greater than the compass heading,
the deviation is ___________.
A: east
B: west
C: north
D: south
1214: The letter B in illustration D006NG represents the _______.
A: sensible horizon
B: visible horizon
C: celestial horizon
D: geoidal horizon
1215: Daylight savings time is a form of zone time that adopts the
time __________.
A: two zones to the east
B: two zones to the west
C: one zone to the east
D: one zone to the west
1216: In the Northern Hemisphere, winds veering sharply to the
west or northwest with increasing speed are indications that
a ___________.
A: cold front has passed
B: low pressure center is approaching
C: stationary front exists
D: high pressure center has passed
1217: What will be the velocity and direction of the tidal current
at Old Ferry Point, NY, at 1340 EST (ZD +5) on 5 February
A: 0.8 knot at 060ø T
B: 0.8 knot at 240ø T
C: 1.0 knot at 076ø T
D: 1.4 knots at 076ø T
1218: If your position is LAT 25ø N, LONG 35ø W, what correction
should be applied to an RDF bearing received from a
transmitting station in LAT 30ø N, LONG 40ø W?
A: -1.3ø
B: +1.3ø
C: -2.1ø
D: +2.1ø
1219: Which sextant in illustration D043NG reads 29ø42.5'?
1220: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, a lighted buoy
with a spherical topmark marks ___________.
A: the position of underwater cables
B: a hazard to navigation
C: the port side of the channel
D: safe water
1221: On a chart, the characteristic of the light on a lighthouse
is shown as flashing white with a red sector. The red
sector ___________________.
A: indicates the limits of the navigable channel
B: indicates a danger area
C: is used to identify the characteristics of the light
D: serves no significant purpose
1222: On entering from seaward, a starboard side daymark will
__________.
A: show a fixed red light if lighted
B: show a Morse (A) white light
C: be square in shape
D: have an even number if numbered
1223: The difference between magnetic heading and compass heading
is called _________________.
A: variation
B: deviation
C: compass error
D: drift
1224: NIMA charts are adopting the metric system. In order to
change a charted depth in meters to feet you may use the
conversion table found _____.
A: in the Light List
B: in Bowditch Vol. II
C: on the chart
D: All of the above
1226: Cumulonimbus clouds are most likely to accompany a(n)
______________.
A: high pressure system
B: cold front
C: warm front
D: occluded front
1227: What will be the direction and velocity of the tidal current
at Provincetown Harbor, MA, at 1405 DST (ZD +4) on 5 May
A: 0.0 knot at 135² T
B: 0.2 knot at 135² T
C: 0.4 knot at 315² T
D: 0.6 knot at 315² T
1229: The initial great circle course angle between LAT 23ø00' S,
LONG 42ø00' W and LAT 34ø00' S, LONG 18ø00' E is 063.8ø.
What is the true course?
A: 063.8ø T
B: 116.2ø T
C: 243.8ø T
D: 296.2ø T
1231: Some lights used as aids to marine navigation have a red
sector to indicate a danger area. How are the limits of a
colored sector of light listed in the Light List?
A: Geographical positions outlining the area of the sector
B: True bearings as observed from the light toward a vessel
C: True bearings as observed from a vessel toward the light
D: Bearings given in the Light List are always magnetic
1232: Entering from seaward, triangular-shaped daymarks are used
to mark ___________________.
A: the starboard side of the channel
B: the centerline of the channel
C: an obstruction where the preferred channel is to starboard
D: special purpose areas
1233: Deviation is the angle between the __________.
A: true meridian and the axis of the compass card
B: true meridian and the magnetic meridian
C: magnetic meridian and the axis of the compass card
D: axis of the compass card and the degaussing meridian
1234: Which information does the outer ring of a compass rose on a
nautical chart provide?
A: Variation
B: True directions
C: Magnetic directions
D: Annual rate of variation change
1236: After the passage of a cold front the visibility_______.
_
A: does not change
B: improves rapidly
C: improves only slightly
D: becomes poor
1237: What will be the velocity of the tidal current at Port
Royal, VA, at 1505 DST (ZD +4) on 4 June 1983?
A: 0.0 knot
B: 0.1 knot
C: 0.4 knot
D: 0.7 knot
1238: What will be the height of tide at Three Mile Harbor
Entrance, Gardiners Bay, NY, at 0700 (ZD +5) on 14 Nov 1983?
A: 1.1 feet (0.3 meters)
B: 1.7 feet (0.5 meters)
C: 1.9 feet (0.6 meters)
D: 2.2 feet (0.7 meters)
1239: While taking weather observations, you determine that the
wind is blowing from the northeast. You would record the
wind direction in the weather log as _____.
A: 045ø
B: 090ø
C: 135ø
D: 225ø
1241: Which picture in illustration D034NG shows a fixed and
flashing light?
1242: Daymarks marking the starboard side of the channel when
going towards the sea are ___________________.
A: green squares
B: green triangles
C: red squares
D: red triangles
1243: Magnetic heading differs from compass heading by _________.
A: compass error
B: true heading
C: variation
D: deviation
1246: What weather change accompanies the passage of a cold front
in the Northern Hemisphere?
A: Wind shift from northeast clockwise to southwest
B: Steady dropping of barometric pressure
C: Steady precipitation, gradually increasing in intensity
D: A line of cumulonimbus clouds
1247: What is the predicted velocity of the tidal current 2
miles west of Southwest Ledge for 2330 DST (ZD +4) on 7
September 1983?
A: 1.3 knots
B: 1.6 knots
C: 1.9 knots
D: 2.2 knots
1248: On 6 July 1983, at 1520 DST (ZD +4) what will be the
predicted height of tide at Newburgh, NY?
A: 2.1 feet
B: 1.7 feet
C: 1.2 feet
D: 0.6 foot
1249: What is the light characteristic of a lighted,
preferred-channel buoy?
A: Fixed and flashing
B: Continuous quick
C: Isophase
D: Composite group-flashing
1250: Daylight savings time is a form of zone time that adopts the
time _____________.
A: one zone to the east
B: one zone to the west
C: two zones to the east
D: two zones to the west
1251: A List of Lights entry (L Fl) is a single flashing light
which shows a long flash of not less than _____________.
A: 1.0 second duration
B: 1.5 seconds duration
C: 2.0 seconds duration
D: 3.0 seconds duration
1252: Port side daymarks may be ___________.
A: numbered
B: octagonal
C: black and white
D: of any shape
1253: The horizontal angle between the magnetic meridian and the
north-south line of the magnetic compass is __________.
A: deviation
B: variation
C: compass error
D: dip
1254: Lighted white and orange buoys must show which color light?
A: Orange
B: White
C: Red
D: Alternating yellow and white
1255: The wind velocity is higher in the dangerous semicircle of
a tropical cyclone because of the _____________.
A: extension of the low pressure ridge
B: direction of circulation and pressure gradient
C: recurvature effect
D: the wind circulation and forward motion of the storm
1256: A cold front moving in from the northwest can produce
_______.
A: thunderstorms, hail, and then rapid clearing
B: increasing cloud cover lasting for several days
C: lengthy wet weather
D: low ceilings with thick cirrus clouds
1257: What will be the velocity of the tidal current 1.0 mile
southwest of Lewis Pt., RI, at 1501 EST (ZD +5) on 4 April
A: 0.7 knot
B: 1.4 knots
C: 1.6 knots
D: 1.9 knots
1260: On 26 February 1983, at 1750 EST (ZD +5) what will be the
predicted height of tide at New Haven (city dock), CT?
A: -.3 foot (-0.1 meter)
B: -.6 foot (-0.2 meter)
C: 1.3 feet (0.4 meter)
D: 1.6 feet (0.5 meter)
1261: A light having characteristics which include color
variations is defined as _______________.
A: switching
B: alternating
C: oscillating
D: fluctuating
1262: A safe water daymark has what shape?
A: Triangular
B: Diamond
C: Circular
D: Octagonal
1263: The compass deviation changes as the vessel changes _____.
A: geographical position
B: speed
C: heading
D: longitude
1264: You take an RDF bearing on a vessel requiring assistance.
The position of the vessel requiring assistance is LAT
30ø00' N, LONG 140ø00' W. Your position is LAT 25ø00' N,
LONG 135ø00' W. What is the conversion angle you must apply
to the RDF bearing to convert it to a Mercator course?
A: -1.0ø
B: +1.0ø
C: -1.3ø
D: +1.3ø
1265: When reporting wind direction, you should give the direction
in ______.
A: true degrees
B: magnetic compass degrees
C: relative degrees
D: isobaric degrees
1266: A line of clouds, sharp changes in wind direction, and
squalls are most frequently associated with a(n) _________.
A: occluded front
B: warm front
C: cold front
D: warm sector
1267: What will be the velocity of the tidal current at Coxsackie,
NY, at 0945 EST (ZD +5) on 11 March 1983?
A: 0.3 knot
B: 0.7 knot
C: 1.2 knots
D: 1.9 knots
1268: On a nautical chart, the inner ring of a compass rose
indicates __________.
A: true directions
B: compass error
C: deviation
D: magnetic directions
1269: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of
14 miles and is 42 feet (12.7 m) high. If the visibility is
16 miles and your height of eye is 20 feet (6.1 m), at which
approximate distance will you sight the light?
A: 20.1 miles
B: 16.0 miles
C: 12.8 miles
D: 7.6 miles
1271: Which word indicates color variation in the characteristics
of a light?
A: Opposing
B: Changing
C: Reversing
D: Alternating
1272: What are the colors of a midchannel daymark?
A: Black and red
B: Red and white
C: Green and red
D: Green and white
1273: Deviation changes with a change in _________________.
A: latitude
B: heading
C: longitude
D: sea conditions
Error reading USCG question 1274
weather charts. Which of these symbols indicates a
sandstorm?
1275: How is variation indicated on a small-scale nautical chart?
A: Magnetic compass table
B: Magnetic meridians
C: Isogonic lines
D: Variation is not indicated on small-scale nautical charts.
1276: Which weather change accompanies the passage of a cold front
in the Northern Hemisphere?
A: Wind shift from northeast, clockwise to southwest
B: Steady dropping of barometric pressure
C: Steady precipitation, gradually increasing in intensity
D: A line of cumulonimbus clouds
1277: The velocity and direction of the tidal current at Port
Morris, NY, at 1135 DST (ZD +4) on 13 May 1983 will be ____.
A: negligible at 220ø T
B: 3.1 knots at 045ø T
C: 1.2 knots at 220ø T
D: 1.0 knot at 045ø T
1278: The difference between the heights of low and high tide is
the _______________.
A: depth
B: distance
C: range
D: period
1279: For 3 November 1983, at 0830 EST (ZD +5) at Catskill, NY,
what is the predicted height of tide?
A: +0.1 foot (+0.0 m)
B: -0.6 foot (-0.2 m)
C: +0.9 foot (+0.3 m)
D: -1.3 feet (-0.4 m)
1280: A current perpendicular to a vessel's track has the greatest
effect on the vessel's course made good _________.
A: at high vessel speeds
B: at low vessel speeds
C: in shallow water
D: in deep water
1281: The time required for a lighted aid to complete a full cycle
of light changes is listed in the Light List as the _______.
A: set
B: frequency
C: period
D: function
1282: Entering from sea, a daymark on the port side of the channel
would be indicated on a chart by a ___________.
A: red triangle with the letter R
B: white triangle with the letters RG
C: green square with the letter G
D: white square with the letters GR
1283: The error in a magnetic compass caused by the vessel's
magnetism is called __________.
A: variation
B: deviation
C: compass error
D: bearing error
1284: The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on all
of the following EXCEPT ___________.
A: ocean currents
B: outer dangers to navigation
C: tidal currents
D: major port anchorages
1285: You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at
5.5 knots on course 033ø T, and bears 248ø T at 64 miles
from you. What is the time to intercept if you make 13
knots?
A: 4h 55m
B: 4h 36m
C: 3h 59m
D: 3h 44m
1286: Which condition will occur after a cold front passes?
A: Temperature rises
B: Stratus clouds form
C: Pressure decreases
D: Humidity decreases
1287: What will be the velocity of the tidal current 4.5 miles
east of Smith Point, VA, at 0630 DST (ZD +4) on 6 May 1983?
A: 0.3 knot
B: 0.5 knot
C: 0.7 knot
D: 1.0 knot
1288: Your vessel will be docking at Chester, PA, during the
evening of 22 April 1983. The chart shows a depth of 20
feet (6.1 meters) at the pier. What will be the depth of
water available at 2310 EST (ZD +5)?
A: 19.2 feet (5.9 meters)
B: 20.8 feet (6.3 meters)
C: 24.7 feet (7.5 meters)
D: 25.8 feet (7.9 meters).
1289: A body can only be observed at lower transit when
______________.
A: the declination is the opposite name to the latitude
B: the algebraic sum of the colatitude and declination exceeds
C: the observer is in high latitudes above either polar circle
D: the body is circumpolar
1290: In addition to the National Weather Service, what agency
provides plain-language radio weather advisories for the
coastal waters of the United States?
A: National Imagery and Mapping Agency
B: U.S. Hydrological Survey
C: U.S. Coast Guard
D: American Meteorological Service
1291: The period of a lighted aid to navigation refers to the
_________.
A: date of construction or establishment
B: length of time between flashes of the light
C: time required for the longest flash of each cycle
D: time required for the light to complete each cycle
1292: A triangular daymark would be colored ___________.
A: red
B: red and white
C: green
D: green and white
1293: Deviation is caused by _________________.
A: changes in the earth's magnetic field
B: nearby magnetic land masses or mineral deposits
C: magnetic influence inherent to that particular vessel
D: the magnetic lines of force not coinciding with the lines of
1295: The best estimate of the wind direction at sea level can be
obtained from observing the direction of the _______.
A: cloud movement
B: vessel heading
C: waves
D: swells
1296: After a cold front passes the barometric pressure usually
__________.
A: fluctuates
B: remains the same
C: remains the same, with clouds forming rapidly
D: rises, often quite rapidly, with clearing skies
1297: What will be the velocity of the tidal current at
Bournedale, MA, at 1135 DST (ZD +4) on 3 May 1983?
A: 1.1 knots
B: 2.3 knots
C: 3.0 knots
D: 3.6 knots
1298: The vertex of a great circle track is in LONG 109ø E. An
eastbound vessel would cross the equator in LONG _________.
A: 161ø W
B: 161ø E
C: 19ø E
D: 19ø W
1299: What will be the time (ZD +5) of the second high tide at
Weymouth Fore River Bridge, MA, on 12 November 1983?
A: 1639
B: 1643
C: 1647
D: 1650
1300: You are approaching a sea buoy which emits a racon signal.
This signal is triggered by which type of radar?
A: 3 cm
B: 10 cm
C: Both 3 cm and 10 cm
D: Signal does not depend on radar type.
1301: The four standard light colors used for lighted aids to
navigation are red, green, white, and _____________.
A: purple
B: orange
C: blue
D: yellow
1302: What feature(s) of a daymark is (are) used to identify the
beacon upon which it is mounted?
A: Color and shape
B: Size
C: Method of construction
D: Signal characteristics
1303: Compass deviation is caused by _______________.
A: magnetism from the earth's magnetic field
B: misalignment of the compass
C: magnetism within the vessel
D: a dirty compass housing
1304: The distance to the nearest vertex from any point on a
great circle track cannot exceed _______________.
A: 5400 nautical miles
B: 5840 nautical miles
C: 6080 nautical miles
D: 10,800 nautical miles
1306: What type of clouds are associated with a cold front?
A: Altostratus and fracto-cumulus
B: Altostratus and cirrus
C: Cirrus and cirrostratus
D: Cumulus and cumulonimbus
1307: What will be the velocity of the tidal current southwest of
Hunts Point, NY, at 0932 EST (ZD +5) on 16 March 1983?
A: 0.9 knot
B: 1.5 knots
C: 1.8 knots
D: 2.3 knots
1308: On a voyage from Capetown to London, the favorable ocean
current off the coast of Africa is the ___________________.
A: Canary Current
B: Benguela Current
C: Agulhas Current
D: South Atlantic Current
1309: When recording the wind direction in the weather log, you
would report the __________.
A: direction the wind is blowing toward
B: direction the wind is blowing from
C: duration of the maximum gust of wind
D: wind chill factor
1310: An urgent marine storm warning message would be broadcast on
__________.
A: 2670 KHz
B: 156.80 MHz (VHF-FM Ch. 16)
C: 157.10 MHz (VHF-FM Ch. 22A)
D: None of the above
1311: What is the characteristic of a quick light?
A: Shows groups of 2 or more flashes at regular intervals
B: Durations of light and darkness are equal
C: Shows not less than 60 flashes per minute
D: Shows quick flashes for about 5 seconds followed by a 1
1312: Which factor(s) determine(s) the charted visibility of a
lighthouse's light in clear visibility?
A: Height and intensity of the light
B: Height of the light and the observer
C: Height of the observer and the intensity of the light
D: Height of the light only
1313: Variation in a compass is caused by _______________.
A: worn gears in the compass housing
B: magnetism from the earth's magnetic field
C: magnetism within the vessel
D: lack of oil in the compass bearings
Error reading USCG question 1314
weather charts. Which of these symbols indicates hail?
1315: What is a lighted safe water mark fitted with to aid in its
identification?
A: Red and white retroreflective material
B: A sequential number
C: A spherical topmark
D: A red and white octagon
1316: When a warm air mass overtakes a cold air mass, the contact
surface is called a ______________.
A: line squall
B: water spout
C: cold front
D: warm front
1317: What will be the velocity and direction of the tidal current
at Mobile River Entrance, AL, at 0915 CDT (ZD +5) on 13 May
A: 0.1 knot at 333ø T
B: 0.3 knot at 333ø T
C: 0.7 knot at 151ø T
D: 1.8 knots at 025ø T
1318: You are to sail from Elizabethport, N.J., on 17 November
1983 with a maximum draft of 27 feet. You will pass over an
obstruction in the channel near Sandy Hook that has a depth
of 25.5 feet. The steaming time from Elizabethport to the
obstruction is 1h 50m. What is the earliest time (ZD +5)
you can sail on 17 November and pass over the obstruction
with 2 feet of clearance?
A: 0059
B: 0128
C: 0159
D: 0221
1319: The Sailing Directions (Planning Guide) contain information
on all of the following EXCEPT ____________________.
A: coastal features
B: ocean basin environment
C: ocean routes
D: military operating areas
1320: You are enroute to Savannah, GA, from Recife, Brazil. There
is a strong N'ly wind blowing. As you cross the axis of the
Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter _________.
A: steeper waves, closer together
B: smoother seas and warmer water
C: cirrus clouds
D: long swells
1321: A lighthouse can be identified by its _______________.
A: painted color
B: light color and phase characteristic
C: type of structure
D: All of the above
1322: What will be the velocity of the tidal current at Grant's
Tomb, 123rd Street, NY, NY, at 1412 EST (ZD +5) on 22 March
A: 0.5 knot
B: 0.8 knot
C: 1.1 knots
D: 1.3 knots
1323: The magnetic compass error which changes with the
geographical location of your vessel is called _________.
A: deviation
B: variation
C: compensation
D: differentiation
1324: When daylight savings time is kept, the time of tide and
current calculations must be adjusted. One way of doing
this is to _____________.
A: add one hour to the times listed under the reference
stations
B: subtract one hour from the time differences listed for the
subordinate stations
C: apply no correction as the times in the reference stations
are adjusted for daylight savings time
D: add 15ø to the standard meridian when calculating the time
1325: You change course entering port and steady up on a range
with the lights in line. After a few minutes you observe
the range lights as shown in illustration D047NG. You
should alter your heading to the _______.
A: left, and when the range lights are in line again, resume
your original heading
B: right, and when the range lights are in line again, steer to
keep them dead ahead
C: left, and when the range lights are in line again, steer to
keep them in line fine on the starboard bow
D: right, and when the range lights are in line again, steer to
1326: A cloud sequence of cirrus, cirrostratus, and altostratus
clouds followed by rain usually signifies the approach of
a(n) __________.
A: occluded front
B: stationary front
C: warm front
D: cold front
1327: What will be the velocity of the tidal current at 0.2 mile
SSW of Clason Point, NY, at 1225 DST (ZD +4) on 17 April
A: 0.5 knot
B: 0.9 knot
C: 1.1 knots
D: 1.9 knots
1328: What will be the velocity of the tidal current in Bolivar
Roads, Texas, at a point 0.5 mile north of Ft. Point, on 23
November 1983 at 0330 CST (ZD +6)?
A: Slack water
B: 0.8 kt
C: 1.2 kts
D: 3.4 kts
1329: Yesterday your chronometer read 03h 01m 56s at the 1500 GMT
time tick. Today your chronometer read 03h 01m 54s at the
1500 GMT time tick. What is the chronometer rate?
A: 1m 54s fast
B: 2s fast
C: -2s
D: +2s
1330: You are located within a stationary high pressure area. Your
aneroid barometer is falling very slowly. This indicates
a(n) _____________.
A: wind shift of 180ø
B: large increase in wind velocity
C: decrease in the intensity of the system
D: increase in the intensity of the system
1331: When trying to sight a lighthouse you notice a glare from a
town in the background. The range at which the light may be
sighted due to this glare is ____________________________.
A: considerably reduced
B: increased slightly due to extra lighting
C: unchanged
D: increased if the light is red or green due to contrast with
1332: The longitude of the upper vertex of a great circle track is
169ø E. What is the longitude of the lower vertex?
A: 076ø E
B: 169ø W
C: 101ø W
D: 011ø W
1333: If a magnetic compass is not affected by any magnetic field
other than the Earth's, which statement is TRUE?
A: Compass error and variation are equal.
B: Compass north will be true north.
C: Variation will equal deviation.
D: There will be no compass error.
Error reading USCG question 1334
weather charts. The symbol indicated at letter "H"
represents _________________.
A: ice
B: snow
C: rain
D: hail
1335: Plain language is usually used on marine weather __________.
A: forecasts
B: observations
C: analyses
D: reports
1336: On the approach of a warm front, barometric pressure usually
_________________.
A: falls
B: is steady
C: is uncertain
D: rises
1337: What will be the time of maximum flood current at Sagamore
Bridge on the Cape Cod Canal during the morning of 6
December 1983 (ZD +5)?
A: 0708
B: 0712
C: 0716
D: 1020
1338: Which type of cloud is indicated by the number 6?
A: Altocumulus
B: Stratocumulus
C: Altostratus
D: Cirrus
1339: You are on course 303ø T. To check the speed of your
vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?
A: 000ø
B: 090ø
C: 123ø
D: 213ø
1340: The annual change in variation for an area can be found in
_________.
A: the handbook for Magnetic Compass Adjustment, Pub 226
B: the center of the compass rose on a chart of the area
C: the compass deviation table
D: Variation does not change.
1341: The height of a light is measured from which reference
plane?
A: Mean low water
B: Mean high water
C: Average water level
D: Geographical sea level
1342: An occluded front on a weather map is colored _____.
A: blue line
B: purple line
C: dashed blue line
D: alternate red and blue line
1343: Variation is a compass error that you _________________.
A: can correct by adjusting the compass card
B: can correct by adjusting the compensating magnets
C: can correct by changing the vessel's heading
D: cannot correct
1344: Which buoy symbol in illustration D032NG indicates a safe
water mark?
1345: A large automated navigational buoy, such as those that have
replaced some lightships, would be shown on a chart by which
symbol in illustration D015NG?
1346: Cirrus clouds followed by cirrostratus then altostratus,
stratus, and occasionally nimbostratus indicate the approach
of a(n) ______________.
A: cold front
B: warm front
C: tropical front
D: occluded front
1347: What will be the velocity of the tidal current south of
Doubling Point, ME, at 1357 EST (ZD +5) on 3 April 1983?
A: 0.9 knot
B: 1.3 knots
C: 2.0 knots
D: 2.6 knots
1348: Vessel required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must
have a device to indicate the ____________.
A: speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
B: distance to the next port
C: time of the next navigational satellite pass
D: None of the above
1349: The symbols shown are used on radiofacsimile weather charts.
Which of these symbols indicates a severe squall line?
1350: You are running parallel to the coast and plotting running
fixes using bearings of the same object. You are making
more speed than assumed for the running fix. In relation to
the position indicated by the fix you will be _____.
A: closer to the coast
B: farther from the coast
C: on the track line ahead of the fix
D: on the track line behind the fix
1351: Luminous range is the _____________.
A: maximum distance at which a light may be seen in clear
weather
B: maximum distance at which a light may be seen under existing
visibility conditions
C: maximum distance at which a light may be seen considering
the height of the light and the height of the observer
D: average distance of visibility of the light
1353: The difference in degrees between true north and magnetic
north is called ___________________.
A: variation
B: deviation
C: drift
D: compass error
1354: A ship is in longitude 54ø00' W on a true course of 090ø.
The ship's clocks are on the proper time zone. At what
longitude should the clocks be changed to maintain the
proper zone time?
A: 45ø00' W
B: 52ø30' W
C: 60ø00' W
D: 67ø30' W
1355: The parallax of the Moon is greatest when the Moon is
_______________.
A: in the zenith at perigee
B: on the horizon at apogee
C: at its maximum altitude at apogee
D: on the horizon at perigee
1356: The first indications a mariner will have of the approach of
a warm front will be ______________.
A: large cumulonimbus (thunderclouds) building up
B: high cirrus clouds gradually changing to cirrostratus and
then to altostratus
C: fog caused by the warm air passing over the cooler water
D: low dark clouds accompanied by intermittent rain
1357: You will transit the Cape Cod Canal on 7 November 1983. If
you arrive at the R R Bridge at 1655 EST (ZD +5), for what
period of time during your transit will you have currents
of not more than 0.5 knot?
A: 1631 to 1719
B: 1638 to 1655
C: 1648 to 1702
D: 1655 to 1709
1359: The distance in longitude from the intersection of a great
circle and the equator to the lower vertex is how many
degrees of longitude?
A: 45ø
B: 90ø
C: 135ø
D: 180ø
1360: Which type of cloud is composed entirely of ice crystals
and is found at very high altitudes?
A: Cumulus
B: Cirrus
C: Stratus
D: Nimbostratus
1361: The luminous range of a light takes into account the
____________.
A: glare from background lighting
B: existing visibility conditions
C: elevation of the light
D: observer's height of eye
1362: Which type of cloud is indicated by the number 7 in
illustration D039NG?
A: Cirrostratus
B: Altocumulus
C: Cumulus
D: Cumulonimbus
1363: True heading differs from magnetic heading by _______.
A: deviation
B: variation
C: compass error
D: northerly error
1364: The Sailing Directions are published in the Enroute format
and the ______________________.
A: Coastal editions
B: World Port Index
C: Pilot format
D: Planning Guide
1365: The same side of the Moon is always toward the Earth,
but more than half of its surface has been seen due to
libration. Libration in latitude occurs because
______________.
A: the axis of rotation is tilted about 6.5ø to the axis of
revolution
B: the speed of revolution varies, while the rotational speed
is essentially constant
C: of the rotational oscillation of the Moon with respect to
its radius vector
D: of augmentation
1366: Clouds appearing in the following order: cirrus,
cirrostratus, altostratus, stratus, and nimbostratus usually
indicate the approach of a(n) ______________.
A: warm front
B: occluded front
C: medium front
D: cold front
1367: You want to transit Hell Gate, NY on 23 July 1983. What is
the period of time around the AM (ZD +4) slack before ebb
when the current will be less than 0.3 knot?
A: 0939 to 0957
B: 0943 to 0953
C: 0844 to 0852
D: 0348 to 0356
1368: What area of the earth cannot be shown on a standard
Mercator chart?
A: Equator
B: Areas including both North and South latitudes
C: North and South Poles
D: A narrow band along the central meridian.
1370: Which type of cloud is indicated by the number 8?
A: Cumulonimbus
B: Altostratus
C: Cirrostratus
D: Nimbostratus
1372: You are enroute to Jacksonville, FL, from San Juan, P.R.
There is a fresh N'ly wind blowing. As you cross the axis
of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter _________.
A: cirrus clouds
B: long swells
C: smoother seas and warmer water
D: steeper waves, closer together
1373: The reaction of a gyrocompass to an applied force is known
as ________.
A: precession
B: earth rate
C: gyroscopic inertia
D: gravity effect
1374: On a working copy of a weather map, a warm front is
represented by what color line?
A: Red
B: Blue
C: Alternating red and blue
D: Purple
1375: The Moon rises earlier on succeeding days when the
__________________.
A: retardation effect of the revolution of the Moon is greater
than the effect due to change of declination
B: effect due to change of declination is larger than that due
to revolution
C: the revolution effect and the declination effect act in the
same direction
D: the Moon is on the equator and the revolution effect is at a
1376: What is typical of warm front weather conditions?
A: An increase in pressure
B: A wind shift from southwest to northwest
C: Scattered cumulus clouds
D: Steady precipitation
1377: What is the velocity of the tidal current at the east end of
Pollock Rip Channel at 1700 DST (ZD +4) on 23 July 1983?
A: 0.6 knot ebbing
B: 0.8 knot flooding
C: 1.3 knots flooding
D: 1.9 knots flooding
1378: The latitude of the upper vertex of a great circle is 36ø N.
What is the latitude of the lower vertex?
A: 36ø N
B: 0ø
C: 36ø S
D: Cannot be determined from the information
1379: The lubber's line on a magnetic compass indicates _________.
A: compass north
B: the direction of the vessel's head
C: magnetic north
D: a relative bearing taken with an azimuth circle
1380: Which type of weather could you expect soon after seeing
"hook" or "comma" shaped cirrus clouds?
A: Rain with the approach of a warm front
B: Clearing with the approach of a cold front
C: Continuing fog and rain
D: The formation of a tropical depression
1381: Geographic range is the maximum distance at which a light
may be seen under ___________.
A: existing visibility conditions, limited only by the
curvature of the Earth
B: perfect visibility conditions, limited only by the curvature
of the Earth
C: existing visibility conditions, limited only by the
intensity of the light
D: perfect visibility conditions, limited only by interference
1382: The chart indicates the variation was 3ø45' W in 1988, and
the annual change is increasing 6'. If you use the chart in
1991 how much variation should you apply?
A: 3ø27' W
B: 3ø27' E
C: 4ø03' W
D: 4ø03' E
1383: The spin axis of a gyroscope tends to remain fixed in space
in the direction in which it is started. How does this
gyroscope become north seeking so that it can be used as a
compass?
A: By mechanically or electrically applying forces to precess
the gyroscope
B: By starting the compass with the spin axis in a north/south
position
C: By taking advantage of the property of gyroscopic inertia
D: The rotation of the Earth (Earth rate) automatically aligns
1384: Which type of cloud is indicated by number 9?
A: Cumulus
B: Cumulonimbus
C: Altostratus
D: Stratocumulus
1385: What is the length of the lunar day?
A: 24h 50m 00s
B: 24h 00m 00s
C: 23h 56m 04s
D: 23h 03m 56s
1386: The FIRST indications a mariner will have of the approach of
a warm front will be ______________.
A: large cumulonimbus clouds building up
B: low dark clouds with intermittent rain
C: fog caused by the warm air passing over the cooler water
D: high clouds gradually followed by lower thicker clouds
1387: You will be entering the Mystic River in Connecticut. What
is the current at the Highway Bridge at 1900 EST (ZD +5) on
24 January 1983?
A: 2.2 knots flooding
B: Slack water
C: Slight ebb
D: 2.5 knots ebbing
1389: A boundary between two air masses is a(n) ____________.
A: lapse rate
B: isobar
C: front
D: continent
1390: The fog most commonly encountered at sea is called ________.
A: conduction fog
B: radiation fog
C: frontal fog
D: advection fog
1391: When a light is first seen on the horizon it will disappear
again if the height of eye is immediately lowered several
feet. When the eye is raised to its former height the light
will again be visible. This process is called ____________.
A: checking a light
B: raising a light
C: obscuring a light
D: bobbing a light
1392: Cumulonimbus clouds are indicated by which number?
1393: The directive force of a gyrocompass _____________.
A: increases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic
poles
B: decreases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic
equator
C: is greatest when a vessel is near the Earth's magnetic
equator
D: remains the same at all latitudes
1394: A great circle crosses the equator at 17ø W. It will also
cross the equator at what other longitude?
A: 173ø W
B: 117ø W
C: 163ø E
D: 17ø E
1395: The lunar day is _____________.
A: longer than a solar day
B: shorter than a solar day
C: the same length as the solar day
D: longer than a solar day during the summer months and shorter
1396: On the approach of a warm front the barometric pressure
usually ________.
A: falls
B: rises
C: is steady
D: is unreliable
1397: What will be the velocity of the tidal current at Port
Jefferson Harbor Entrance, NY, at 1600 EST (ZD +5) on
23 December 1983?
A: 0.9 knot
B: 1.1 knots
C: 1.6 knots
D: 2.0 knots
1398: Nimbostratus clouds are indicated by what number in
illustration D039NG?
1399: You are bound for Baltimore via Cape Henry on a 15 knot
ship. If flood tide at Chesapeake Bay entrance begins at
1800 EST (ZD +5), at what time would you depart from the
Chesapeake Bay entrance to have the most favorable current?
A: 1700 hours
B: 1800 hours
C: 1900 hours
D: 2030 hours
1400: Which type of cloud is among the most dependable for
giving an indication of an approaching weather system?
A: Cumulus
B: Altostratus
C: Cumulostratus
D: Nimbus
1401: The maximum distance at which a light may be seen under the
existing visibility conditions is called __________________.
A: nominal range
B: luminous range
C: charted range
D: geographic range
1402: As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in
a magnetic compass _________.
A: first turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port
B: also turns to starboard
C: turns counterclockwise to port
D: remains aligned with compass north
1403: Which statement about the gyrocompass is FALSE?
A: Its accuracy remains the same at all latitudes.
B: It seeks the true meridian.
C: It can be used near the Earth's magnetic poles.
D: If an error exists, it is the same on all headings.
1404: A great circle will intersect the equator at how many
degrees of longitude apart?
A: 0ø
B: 45ø
C: 90ø
D: 180ø
1405: After Venus passes the point of greatest elongation east in
its orbit, the first position in which the elongation will
be zero is ___________.
A: superior conjunction
B: inferior conjunction
C: opposition
D: None of the above; the elongation will never be zero
1406: What will act to dissipate fog?
A: Upwelling cold water
B: Advection of warm air over a colder surface
C: Rain that is warmer than air
D: Downslope motion of an air mass along a coast
1407: You want to transit Buttermilk Channel, NY, on 16 Dec 1983.
What is the period of time around the 1257 (ZD +5) slack in
which the current does not exceed 0.3 knot?
A: 1246 to 1308
B: 1235 to 1257
C: 1235 to 1319
D: 1257 to 1319
1408: An occluded front is caused by a(n) _______________________.
A: low pressure area
B: high pressure area
C: area of calm air
D: cold front overtaking a warm front
1409: You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at
5.5 knots on course 033ø T, and bears 284ø T, 43 miles from
you. What is the time to intercept if you make 16 knots?
A: 2h 16m
B: 2h 22m
C: 2h 34m
D: 2h 42m
1410: A white buoy marked with an orange rectangle indicates ____.
A: a fish net area
B: general information
C: an anchorage
D: midchannel
1411: The nominal range of a light may be accurately defined as
the maximum distance at which a light may be seen
_____________________.
A: under existing visibility conditions
B: under perfect visibility
C: with ten miles visibility
D: with fifteen miles visibility
1412: The distance between the surface of the water and the tidal
datum is the _______________________.
A: actual water depth
B: range of tide
C: charted depth
D: height of tide
1413: The gyrocompass error resulting from your vessel's movement
in OTHER than an east-west direction is called ____________.
A: damping error
B: ballistic deflection
C: quadrantal error
D: speed error
1414: You are planning a voyage from New York to Norway via the
English Channel. Which publication contains information on
the dangers to navigation in the English Channel?
A: Channel Pilot's Guide
B: World Port Index
C: Coast Pilot
D: Sailing Directions (Enroute)
1415: Planetary aberration is due, in part, to ________________.
A: refraction of light as it enters the Earth's atmosphere
B: rotation of the Earth on it's axis
C: the body's orbital motion during the time required for its
light to reach Earth
D: a false horizon
1416: Radiation fog ___________.
A: always forms over water
B: is formed by a temperature inversion
C: is thinnest at the surface
D: dissipates during the evening
1417: Determine the first time after 1200 EST (ZD +5) when the
velocity of the current will be 0.5 knot on 18 November
1983, at Marcus Hook, PA.
A: 1221
B: 1226
C: 1239
D: 1312
1419: The MOST important feature of the material used for making
the binnacle of a standard magnetic compass is that it is
__________.
A: nonmagnetic
B: weatherproof
C: corrosion resistant
D: capable of being permanently affixed to the vessel
1420: the position labeled "E" was plotted because ______________.
A: the vessel's position was fixed at 1145
B: a dead reckoning position is plotted within a half-hour
of each course change
C: the position is a running fix
D: a dead reckoning position is plotted for each speed change
1421: What is the approximate geographic visibility of an object
with a height above the water of 70 feet, for an observer
with a height of eye of 65 feet?
A: 16.8 nm
B: 19.0 nm
C: 20.6 nm
D: 22.4 nm
1422: Cumulus clouds are indicated by what number in illustration
D039NG?
1423: Quadrantal error in a gyrocompass has its GREATEST effect
________.
A: in high latitudes
B: near the equator
C: on north or south headings
D: on intercardinal headings
1424: Except for N-S courses, and E-W courses on the equator, a
great circle track between two points, when compared to a
rhumb line track between the same two points, will
_________.
A: always be nearer to the equator
B: always be nearer to the elevated pole
C: be nearer to the pole in the Northern Hemisphere and nearer
to the equator in the Southern Hemisphere
D: be nearer to the pole or the equator depending on the
1425: Which is an inferior planet?
A: Mars
B: Venus
C: Neptune
D: Pluto
1426: Fog is most commonly associated with a(n) _________________.
A: warm front at night
B: low pressure area
C: anticyclone
D: lack of frontal activity
1427: Determine the duration of the first PM slack water
on 3 March 1983, east of the Statue of Liberty,
when the current is less than 0.1 knot?
A: 10 minutes
B: 13 minutes
C: 16 minutes
D: 19 minutes
1428: The speed of sound in water is approximately _____________.
A: 1.5 times its speed in air
B: 2.5 times its speed in air
C: 3.5 times its speed in air
D: 4.5 times its speed in air
1429: A celestial body will cross the prime vertical circle when
the latitude is numerically _____.
A: greater than the declination and both are of the same name
B: less than the declination and both are of the same name
C: greater than the declination and both are of contrary name
D: less than the declination and both are of contrary name
1430: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of
14 miles and is 42 feet high (12.8 meters). If the
visibility is 6 miles and your height of eye is 20 feet
(6.1 meters), at what approximate distance will you sight
the light?
A: 20.1 miles
B: 10.0 miles
C: 7.6 miles
D: 6.0 miles
1431: A lighthouse is 120 feet (36.6 meters) high and the light
has a nominal range of 18 miles. Your height of eye is 42
feet (12.8). If the visibility is 11 miles, approximately
how far off the light will you be when the light becomes
visible?
A: 12.5 miles
B: 16.0 miles
C: 19.0 miles
D: 23.5 miles
1433: A system of reservoirs and connecting tubes in a gyro
compass is called a _____________.
A: spider element
B: mercury ballistic
C: gyrotron
D: rotor
1434: What is NOT a characteristic of cardinal marks?
A: Yellow and black bands
B: White lights
C: Square or triangular topmarks
D: Directional orientation to a hazard
1435: Inferior conjunction is possible for _____________.
A: Mars
B: Venus
C: Saturn
D: Jupiter
1436: Fog forms when the air ____________________.
A: is 50% water saturated
B: is 90% water saturated
C: temperature is greater than the dew point temperature
D: temperature is equal to, or below the dew point temperature
1437: Determine the time after 0300 CST (ZD +6) when the velocity
of the tidal current will be 0.5 knot on 16 April 1983, at
Port Arthur Canal Entrance, TX.
A: 0436
B: 0507
C: 0538
D: 0554
1438: In the Northern Hemisphere you are caught in the dangerous
semicircle of a storm with plenty of sea room available. The
best course of action is to bring the wind on the _____.
A: port quarter and make as much headway as possible
B: starboard quarter and make as much headway as possible
C: starboard bow and make as much headway as possible
D: port bow and make as much headway as possible
1439: The symbols shown are used on radiofacsimile weather charts.
The symbol indicated at letter "G" represents a
___________.
A: weather boundary
B: thunderstorm
C: wide spread sandstorm
D: severe, line squall
1440: A mercurial barometer at sea is subject to rapid variations
in height ("pumping") due to the pitch and roll of the
vessel. To avoid this error, measurements of atmospheric
pressure at sea are usually measured with a(n) ___________.
A: syphon barometer
B: cistern barometer
C: aneroid barometer
D: fortin barometer
1441: Your height of eye is 40 feet (12.2 meters). What is the
approximate geographical distance at which Ambrose Light,
NY, could be visible? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT
LISTS AND COAST PILOTS".
A: 18.3 nm
B: 19.5 nm
C: 21.0 nm
D: 22.8 nm
1442: A great circle track provides the maximum saving in distance
on _____________________________.
A: easterly courses in high latitudes
B: southerly courses in high latitudes
C: westerly courses in low latitudes
D: easterly courses in low latitudes that cross the equator
1443: At the master gyrocompass, the compass card is attached
to the __________.
A: spider element
B: sensitive element
C: link arm
D: pickup transformer
1444: Stratocumulus clouds are indicated by which number?
1445: The planet Mars will have its greatest magnitude when at
________.
A: conjunction
B: opposition
C: east quadrature
D: west quadrature
1446: When compared to air temperature, which factor is most
useful in predicting fog?
A: Vapor pressure
B: Dew point
C: Barometric pressure
D: Absolute humidity
1447: What will be the velocity of the tidal current 6 miles south
of Shoal Point, NY, at 1850 DST (ZD +4) on 9 July 1983?
A: -0.2 knot
B: 0.2 knot
C: 1.2 knots
D: 1.4 knots
1448: Spring tides occur when the _____________.
A: Moon is in its first quarter or third quarter phase
B: Sun and Moon are in quadrature
C: Moon's declination is maximum and opposite to that of the
Sun
D: Moon is new or full
1449: The presence of stratus clouds and a dying wind
will usually result in _______________________.
A: heavy rain
B: heavy snow
C: thick fog
D: clearing skies
1450: The distance between the surface of the water and the tidal
datum is the _______________________.
A: range of tide
B: charted depth
C: height of tide
D: actual water depth
1451: You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at
5 knots on course 063ø T, and bears 136ø T at 78 miles from
you. What is the course to steer at 13 knots to intercept
vessel A?
A: 340ø
B: 295ø
C: 158ø
D: 114ø
1452: When is the rhumb line distance the same as the great circle
distance?
A: Course 090ø T in high latitudes
B: Course 180ø T when you cross the equator
C: Course 045ø T in low latitudes
D: The rhumb line distance is always longer than the great
1453: Indications of the master gyrocompass are sent to remote
repeaters by the _____________.
A: follow-up system
B: transmitter
C: phantom element
D: azimuth motor
1455: Inferior conjunction is possible for _______________.
A: Mercury
B: Saturn
C: Mars
D: Jupiter
1456: The fog produced by warm moist air passing over a cold
surface is called ______________.
A: conduction fog
B: radiation fog
C: frontal fog
D: advection fog
1457: What is the period of time from around 1008 DST (ZD +4)
at Canapitsit Channel, MA, on 7 August 1983, in which the
current does not exceed 0.4 knot?
A: 0945 to 1031
B: 0950 to 1026
C: 0955 to 1021
D: 1000 to 1024
1459: In a tropical cyclone, in the Northern Hemisphere, a vessel
hove to with the wind shifting counterclockwise is ________.
A: ahead of the storm center
B: in the dangerous semicircle
C: in the navigable semicircle
D: directly in the approach path of the storm
1460: What is the major advantage of a rhumb line track?
A: The vessel can steam on a constant heading (disregarding
wind, current, etc.).
B: The rhumb line is the shortest distance between the arrival
and departure points.
C: It is easily plotted on a gnomonic chart for comparison with
a great circle course.
D: It approximates a great circle on east-west courses in high
1461: The chart indicates the variation was 3ø45' W in 1988, and
the annual change is decreasing 6'. If you use the chart in
1991 how much variation should you apply?
A: 3ø27' W
B: 3ø27' E
C: 4ø03' W
D: 4ø03' E
1462: Altocumulus clouds are indicated by which number?
1463: If the gyrocompass error is east, what describes the error
and the correction to be made to gyrocompass headings to
obtain true headings?
A: The readings are too low (small numerically) and the amount
of the error must be added to the compass to obtain true
B: The readings are too low and the amount of the error must be
subtracted from the compass to obtain true
C: The readings are too high (large numerically) and the amount
of the error must be added to the compass to obtain true
D: The readings are too high and the amount of the error must
1464: A line of position derived from a loran reading is a section
of a(n) _______.
A: straight line
B: arc
C: parabola
D: hyperbola
1465: The planet Venus can be observed in the morning
before sunrise if it is well to the _______________.
A: west of and higher than the Sun
B: west of and lower than the Sun
C: east of and higher than the Sun
D: east of and lower than the Sun
1466: Advection fog is most commonly caused by ______________.
A: air being warmed above the dew point
B: saturation of cold air by rain
C: a rapid cooling of the air near the surface of the Earth at
night
D: warm moist air being blown over a colder surface
1467: Determine the time after 0730 EST ( ZD +5) when the velocity
of the current will be 2.1 knots on 26 March 1983, at Fort
Pulaski, GA.
A: 0802
B: 0812
C: 0821
D: 0840
1468: What is NOT an advantage of the rhumb line track over a
great circle track?
A: Easily plotted on a Mercator chart
B: Negligible increase in distance on east-west courses near
the equator
C: Does not require constant course changes
D: Plots as a straight line on Lambert conformal charts
1469: The charted channel depth at Eastport, ME, is 28 feet. You
are drawing 31.5 feet and wish 2 feet clearance under the
keel. What is the earliest time after 1700 (ZD +4) on 6
September 1983 that you can enter the channel?
A: 1803
B: 1842
C: 1905
D: 1916
Error reading USCG question 1470
weather charts. Which symbol indicates a hurricane?
1471: A mountain peak charted at 700 feet breaks the horizon, and
your height of eye is 12 feet. What is your
approximate distance off (choose closest answer)?
A: 34.7 nm
B: 40.3 nm
C: 55.3 nm
D: 61.6 nm
1473: Which statement about gyrocompass error is TRUE?
A: The amount of the error and the sign will generally be the
same on all headings.
B: The sign (E or W) of the error will change with different
headings of the ship.
C: Any error will remain constant unless the compass is stopped
and restarted.
D: Any error shown by a gyro repeater will be the same as the
1474: You are on course 061ø T. To check the longitude of your
vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?
A: 090ø
B: 180ø
C: 241ø
D: 061ø
1475: Which type of cloud is the classic "thunderhead"?
A: Cumulonimbus
B: Stratus
C: Cirrus
D: Altostratus
1476: When warm moist air blows over a colder surface and is
cooled below its dew point, the result is _________.
A: radiation fog
B: ice fog
C: advection fog
D: frost smoke
1477: The wind in the vicinity of Nantucket Shoals Light has been
southerly at an average speed of 23 knots. The predicted
set and drift of the rotary tidal current are 225ø at 0.8
knot. What are the set and drift of the current you can
expect at Nantucket Shoals Light?
A: 025ø at 1.8 knots
B: 218ø at 1.1 knots
C: 235ø at 0.5 knot
D: 247ø at 0.7 knot
1478: Altostratus clouds are indicated by which number?
1479: A microbarograph is a precision instrument that provides a
_________.
A: charted record of atmospheric temperature over time
B: charted record of atmospheric pressure over time
C: graphic record of combustible gases measured in an
atmosphere
D: graphic record of vapor pressure from a
1480: What is the definition of height of tide?
A: The vertical difference between the heights of low and high
water
B: The vertical difference between a datum plane and the ocean
bottom
C: The vertical distance from the surface of the water to the
ocean floor
D: The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of
1481: What is the approximate geographic range of Fenwick Island
Light, Delaware, if your height of eye is 42 feet (12.8
meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST
PILOTS".
A: 18.3 nm
B: 15.4 nm
C: 13.1 nm
D: 10.3 nm
1482: Which statement concerning current is TRUE?
A: Current can be determined by measuring the direction and
distance between simultaneous EP and DR positions.
B: The drift of the current should be averaged out on a one
hour basis.
C: After the current is determined, it should not be used for
further plotting because it is an unknown variable.
D: The distance between a simultaneous DR position and fix is
1483: The most accurate method of determining gyrocompass error
while underway is by ___________.
A: comparing the gyro azimuth of a celestial body with the
computed azimuth of the body
B: comparing the gyro heading with the magnetic compass
heading
C: determining from the chart the course made good between
celestial fixes
D: It cannot be determined accurately at sea due to drift of
1484: You should plot your dead reckoning position at _____.
A: every fix or running fix
B: every course change
C: every speed change
D: All of the above are correct.
1486: Which condition would most likely result in fog?
A: Warm moist air blowing over cold water
B: Airborne dust particles
C: Warm moist air blowing over warm water
D: Dew point falling below the air temperature
1487: At the approaches to Savannah, GA, with the wind coming out
of the west, the wind-driven current will be flowing
approximately ________.
A: 080ø
B: 100ø
C: 260ø
D: 280ø
1488: What defines a great circle?
A: A curved line drawn on a Mercator Chart
B: A course line that inscribes a loxodromic curve
C: The shortest distance between any two points on the earth
D: The smallest circle that can be drawn on the face of a
1489: Cumulonimbus clouds can produce _____________________.
A: dense fog and high humidity
B: gusty winds, thunder, rain or hail, and lightning
C: clear skies with the approach of a cold front
D: a rapid drop in barometric pressure followed by darkness
1490: In the IALA Buoyage System, preferred-channel-to-port or
preferred-channel-to-starboard buoys, when fitted with
lights, will show a __________.
A: quick flashing light
B: long flashing light
C: composite group flashing (2 + 1) light
D: group flashing
1491: You are on course 138² T. To check the latitude of your
vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?
A: 138²
B: 270²
C: 318²
D: 000²
1492: You are planning a voyage from San Francisco to Japan.
Which publication contains information on the ocean routes?
A: Coast Pilot
B: Sailing Directions (Planning Guide)
C: Sailing Directions (Enroute)
D: World Port Index
1493: You are running parallel to the coast and estimate that the
current is against you. In plotting a running fix using
bearings from the same object on the coast, the greatest
safety margin from inshore dangers will result if what speed
is used to determine the fix?
A: Minimum speed estimate
B: Maximum speed estimate
C: Average speed estimate
D: A running fix should not be used under these conditions.
1494: Cirrocumulus clouds are indicated by which number?
1495: A great circle crosses the equator at 157ø W. It will also
cross the equator at what other longitude?
A: 157ø E
B: 57ø E
C: 23ø E
D: 57ø W
1496: In a microbarograph, the pen should be checked and the
inkwell filled ______________.
A: each time the chart is changed
B: once per month
C: once per week
D: daily
1497: When drawing a weather map and an isobar crosses a front,
the isobar is drawn _______________________.
A: perpendicular to the front
B: kinked and pointing away from the low
C: kinked and pointing towards the low
D: kinked and pointing towards the high for a warm front only
1498: A true bearing of a charted object, when plotted on a chart,
will establish a _______________.
A: fix
B: line of position
C: relative bearing
D: range
1499: You are scanning the radar screen for a buoy fitted with
racon. How should this signal appear on the PPI display?
A: Starting with a dash and extending radially outward from
the target
B: As a broken line from center of PPI to the target
C: Starting with a dot and extending radially inward from the
target
D: Starting with a dash and extending to the right of the
1500: In what order should the following sextant adjustments be
made?
I. Make telescope parallel to frame of sextant.
II. Set horizon glass perpendicular to frame of sextant.
III. Make index mirror and horizon glass parallel when
index arm is set at zero.
IV. Set index mirror perpendicular to frame of sextant.
A: I, II, III, IV
B: I, IV, II, III
C: III, II, IV, I
D: IV, II, III, I
1501: What is the distance from the bottom of a wave trough
to the top of a wave crest?
A: Wave length
B: Wave height
C: Wave breadth
D: Wave depth
1502: You are running parallel to the coast and take a running
fix using bearings of the same object. If you are making
less speed than used for the running fix, in relation to the
position indicated by the fix, you will be _____.
A: closer to the coast
B: farther from the coast
C: on the track line ahead of the fix
D: on the track line behind the fix
1503: A radar range to a small, charted object such as a light
will provide a line of position in which form?
A: Straight line
B: Arc
C: Parabola
D: Hyperbola
1504: The time meridian used when computing the height of
tide for Pensacola Bay, FL, is _______________________.
A: 75ø00' W
B: 82ø30' W
C: 90ø00' W
D: 97ø30' W
1505: At 0000 you fix your position and change course to 090ø T.
At 0030 you again fix your position and it is 0.5 mile east
of your DR. Which statement is TRUE?
A: The current is easterly.
B: The drift is 0.5 knot.
C: You should alter course to the right to regain the
track line.
D: The current is perpendicular to your track line.
1506: You are steaming southward along the west coast of the
United States when you sight a buoy showing a flashing green
light. How should you pass this buoy?
A: Leave it to your port.
B: Leave it to your starboard.
C: Pass it close aboard on either side.
D: Pass it on either side but well clear of it.
1507: When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the
upper light is above the lower light you should __________.
A: come right
B: come left
C: wait until the lights are no longer in a vertical line
D: continue on the present course
1508: A line of position is __________________.
A: a line connecting two charted objects
B: a line on some point of which the vessel may be presumed to
be located
C: the position of your vessel
D: not used in a running fix
1509: Your facsimile prognostic chart indicates that you will
cross the cold front of a low pressure system in about 24
hours. You should ______.
A: expect to see cirrus clouds followed by altostratus and
nimbostratus clouds
B: alter course to remain in the navigable semicircle
C: prepare for gusty winds, thunderstorms, and a sudden wind
shift
D: expect clear weather, with steady winds and pressure, until
1510: During daylight savings time the meridian used for
determining the time is located farther _______.
A: west
B: east
C: east in west longitude and west in east longitude
D: west in west longitude and east in east longitude
1511: A vessel encountering hurricane or typhoon conditions is
required to transmit reports to the closest meteorological
service every _______________.
A: 8 hours
B: 6 hours
C: 3 hours
D: hour
1512: You are plotting a running fix. The LOP to be run forward
is an arc from a radar range, what technique should be used?
A: The arc should be converted into a straight line using
offsets and then run forward.
B: An arc should never be run forward.
C: The position of the object observed should be advanced swung
using the radius of the old arc.
D: The distance between LOP's should be added to the radar
1514: The compass error of a magnetic compass that has no
deviation is ___________.
A: zero
B: equal to variation
C: eliminated by adjusting the compass
D: constant at any geographical location
1517: When determining compass error by an azimuth of Polaris, you
enter the Nautical Almanac with the ___________________.
A: GHA Aries
B: LHA Aries
C: LHA Polaris
D: GHA Polaris
1518: Which publication requires infrequent corrections?
A: List of Lights
B: Coast Pilot
C: Sailing Directions (Planning Guide)
D: Radio Navigational Aids
1519: You are preparing a weather report form, WS Form B-80. Your
position is LAT 10ø38' S, LONG 00ø14' E. How would this be
encoded?
A: LAT 10.6ø S, LONG 00.2ø E
B: L106S, 30002
C: 10385, 0014E
D: 99106, 30002
1520: The diurnal inequality of the tides is caused by _________.
A: the declination of the Moon
B: changing weather conditions
C: the Moon being at apogee
D: the Moon being at perigee
1523: Which is a characteristic of the weather preceding an
approaching warm front?
A: Gusty winds
B: Steadily falling barometric pressure
C: Decreasing relative humidity
D: Clearing skies
1525: You are in LAT 50ø S and obtain an RDF bearing on a vessel
400 miles due west of you. You should expect to receive the
bearing from the ________________________.
A: southeast quadrant
B: northeast quadrant
C: northwest quadrant
D: southwest quadrant
1527: Your vessel is on course 270ø T, speed 10 knots. The
apparent wind is from 10ø off the port bow, speed 30 knots.
From which direction is the true wind?
A: 345ø T
B: 255ø T
C: 165ø T
D: 075ø T
1528: Cirrostratus clouds are indicated by which number?
1530: In shallow water, waves that are too steep to be stable,
causing the crests to move forward faster than the rest of
the wave, are called _____________.
A: rollers
B: breakers
C: white caps
D: surfers
1531: The magnitude of three stars is indicated. Which star is
the brightest?
A: Antares + 1.2
B: Altair + 0.9
C: Vega + 0.1
D: Cannot be determined; magnitude indicates size not
1532: The position labeled "E" was plotted because ____________.
A: a dead reckoning position is plotted for each speed change
B: a dead reckoning position is plotted within a half-hour
of each course change
C: the position is a running fix
D: the vessel's position was fixed at 1145
1533: Lighted information markers show _________.
A: white lights
B: green lights
C: yellow lights
D: red lights
1534: You are preparing a weather report form, WS Form B-80.
Your position is LAT 22ø31' S, LONG 138ø19' W. How would
this be encoded?
A: LAT 22.5ø S, LONG 138.3ø W
B: 99225, 51383
C: L2231, 53819
D: 2231S, 5383W
1536: What will NOT induce errors into a doppler sonar log?
A: Increased draft
B: Pitch
C: Roll
D: Change in trim
1537: Which sextant in illustration D043NG reads 29ø47.5'?
1538: The winds of the "roaring fortie"s are strongest near
______.
A: 40² N
B: 50² N
C: 40² S
D: 50² S
1539: You are steaming in the open ocean of the North Pacific
between the Aleutian Chain and Hawaii. A warning broadcast
indicates that an earthquake has occurred in the Aleutians
and has generated a tsunami that is predicted to hit Hawaii.
What action is necessary for the ship's safety?
A: Calculate the tsunami's ETA at your position and turn to a
course that will head into the Tsunami.
B: Securely stow all loose gear, check deck lashings, and
prepare for extreme rolls.
C: No special action as tsunamis are inconspicuous in the open
ocean
D: Prepare for sudden, high-velocity wind gusts from rapidly
1540: You are sailing south on the Intracoastal Waterway (ICW)
when you sight a green can buoy with a yellow square painted
on it. Which of the following is TRUE?
A: You should pass the buoy close aboard on either side.
B: The buoy marks the end of the ICW in that area.
C: You should leave the buoy to port.
D: The yellow square is retroreflective material used to
1541: You are preparing a weather report form, WS Form B-80. Your
position is LAT 49ø35' N, LONG 162ø49' E. How would this be
encoded?
A: 99496, 11628
B: 94935, 96249
C: L4935, 16249
D: L496N, 1628E
1542: To find a magnetic course from a true course you must apply
___________.
A: magnetic anomalies (local disturbances)
B: deviation
C: variation
D: deviation and variation
1543: The distance between the surface of the water and the tidal
datum is the _____________________.
A: height of tide
B: charted depth
C: actual water depth
D: range of tide
1544: The height of a tide can be increased by ________.
A: a storm surge
B: a high pressure area
C: the jet stream
D: a cold front
1545: The change in the length of day becomes greater as latitude
increases because of the _______________________________.
A: inclination of the diurnal circle to the equator
B: decreasing distance between the terrestrial meridians
C: increased obliquity of the celestial sphere
D: changing distance between the earth and the sun
1546: You are sailing south on the Intracoastal Waterway (ICW)
when you sight a red nun buoy with a yellow triangle painted
on it. Which statement is TRUE?
A: Geometric symbols such as squares and triangles replace
letters and numbers on ICW aids to navigation.
B: The ICW and another waterway coincide in this geographical
area.
C: The yellow triangle identifies a sharp turn (over 60ø) in
the channel.
D: This is an information or regulatory buoy that also has
1547: Which light combination does NOT indicate a navigational
channel passing under a fixed bridge?
A: Red lights on the LDB and green lights on the RDB
B: Three white lights in a vertical line
C: Two green lights in a range under the span
D: A fixed red light on each pier at the channel edge
Error reading USCG question 1548
weather charts. The symbol indicated at letter "K"
represents a _______________.
A: hurricane
B: thunderstorm
C: convergence zone
D: convergence line
1550: Cirrus clouds are indicated by which number?
1551: In order to get the maximum benefit from the Gulf Stream, on
a voyage between Houston and Philadelphia, you should
navigate ____________.
A: about 75 miles east of Ormond Beach, FL
B: close inshore between Jupiter Inlet and Fowey Rocks, FL
C: along the 50-fathom curve while off the east coast of
Florida
D: about 10 miles east of Cape Canaveral, FL
1552: Which sextant in illustration D043NG reads 30ø42.5'?
1553: Your DR position is LAT 20ø N, LONG 50ø W. From this
position you take an RDF bearing on a vessel in LAT 25ø N,
LONG 45ø W. The RDF bearing is 041.8ø. The rhumb line
bearing of the vessel is __________.
A: 41.8ø T
B: 42.9ø T
C: 44.0ø T
D: 44.8ø T
1555: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, a yellow buoy is a
________.
A: safe water buoy
B: junction buoy
C: cardinal mark
D: special purpose mark
1556: The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of
the water is the _________.
A: range of tide
B: charted depth
C: height of tide
D: actual water depth
1557: A doppler log in the volume reverberation mode indicates
__________.
A: speed being made good
B: speed through the water
C: the set of the current
D: the depth of the water
1559: You are underway in the North Sea on course 216ø T when you
sight a buoy bearing 021ø relative. Under the IALA Buoyage
System, you are in the best navigable water if the buoy
__________________________.
A: has a light characteristic of Q(6) + L Fl 15s
B: is horizontally banded yellow, black, yellow
C: has a double cone topmark with both points up
D: has a continuous very quick light
1560: Under the IALA-A and B Buoyage Systems, a buoy with
alternating red and white vertical stripes indicates
____________________.
A: that there is navigable water all around
B: an isolated danger exists
C: that the preferred channel is to port
D: that the preferred channel is to starboard
1561: You are sailing south on the Intracoastal Waterway (ICW)
when you sight a red nun buoy with a yellow square painted
on it. Which statement is TRUE?
A: The buoy is off station and should be ignored as a
navigational mark.
B: The waterway in that area has shoaled and the available
depth of water is less than the project depth.
C: ICW traffic should not proceed beyond the buoy unless the
crossing waterway is clear of all traffic.
D: You should leave the buoy to port.
1563: Neap tides occur only ____________________.
A: at a new or full Moon
B: when the Sun, Moon, and Earth are in line
C: at approximately 28-day intervals
D: when the Moon is at quadrature
1564: What is a characteristic of cardinal marks?
A: Light rhythms indicating directional orientation
B: Vertical stripes
C: Square or triangular topmarks
D: Number-letter combinations for identification
1565: Determine the approximate geographic visibility of an
object, with a height above the water of 85 feet (25.9
meters), for an observer with a height of eye of 60 feet
(18.3 meters).
A: 18.4 nm
B: 19.9 nm
C: 20.8 nm
D: 21.5 nm
1566: The illustration shows the symbols used on radiofacsimile
weather charts. Which of these symbols indicates
thunderstorms?
1567: Buoys and day beacons exhibiting a yellow triangle or square
painted on them are used _______________.
A: in minor harbors where the controlling depth is 10 feet
(3 meters) or less
B: on isolated stretches of the ICW to mark undredged areas
C: where the ICW and other waterways coincide
D: at particularly hazardous turns of the channel
1568: You are approaching a vertical lift bridge. You know the
span is fully open when _______________.
A: three white lights in a vertical line are lit
B: a red light starts to flash at about 60 times a minute
C: a yellow light is illuminated on the bridge pier
D: there is a range of green lights under the lift span
1569: Three or four feet of the total height of a storm surge
in a hurricane can be attributed to __________________.
A: an increase in temperature
B: an increase in the wave period
C: the wind velocity
D: the decrease in atmospheric pressure
1570: The navigational triangle uses parts of two systems of
coordinates, one of which is the horizon system and the
other is the ____________.
A: terrestrial system
B: astronautical system
C: celestial equator system
D: ecliptic system
1571: Which sextant in illustration D043NG reads 29ø42.7'?
1573: Which statement about satellite navigation is TRUE?
A: While a fix can be generated by signals received from two
satellites, three satellites are necessary for reliable
accuracy.
B: The satellites are in equatorial orbits around the earth
about 60ø of longitude apart.
C: The satellite navigation system determines a fix by
measuring the doppler shift of the radio signals from the
satellite.
D: The ship's receiver cannot begin processing data until the
1574: Information about currents around Pacific Coast ports of
the U.S. is found in the ______.
A: Nautical Almanac
B: Tide Tables
C: Tidal Current Tables
D: Ocean Current Tables
1575: Which statement is TRUE concerning "night effect" and the
reception of radio signals?
A: "Night effect" is most prevalent late at night.
B: During "night effect", polarization is at a minimum.
C: "Night effect" is caused by rapid changes in the ionosphere.
D: "Night effect" is caused by all of the polarized
1576: You are entering an east coast port and see a buoy with a
yellow triangle painted on it. This indicates _____.
A: you are in the vicinity of the ICW
B: the buoy is a special mark
C: the buoy is off station
D: the buoy designates a sharp turn in the channel
1577: Yesterday your chronometer read 11h 59m 59s at 1200 GMT
time tick. Today the chronometer reads 00h 00m 01s at the
1200 GMT tick. What is the chronometer rate?
A: -1s
B: +1s
C: -2s
D: +2s
1578: The LMT of sunrise on the standard meridian is 0552. Your
longitude is 99ø15' E. What is your ZT of sunrise?
A: 0512
B: 0529
C: 0552
D: 0615
1579: You get underway from the oil terminal at Marcus Hook, PA,
at 0815 ZT (ZD +5) on 20 February 1983, enroute to sea. You
will be turning for 11 knots. What is the approximate
current when you are abreast Reedy Island?
A: Slack
B: 2.0 knots ebbing
C: 1.5 knots flooding
D: 0.5 knot flooding
1581: Shown are the symbols used on radiofacsimile weather charts.
The symbol indicated at letter "I" represents
_____________.
A: rain showers
B: thunderstorms
C: snow storms
D: sand storms
1582: Sextant C in illustration D043NG reads _____________.
A: 30ø45.9'
B: 29ø56.0'
C: 29ø52.0'
D: 29ø47.5'
1583: The angle measured at the observer's meridian from the
elevated pole, clockwise or counterclockwise up to 180ø, to
the vertical circle of the body is the _______________.
A: local hour angle
B: azimuth angle
C: meridian angle
D: longitude
1585: The sidereal day begins when the _________________.
A: first point of Aries is over the upper branch of the
reference meridian
B: Sun is over the lower branch of the reference meridian
C: Sun is over the upper branch of the reference meridian
D: first point of Aries is over the lower branch of the
1586: A green buoy has a yellow triangle on it. This is a(n)
______________.
A: information or regulatory buoy that has lateral significance
B: buoy that is off-station and is marked to warn mariners of
its wrong position
C: dual purpose marking used where the ICW and other waterways
coincide
D: buoy that was set in error and will be replaced with a red
1587: In general, the most effective period for observing stars
and planets occurs during the darker limit of
____________________.
A: sunset
B: civil twilight
C: nautical twilight
D: astronomical twilight
1588: The letter D in illustration D006NG represents the _____.
A: geometrical horizon
B: geoidal horizon
C: celestial horizon
D: visible horizon
1589: You are enroute to Savannah, GA, from Recife, Brazil. There
is a strong N'ly wind blowing. As you cross the axis of the
Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter _________.
A: smoother seas and warmer water
B: steeper waves, closer together
C: long swells
D: cirrus clouds
1590: Civil twilight starts at 1812 zone time on 26 August 1981,
Your DR position at that time is LAT 21ø06' S, LONG 14ø56'
W. Which statement concerning the planets available for
evening sights is TRUE?
A: Mars will be near the prime vertical in the eastern sky.
B: Venus may be identified from Saturn and Jupiter because it
is the brightest.
C: Sights of Venus, Jupiter, and Saturn will yield a good three
line fix.
D: A sight of either Jupiter, Saturn, or Venus will give a
1591: The time interval between successive wave crests is called
the _______________.
A: trough
B: period
C: frequency
D: epoch
1592: A white buoy marked with an orange rectangle indicates ____.
A: an anchorage
B: a fish net area
C: midchannel
D: general information
1593: Apparent altitude is sextant altitude corrected for _____.
A: parallax and personal error
B: inaccuracies in the reading and reference level
C: visibility and magnitude
D: All of the above are correct
Error reading USCG question 1594
weather charts. The symbol indicated at letter "P"
represents _________.
A: snow
B: hail
C: freezing rain
D: sleet
1595: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of
8 miles and is 48 feet(14.6 meters) high. If the visibility
is 6 miles and your height of eye is 35 feet(10.7 meters),
at what approximate distance will you sight the light?
A: 15.0 nm
B: 12.4 nm
C: 8.0 nm
D: 5.9 nm
1596: You are sailing south on the Intracoastal Waterway (ICW)
when you sight a red nun buoy with a yellow square painted
on it. Which of the following is TRUE?
A: You should leave the buoy on your port hand.
B: This buoy marks the end of the ICW in that geographic area.
C: The yellow is retroreflective material used to assist in
sighting the buoy at night.
D: The yellow square is in error and it should be a yellow
1597: The dense black cumulonimbus clouds surrounding the eye of a
hurricane are called _______________.
A: spiral rainbands
B: cloud walls
C: funnel clouds
D: cyclonic spirals
1599: The time interval between successive wave crests is called
the __________.
A: trough
B: period
C: frequency
D: epoch
1600: Zenith distance is equal to _____.
A: 90ø - Ho
B: 90ø - d
C: Hoø + d
D: 90ø - z
1601: Sextant B in illustration D043NG reads ___________.
A: 30ø51.0'
B: 30ø42.5'
C: 30ø47.5'
D: 31ø00.0'
1602: Most modern Loran-C receivers automatically detect secondary
station blink which _________________.
A: indicates the station is transmitting normally
B: automatically shuts down the receiver
C: triggers alarm indicators to warn the operator
D: causes the receiver to shift automatically to another Loran
1603: A position that is obtained by using two or more
intersecting lines of position, taken at nearly the same
time, is a(n) _____________.
A: estimated position
B: fix
C: running fix
D: dead-reckoning position
Error reading USCG question 1604
weather charts. Which of these symbols indicates freezing
rain?
1605: What is NOT a unit of a satellite navigation set aboard
ship?
A: Transmitter to trigger the satellite to broadcast
B: Data processor to process signals from satellite
C: Video display or printer to show generated data
D: Antenna to receive satellite signals
1606: Aids to navigation marking the intracoastal waterway can be
identified by _________________.
A: the letters ICW after the aid's number or letter
B: yellow stripes, squares, or triangles marked on them
C: white retroreflective material
D: the light characteristic and color for lighted aids
1608: When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the
following should be considered?
A: If the light is flashing the buoy should be considered to be
in the charted location.
B: The buoy may not be in the charted position.
C: The buoy should be considered to be in the charted position
if it has been freshly painted.
D: The buoy should be considered to always be in the charted
1610: When the navigational channel passes under a fixed bridge,
the edges of the channel are marked on the bridge with what
lights?
A: Red lights
B: Three white lights in a vertical line
C: Red lights on the LDB and green lights on the RDB
D: Yellow lights
1611: What indicates a dual purpose buoy?
A: Red buoy with a horizontal yellow band
B: Red and white vertically-striped buoy with a vertical yellow
stripe
C: Red and white vertically-striped buoy with a red spherical
topmark
D: Green buoy with a yellow square
1612: The strongest winds and heaviest rains in a hurricane are
found in the _____________.
A: outer bands
B: eye
C: cloud walls
D: spiral rainbands
1613: Where would you find information concerning the duration of
slack water?
A: Tide Tables
B: Tidal Current Tables
C: American Practical Navigator
D: Sailing Directions
Error reading USCG question 1615
weather charts. Which symbol indicates snow?
1616: Which picture in illustration D034NG shows a Morse (A)
light?
1617: The inner cloud bands of a hurricane, when viewed from a
distance, form a mass of dense, black cumulonimbus clouds
called the ______________.
A: bar of the storm
B: eye of the storm
C: funnel
D: front
1618: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of
14 miles and is 26 feet high. If the visibility is 4 miles
and your height of eye is 20 feet, at what
approximate distance will you sight the light?
A: 7.5 miles
B: 9.6 miles
C: 11.2 miles
D: 14.0 miles
1619: Sextant A reads ____________.
A: 29ø42.7'
B: 29ø45.7'
C: 29ø51.8'
D: 30ø47.2'
1620: You are at anchor in the anchorage at the entrance to
Delaware Bay. If you weigh anchor at 1445 DST (ZD +4) on
24 July 1983 and proceed northbound enroute to Philadelphia
at a speed of 10 knots, you will have _______________.
A: a flood current the entire trip
B: a flood current from Ship John Shoal Lt. to Philadelphia
C: an ebb current north of New Castle, DE
D: a weak flood between Reedy Island and Edgemoore
1622: The correction to be applied to a Loran-C reading when
matching a skywave to a ground wave may be found _____.
A: on loran charts covering areas where skywaves are used
B: in the Radio Aids to Navigation, PUB 117
C: in the Loran-C Correction Tables
D: Skywaves cannot be matched to ground waves in LORAN-C
1631: Which picture in illustration D034NG shows an occulting
light?
1632: Lighted white and orange buoys must show which color light?
A: Orange
B: Red
C: White
D: Alternating yellow and white
1633: To find a magnetic compass course from a true course
you must apply ___________.
A: deviation and variation
B: deviation
C: variation
D: magnetic anomalies (local disturbances)
1634: A lighted buoy to be left to starboard, when entering a
U.S. port from seaward, shall have a __________.
A: red light
B: white light
C: green light
D: light characteristic of Morse (A)
1639: Sextant D reads _____________.
A: 30ø47.5'
B: 29ø47.5'
C: 29ø42.5'
D: 29ø41.6'
1645: The navigation data broadcast of a navigational satellite
does NOT include information __________________.
A: about variation in the Doppler count
B: to enable the receiver to identify the satellite
C: on time according to the satellite clock
D: on the location of the satellite
1646: Which picture in illustration D034NG shows a flashing light?
1655: Yesterday your chronometer read 11h 59m 59s at the 1200 GMT
time tick. Today the chronometer reads 11h 59m 57s at the
1200 time tick. What is the chronometer rate?
A: +2s
B: -2s
C: -3s
D: +3s
1670: At extended distances from a pair of loran stations, _____.
A: skywaves should not be used with LORAN-C
B: a skywave may be used only when matched to another skywave
C: a skywave may be matched to a ground wave
D: a skywave may be matched to a ground wave providing the
1671: Cirrus clouds are composed primarily of ______________.
A: ice crystals
B: water droplets
C: snow crystals
D: nitrogen
1672: Data relating to the direction and velocity of rotary
tidal currents can be found in the __________.
A: Mariner's Guide
B: Tidal Current Tables
C: Nautical Almanac
D: Tide Tables
1673: Information about currents on the Pacific Coast of the U. S.
is found in the _____.
A: Nautical Almanac
B: Tidal Current Tables
C: Ocean Current Tables
D: Tide Tables
1674: The letter D in illustration D006NG represents the _____.
A: visible horizon
B: geometrical horizon
C: celestial horizon
D: geoidal horizon
1675: You are entering port and have been instructed to anchor, as
your berth is not yet available. You are on a SW'ly
heading, preparing to drop anchor, when you observe the
range lights depicted in illustration D047NG on your
starboard beam. You should _____________.
A: NOT drop the anchor until the lights are in line
B: ensure your ship will NOT block the channel or obstruct the
range while at anchor
C: drop the anchor immediately as the range lights mark an area
free of obstructions
D: drop the anchor immediately as a change in the position of
1676: Lighted information markers show _________.
A: green lights
B: white lights
C: yellow lights
D: red lights
1677: The position labeled "E" was plotted because ______________.
A: a dead reckoning position is plotted withhin a half-hour
of each course change
B: a dead reckoning position is plotted for each speed change
C: the position is a running fix 1125
D: the vessel's position was fixed at 1145
1678: Which information is NOT provided in broadcasts by the
National Institute of Standards and Technology?
A: Storm warnings
B: Time announcements
C: Omega status information
D: NAVAREA warnings
1750: Clearance gauges at bridges indicate ____________.
A: the height of the tide
B: depth of water under the bridge
C: charted vertical clearance at mean low water
D: distance from the water to low steel of the bridge
1752: What is the major limitation in using the Sight Reduction
Tables for Air Navigation Volume I (Pub. No. 249) for
star sights?
A: More accuracy is needed for celestial observations on board
ship than what is tabulated.
B: Sights must be made at even time increments to benefit
from the tables.
C: Only certain stars are included and sights must be limited
to those stars.
D: Only first magnitude stars are tabulated.
1754: The dumping of refuse in a lock is permitted ____________.
A: when approved by the lockmaster
B: when locking downbound
C: at no time
D: during high water only
1757: Where would you obtain data on currents for areas of the
world not covered by the U.S. National Ocean Service?
A: In the Coast Pilot
B: In the Nautical Almanac
C: In the List of Lights
D: In the Sailing Directions
1759: Which magnetic compass corrector(s) can be set while the
vessel is on a heading of magnetic north or magnetic south?
A: Quadrantal spheres
B: Heeling magnets
C: Flinders bar
D: Fore-and-aft magnets
1760: A doppler log in the bottom return mode indicates the
_____________.
A: velocity of the current
B: bottom characteristics
C: depth of the water
D: speed over the ground
1761: Chart legends which indicate a conspicuous landmark are
printed in _____.
A: italics
B: underlined letters
C: capital letters
D: boldfaced print
1762: In high latitudes, celestial observations can be made over
a horizon covered with pack ice by bringing the sun
tangent to the ice and _____________.
A: adding 30ø of arc to the sight
B: using a dip correction based on the height of eye above the
ice
C: doubling the semidiameter correction
D: using a dip correction from table 22 in Bowditch Vol. II
1766: You are approaching a lock and see a flashing amber light
located on the lock wall. You should _____________.
A: stand clear of the lock entrance
B: approach the lock under full control
C: enter the lock as quickly as possible
D: hang off your tow on the lock wall
1768: A flashing red light displayed at a single lock means that
the lock __________.
A: is ready to use but vessels must stand clear
B: is ready to use and vessels may approach
C: cannot be made ready immediately and vessels shall stand
clear
D: cannot be made ready immediately but vessels may approach
1769: Under the numbering system used by NIMA, a three digit
number may be used for _____.
A: a small scale chart depicting a major portion of an ocean
basin or a position plotting sheet
B: non-navigational materials such as radar plotting sheets
C: products issued periodically such as the Notice to Mariners
D: large scale charts of areas that are infrequently used for
1770: A doppler speed log indicates speed over ground ___________.
A: at all times
B: in the bottom return mode
C: in the volume reverberation mode
D: only when there is no current
1771: Which type of precipitation is a product of the violent
convection found in thunderstorms?
A: Snow
B: Freezing Rain
C: Hail
D: Sleet
1772: The GP of a body for a high altitude sight is determined
from the declination and the ____________.
A: Greenwich hour angle
B: azimuth
C: zenith distance
D: right ascension
1774: Restricted areas at locks and dams are indicated by
____________.
A: flashing red lights upstream and fixed red lights downstream
B: yellow unlighted buoys
C: signs and/or flashing red lights
D: red daymarks upstream and green daymarks downstream
1775: The letter A in illustration D006NG represents the ________.
A: celestial horizon
B: geoidal horizon
C: sensible horizon
D: visible horizon
Error reading USCG question 1778
wickets are down and there are open weirs due to high water,
what light(s) will be shown at A if the lock walls and piers
are not awash?
A: One red light
B: Two red lights
C: Three red lights
D: One green light
1779: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of
14 miles and is 26 feet high. If the visibility is 14 miles
and your height of eye is 20 feet, at which approximate
distance will you sight the light?
A: 7.5 miles
B: 11.2 miles
C: 14.0 miles
D: 18.1 miles
1782: You are on course 027ø T and take a relative bearing to a
lighthouse of 220ø. What is the true bearing to the
lighthouse?
A: 113ø
B: 193ø
C: 247ø
D: 279ø
1784: If your vessel were proceeding down river (descending), a
green square marker with a green reflector border on the
right bank would be a _____________.
A: mile board
B: dredging mark
C: passing daymark
D: crossing daymark
1786: You are downbound approaching a lock and see 3 green lights
in a vertical line. This indicates ____________.
A: that the lock chamber is open and ready to receive your tow
B: that you should hold up until the signal changes to 2 green
lights
C: the upstream end of the river wall
D: the upstream end of the land wall
Error reading USCG question 1789
What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the
position indicated by the letter F in the illustration?
A: One red light
B: Two green lights
C: Three green lights
D: No light(s)
1790: A doppler speed log indicates speed through the water
_____.
A: at all times
B: in the bottom return mode
C: in the volume reverberation mode
D: only when there is no current
1794: Why are low altitude sun sights not generally used?
A: Errors due to unusual refraction may exist.
B: Sextants may have large errors at small angles of elevation.
C: Modern sight reduction tables are not complete for low
altitudes below 5ø.
D: The glare on the horizon causes irradiation errors.
1799: The letter D in illustration D006NG represents the _______.
A: celestial horizon
B: visible horizon
C: geometrical horizon
D: geoidal horizon
1800: In order to insure that a RACON signal is displayed on the
radar, you should __________.
A: increase the brilliance of the PPI scope
B: turn off the interference controls on the radar
C: use the maximum available range setting
D: increase the radar signal output
1802: What is the major advantage of high altitude observations?
A: Errors due to unusual parallax are eliminated.
B: The same body can be used for a fix from observations
separated by several minutes.
C: The declination is the only information needed from the
almanac.
D: The semidiameter correction of the sextant altitude is
1803: The difference between the DR position and a fix, both of
which have the same time, is known as ___________.
A: the estimated position
B: set
C: current
D: leeway
1804: Magnetic information on a chart may be _____________.
A: found in the center(s) of the compass rose(s)
B: indicated by isogonic lines
C: found in a note on the chart
D: All of the above
1806: Sometimes foreign charts are reproduced by DMA. On such a
chart a wire dragged (swept) area may be shown in purple or
_______________.
A: green
B: red
C: magenta
D: yellow
1808: A white buoy with an open-faced orange diamond on it
indicates _______________.
A: danger
B: vessels are excluded from the area
C: the buoy is a mooring buoy
D: operating restrictions are in effect
1809: What occurs when rising air cools to the dew point?
A: Advection fog forms
B: Humidity decreases
C: Winds increase
D: Clouds form
1810: Where will you find information about the duration of slack
water?
A: Tide Tables
B: Sailing Directions
C: Tidal Current Tables
D: American Practical Navigator
1811: To find a magnetic compass course from a true course
you must apply ___________.
A: deviation
B: deviation and variation
C: variation
D: magnetic anomalies (local disturbances)
1812: The line of position should be plotted as a circle around
the GP of the body when the Ho exceeds what minimum value?
A: 80ø
B: 83ø
C: 85ø
D: 87ø
1816: A white buoy with an orange circle marked on it indicates
___________.
A: danger
B: vessels are excluded from the area
C: a mooring buoy
D: operating restrictions are in effect
1818: In order to utilize the capacity of a lock to its maximum,
pleasure craft are locked through with all of the following
EXCEPT __________.
A: coal barges
B: oil barges
C: sand barges
D: cement barges
1820: Information on the operating times and characteristics of
foreign radiobeacons can be found in which publication?
A: List of Lights
B: Coast Pilot
C: Sailing Directions
D: List of Radiobeacons
1822: What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the
port bow?
A: 315ø
B: 330ø
C: 345ø
D: 360ø
Error reading USCG question 1824
What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the
position indicated by the letter C in the illustration?
A: One red light
B: Two green lights
C: Three green lights
D: No light
Error reading USCG question 1826
What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the
position indicated by the letter D in the illustration?
A: One red light
B: Two green lights
C: Three green lights
D: No light
1827: The position labeled "D" was plotted because _____________.
A: a dead reckoning position is plotted within 30 minutes of
arunning fix
B: a dead reckoning position is plotted for each course change
C: the vessel's speed changed at 1125
D: All of the above
1828: When entering from seaward, a buoy displaying
a single-flashing red light indicates ____________.
A: a junction with the preferred channel to the left
B: a wreck to be left on the vessel's port side
C: a sharp turn in the channel to the right
D: the starboard side of the channel
Error reading USCG question 1829
What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the position
indicated by the letter E in the illustration?
A: One red light
B: Two green lights
C: Three green lights
D: No light
1830: A vessel heading NNW is on a course of ____________.
A: 274.5ø
B: 292.0ø
C: 315.5ø
D: 337.5ø
1831: IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from
seaward, the port side of a channel would be marked by a
__________.
A: red conical buoy
B: black can buoy
C: red can buoy
D: black conical buoy
1832: Which magnetic compass corrector(s) can be set while the
vessel is on a heading of magnetic northeast or magnetic
southeast?
A: Flinders bar
B: Heeling magnets
C: Fore-and-aft magnets
D: Quadrantal spheres
1836: At evening stars, the first stars that should be observed
are those with an azimuth in what quadrant?
A: Southern
B: Western
C: Northern
D: Eastern
1838: The Light List shows a lighted aid to navigation on the left
bank. This means that the light can be seen on the
starboard side of a vessel _____________.
A: ascending the river
B: descending the river
C: crossing the river
D: proceeding towards sea
1840: A vessel heading NW is on a course of ___________.
A: 274.5ø
B: 292.5ø
C: 315.0ø
D: 337.5ø
1841: The letter A in illustration D006NG represents the _______.
A: sensible horizon
B: geoidal horizon
C: visible horizon
D: celestial horizon
1842: What is the major problem with taking high altitude
observations?
A: Possible errors due to unusual refraction may exist.
B: The tables are not as accurate due to inherent errors in the
spherical triangle at high altitudes.
C: Rapidly changing altitudes make it difficult to get an
accurate altitude.
D: It is difficult to establish the point where the sextant is
1844: What is the relative bearing of an object sighted dead
ahead?
A: 180ø
B: 090ø
C: 015ø
D: 000ø
1848: The buoy symbol printed on your chart is leaning to the
northeast. This indicates _____________.
A: you should stay to the north or east of the buoy
B: you should stay to the west or south of the buoy
C: the buoy is a major lighted buoy
D: nothing special for navigational purposes
1850: A vessel heading WNW is on a course of _____________.
A: 270.0ø
B: 292.5ø
C: 315.0ø
D: 337.5ø
1852: When plotting a circle of equal altitude for a high
altitude sight, the radius of the circle is determined
by the formula ___________.
A: 90ø - Ho
B: 180ø - GHA
C: GHA - LHA
D: z - d
1858: A white buoy with an orange cross within a diamond marked on
it indicates _________________.
A: danger
B: vessels are excluded from the area
C: an anchorage area
D: operating restrictions are in effect
1859: While proceeding downriver (descending) you sight a red
diamond-shaped panel with small, red reflector squares in
each corner on the left bank. Under the U.S. Aids to
Navigation System on the Western Rivers this is a
______.
A: special purpose signal
B: passing daymark
C: crossing daymark
D: cable crossing
1860: A vessel heading WSW is on a course of ____________.
A: 202.5ø
B: 225.0ø
C: 247.5ø
D: 271.0ø
1862: What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the
starboard quarter?
A: 090ø
B: 105ø
C: 135ø
D: 150ø
1866: What term is used to describe a tank barge constructed with
the structural framing inside the cargo tank and the side
shell plating containing the cargo?
A: Single skin
B: Shell plated
C: Hopper type
D: Independent tank
Error reading USCG question 1868
What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the
position indicated by the letter A in the illustration?
A: One red light
B: Two red lights
C: Two green lights
D: Three green lights
Error reading USCG question 1869
What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the
position indicated by the letter B in the illustration?
A: One red light
B: Two green lights
C: Three green lights
D: No light
1870: A vessel heading SW is on a course of _____________.
A: 202.5ø
B: 225.0ø
C: 247.5ø
D: 270.0ø
1871: A lighted buoy to be left to starboard, when entering a
U.S. port from seaward, shall have a __________.
A: green light
B: white light
C: red light
D: light characteristic of Morse (A)
1872: To find a magnetic compass course from a true course
you must apply ___________.
A: deviation
B: variation
C: deviation and variation
D: magnetic anomalies (local disturbances)
1873: Lighted information markers show _________.
A: green lights
B: red lights
C: yellow lights
D: white lights
1874: Lighted white and orange buoys must show which color light?
A: Orange
B: Red
C: Alternating yellow and white
D: White
1875: The position labeled "E" was plotted because ____________.
A: a dead reckoning position is plotted within a half-hour
of each course change
B: the position is a running fix
C: a dead reckoning position is plotted for each speed change
D: the vessel's position was fixed at 1145
1879: A chart projection depicting the poles and a small area on
either side of a connecting meridian, that is sometimes
used for star charts, is the _______________.
A: azimuthal gnomonic projection
B: Lambert conformal projection
C: transverse Mercator projection
D: polyconic projection
1880: A vessel heading SSW is on a course of ____________.
A: 202.5ø
B: 225.0ø
C: 247.5ø
D: 270.0ø
1882: The GP of a body for a high altitude sight is determined
from the Greenwich hour angle and the ___________.
A: circle of equal altitude
B: zenith distance
C: azimuth angle
D: declination
1883: Pressure gradient is a measure of _____________.
A: a high-pressure area
B: pressure difference over horizontal distance
C: pressure difference over time
D: vertical pressure variation
1884: If a sound signal is emitted from the oscillator of a
fathometer, and two seconds elapse before the returning
signal is picked up, what depth of water is indicated?
A: 1648 fathoms
B: 1248 fathoms
C: 1048 fathoms
D: 824 fathoms
1885: Under the Uniform State Waterway Marking System a mooring
buoy is painted _______________.
A: white with a blue band
B: yellow
C: any color that does not conflict with the lateral system
D: white with a green top
1886: What is the relative bearing of an object dead astern?
A: 000ø
B: 090ø
C: 180ø
D: 270ø
1887: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of
10 miles and is 11 feet high. If the visibility is 15 miles
and your height of eye is 20 feet, at what approximate
distance will you sight the light?
A: 12.0 miles
B: 11.0 miles
C: 10.0 miles
D: 9.0 miles
1888: What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the
starboard bow?
A: 030ø
B: 045ø
C: 060ø
D: 075ø
1890: A vessel heading SSE is on a course of __________.
A: 112.5ø
B: 135.0ø
C: 157.5ø
D: 180.0ø
1892: The shoreline shown on nautical charts of areas affected by
large tidal fluctuations is usually the line of mean ______.
A: lower low water
B: low water
C: tide level
D: high water
1898: The subregions of the United States Gulf and East Coasts are
numbered 11, 12 and 13 within the chart numbering system.
Which chart number indicates a chart for either the Gulf or
East coast?
A: 14312
B: 25134
C: 21105
D: 11032
1899: What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the
starboard beam?
A: 045ø
B: 060ø
C: 075ø
D: 090ø
1900: A parallax correction is NOT applied to observations of the
________.
A: stars
B: Moon
C: Sun
D: Planets
1902: Under the numbering system used by DMA, a four digit number
is used for _____.
A: large scale charts of infrequently navigated areas such as
the polar regions
B: charts of rivers or canal systems such as the Ohio River or
Erie Canal
C: non-navigational materials, such as a chart correction
template or maneuvering board
D: foreign charts reproduced by DMA
1904: In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to
the parallels of declination of the celestial equator
system?
A: Vertical circles
B: Parallels of altitude
C: Zenith distance
D: Azimuth angle
1905: In order to insure that the racon signal is visible on your
3 cm radar, the _____.
A: 10 cm radar should be placed on standby or turned off
B: gain control should be turned to maximum
C: radar should be stabilized, head up
D: rain clutter control should be off but, if necessary, may be
1906: In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to
latitude on the Earth?
A: Altitude
B: Zenith
C: Declination
D: Zenith distance
1907: Information about direction and velocity of rotary tidal
currents is found in the _____.
A: Tide Tables
B: Nautical Almanac
C: Tidal Current Tables
D: Mariner's Guide
1908: What is the brightest navigational planet?
A: Saturn
B: Jupiter
C: Mars
D: Venus
1909: In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to
the equator on the Earth?
A: Prime vertical circle
B: Principal vertical circle
C: Parallels of altitude
D: Horizon
1910: What sextant correction corrects the apparent altitude to
the equivalent reading at the center of the Earth?
A: Phase
B: Parallax
C: Semidiameter
D: Augmentation
1914: In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to
longitude on the Earth?
A: Altitude
B: Azimuth angle
C: Horizon
D: Zenith distance
1916: The prime vertical is the reference point from which the
angle of which type of observation is measured?
A: Sextant angle
B: Azimuth
C: Amplitude
D: Local apparent noon
1918: The Moon appears larger in diameter at the zenith than when
near the horizon. What is this called?
A: Parallax in altitude
B: Augmentation
C: Horizontal parallax
D: Libration
1919: The nadir is the point on the celestial sphere that is
_____.
A: 90ø away from the zenith
B: over Greenwich
C: on the western horizon
D: directly below the observer
1920: Because the actual center of some planets may differ from
the observed center, the navigator applies a correction
known as the ______________.
A: phase correction
B: refraction correction
C: semidiameter correction
D: augmentation correction
1922: In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy showing a quick
white light with 9 flashes every 15 seconds. Which of the
four topmarks shown in illustration D030NG would be fitted
to the buoy?
1923: Little or no change in the barometric reading over a twelve
hour period indicates _______________.
A: stormy weather is imminent
B: that present weather conditions will continue
C: a defect in the barometer
D: increasing wind strength
1924: The point on the celestial sphere that is directly below
an observer is the _____.
A: pole
B: nadir
C: node
D: zenith
1925: Above-normal tides near the center of a hurricane may
be caused by the _______________.
A: high barometric pressure
B: jet stream
C: storm surge
D: torrential rains
1926: The prime vertical is the great circle on the celestial
sphere that passes through the _____.
A: celestial poles and the zenith
B: zenith, nadir and the east point of the horizon
C: celestial poles and the celestial body
D: zenith, nadir and celestial body
1928: "Rotation" is the _______________.
A: wobbling of the Earth about its axis
B: motion of bodies in the solar system relative to the stars
C: motion of a celestial body in its orbit
D: spinning of a celestial body about its axis
1930: The phase correction should be applied to sights of Venus
and Mars ___________________.
A: during day time observations only
B: during twilight observations only
C: at all times
D: when observed at altitudes of less than 25ø
1932: The zenith is the point on the celestial sphere that is
_____.
A: 90ø away from the poles
B: directly over the observer
C: on the eastern horizon
D: over Greenwich
1934: The great circle of the celestial sphere that passes through
the zenith, nadir, and the eastern point of the horizon is
the ______.
A: principal vertical
B: hour circle
C: celestial meridian
D: prime vertical
1936: The parallel of latitude at 66²33' N is the ___________.
A: Tropic of Cancer
B: Tropic of Capricorn
C: Arctic Circle
D: ecliptic
1938: The azimuth angle of an amplitude is measured from the
_____.
A: Greenwich meridian
B: hour circle
C: celestial meridian
D: prime vertical
1940: The diameter of the Sun and Moon as seen from the Earth
varies slightly but averages about ___________.
A: 1ø
B: 52ø
C: 32ø
D: 15.5ø
1941: IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from
seaward, the starboard side of a channel would be marked by
a _____________.
A: red can buoy
B: red conical buoy
C: green can buoy
D: green conical buoy
1942: In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to
the declination of the equator system?
A: Nadir
B: Azimuth angle
C: Altitude
D: Zenith distance
1944: In the horizon system of coordinates what is the equivalent
to the celestial equator of the celestial equator system?
A: Horizon
B: Prime vertical circle
C: Prime meridian
D: Principal vertical circle
1946: When making landfall at night, you can determine if a light
is a major light or an offshore buoy by _____________.
A: the intensity of the light
B: checking the period and characteristics against the Light
List
C: the color, because the buoy will have only a red or a green
light
D: Any of the above can be used to identify the light.
1948: "Space motion" is the _____.
A: action causing precession of the equinoxes
B: motion of a body in the solar system relative to the stars
C: motion of a celestial body in its orbit
D: irregularity in the motion of the Earth caused by other
1949: "Revolution" is the ________________.
A: wobbling of the Earth about its axis
B: motion of bodies in the solar system relative to the stars
C: motion of a celestial body in its orbit
D: spinning of a celestial body about its axis
1950: The error in a sextant altitude caused by refraction is
greatest when the celestial body is ______________.
A: high in the sky
B: near the horizon
C: rising
D: at or near transit
1951: Spring tides occur ______________________.
A: when the moon is new or full
B: when the moon and sun have declination of the same name
C: only when the moon and sun are on the same sides of the
earth
D: at the beginning of spring when the sun is over the equator
1952: The Moon is subject to four types of libration. Which of
the following is NOT one of these types of libration?
A: Libration in longitude
B: Geocentric libration
C: Diurnal libration
D: Physical libration
1954: In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to
the poles on the Earth?
A: Celestial poles
B: Zenith, nadir
C: Ecliptic poles
D: Nodes
1955: The letter A in illustration D006NG represents the _______.
A: geoidal horizon
B: sensible horizon
C: celestial horizon
D: visible horizon
1956: In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy showing a quick
white light with 6 flashes, followed by one long flash at 15
second intervals. Which of the four topmarks shown in
illustration D030NG would be fitted to this buoy?
1958: The spinning of a celestial body about its axis is known as
___________.
A: rotation
B: revolution
C: space motion
D: nutation
1960: Astronomical refraction causes a celestial body to
appear __________.
A: to the left of its position in the Northern Hemisphere and
to the right in the Southern Hemisphere
B: to the right of its position in the Northern Hemisphere and
to the left in the Southern Hemisphere
C: higher than its actual position
D: lower than its actual position
1961: What kind of pressure systems travel in tropical waves?
A: Subsurface pressure
B: Terrastatic pressure
C: High pressure
D: Low pressure
1962: When outbound from a U.S. port, a buoy displaying a
flashing red light indicates ____________.
A: the port side of the channel
B: a sharp turn in the channel to the right
C: a junction with the preferred channel to the left
D: a wreck to be left on the vessel's starboard side
1964: The great circle on the celestial sphere that passes through
the zenith and the north and south poles is the _____.
A: hour circle
B: prime vertical
C: principal vertical
D: ecliptic
1968: The Earth has the shape of a(n) _______________.
A: sphere
B: oblate spheroid
C: spheroid of revolution
D: oblate eggoid
1969: The precession of the equinoxes of the Earth is ___________.
A: the gradual increase in the period of rotation caused by
the effects of the Moon
B: the irregularity of the Earth's orbit caused by influences
of the Sun and Moon
C: caused by the elliptical shape of the Earth's orbit
D: similar to a top spinning with its axis tilted
1970: The azimuth angle of a sun sight is always measured from
the __________.
A: Greenwich meridian
B: zenith
C: elevated pole
D: first point of Aries
1972: The point on the celestial sphere that is directly over the
observer is the _____.
A: node
B: pole
C: zenith
D: nadir
1974: Ocean currents are well defined and _____________.
A: create large waves in the direction of the current
B: change direction 360ø during a 24 hour period
C: remain fairly constant in direction and velocity throughout
the year
D: are characterized by a light green color
1976: The Moon is nearest to the Earth at _________________.
A: perigee
B: the vernal equinox
C: the new Moon
D: the full Moon
1978: A celestial body's complete orbit around another body is
_______________.
A: a rotation
B: a revolution
C: space motion
D: nutation
1979: The principal vertical circle is that great circle on the
celestial sphere that passes through the _____.
A: zenith and the celestial body
B: zenith and the north and south poles
C: poles and Greenwich
D: zenith and is parallel to the horizon
1982: In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to
the Greenwich hour angle of the celestial equator system?
A: Zenith distance
B: Coaltitude
C: Altitude
D: Azimuth
1984: When a dual purpose marking is used, the mariner following
the Intracoastal Waterway should be guided by the _________.
A: color of the aid
B: shape of the aid
C: color of the top band
D: shape of the yellow mark
1986: The Moon is farthest from the Earth at _________________.
A: the full Moon
B: apogee
C: the lunar solstice
D: quadrature
1987: An instrument useful in predicting fog is the _____________.
A: sling psychrometer
B: microbarograph
C: anemometer
D: aneroid barometer
1988: The parallel of latitude at 23²27' N is the ____________.
A: Tropic of Cancer
B: Tropic of Capricorn
C: Arctic Circle
D: ecliptic
1989: In the horizon system of coordinates what is the equivalent
to the meridians on the Earth?
A: Horizon
B: Hour circle
C: Vertical circles
D: Celestial meridians
1990: The navigational triangle uses parts of two systems of
coordinates, one of which is the celestial equator system,
the other system is the __________________.
A: terrestrial system
B: horizon system
C: astronomical system
D: ecliptic system
1992: The parallel of latitude at 23²27' S is the ______________.
A: Tropic of Cancer
B: Tropic of Capricorn
C: Arctic Circle
D: ecliptic
1994: Fomalhaut is found in what constellation?
A: Leo
B: Taurus
C: Pisces
D: Canis Major
1996: When approaching a lock entrance, the visual signal
displayed when a single lock is ready for entrance is a
flashing _____________.
A: red light
B: green light
C: amber light
D: white light
1999: The motion of bodies in the solar system relative to
surrounding stars is known as _____.
A: rotation
B: revolution
C: space motion
D: nutation
2000: A vessel heading SE is on a course of ____________.
A: 112.5ø
B: 135.0ø
C: 157.5ø
D: 180.0ø
2001: You have changed course and steadied up on a range. Your
heading is 285ø T, same as the charted range, and it appears
as in illustration D048NG. After several minutes the range
appears as in illustration D047NG and your heading is still
285ø T. This indicates a _______________.
A: southerly current
B: northerly current
C: leeway caused by a NE'Ly wind
D: course made good to the left of the true course
2002: What term is used to describe a river barge designed to
carry coal or any similar cargo not requiring weather
protection?
A: Single skin
B: Double skin
C: Open hopper
D: Deck barge
2004: The velocity of the wind, its steady direction, and the
amount of time it has blown determines a wind driven
current's __________.
A: temperature
B: density
C: deflection
D: speed
2006: What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the
port beam?
A: 315ø
B: 300ø
C: 270ø
D: 235ø
2007: Information about the direction and velocity of rotary tidal
currents is found in the _____.
A: Mariner's Guide
B: Tidal Current Tables
C: Nautical Almanac
D: Tide Tables
2008: What term is used to describe a tank barge constructed with
the structural framing outside the cargo tank and the cargo
tank plating separated from the shell plating?
A: Shell plated
B: Double skin
C: Hopper type
D: Independent tank
2010: A vessel heading ESE is on a course of ____________.
A: 112.5ø
B: 135.0ø
C: 157.5ø
D: 180.0ø
2014: Which stock number indicates a DMAHTC chart designed for
coastwise navigation outside of outlying reefs and shoals?
A: 19BCO19243
B: WOPGN530
C: LCORR5873
D: 14XCO14902
2016: Which statement about the Flinders bar of the magnetic
compass is CORRECT?
A: It compensates for the error caused by the vertical
component of the Earth's magnetic field.
B: It compensates for error caused by the heeling of a vessel.
C: It compensates for quadrantal deviation.
D: It is only needed in equatorial waters.
2018: Which magnetic compass corrector(s) can be set while the
vessel is on a heading of magnetic east or magnetic west?
A: Quadrantal spheres
B: Heeling magnet
C: Flinders bar
D: Athwartships magnets
2019: At evening stars, the last stars that should be observed
are those with an azimuth in what quadrant?
A: Southern
B: Western
C: Northern
D: Eastern
2020: A vessel heading ENE is on a course of ___________.
A: 022.5ø
B: 045.0ø
C: 067.5ø
D: 090.0ø
2021: While on watch, you notice that the air temperature is
dropping and is approaching the dew point. Which type of
weather should be forecasted?
A: Hail
B: Heavy rain
C: Sleet
D: Fog
2022: The GP of a body for a high altitude sight is determined
from the declination and the ____________.
A: right ascension
B: sidereal hour angle
C: Greenwich hour angle
D: observed altitude
2024: In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy with a quick light
showing 3 flashes every 10 seconds. Which topmark in
illustration D030NG would be fitted to this buoy under the
IALA Buoyage Systems?
2028: Which stock number indicates a DMAHTC chart designed for
navigation and anchorage in a small waterway?
A: WOAZC17
B: LCORR5876
C: 15XHA15883
D: PILOT55
2030: A vessel heading NE is on a course of ____________.
A: 022.5ø
B: 045.0ø
C: 067.5ø
D: 090.0ø
2040: A vessel heading NNE is on a course of _____________.
A: 022.5ø
B: 045.0ø
C: 067.5ø
D: 090.0ø
2041: Information on radiobeacons used for marine navigation in
foreign waters will be found in the __________________.
A: List of Lights
B: Radio Navigational Aids
C: Sailing Directions (Enroute)
D: Directory of Radiobeacons, Radio Direction Finders and
2042: At morning stars, the last stars that should be observed are
those with an azimuth in which quadrant?
A: Eastern
B: Southern
C: Western
D: Northern
2043: Stormy weather is usually associated with regions of _____.
A: changing barometric pressure
B: high barometric pressure
C: steady barometric pressure
D: low barometric pressure
2044: What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the
port quarter?
A: 195ø
B: 225ø
C: 240ø
D: 265ø
2048: You are upbound approaching a lock and dam and see two green
lights in a vertical line. This indicates _____________.
A: the downstream end of an intermediate wall
B: that a double lockage is in progress
C: the downstream end of the land wall
D: the navigable pass of a fixed weir dam
2049: At morning stars, the first stars that should be observed
are those with an azimuth in which quadrant?
A: Eastern
B: Southern
C: Western
D: Northern
2050: The point where the vertical rise or fall of tide has
stopped is referred to as ____________.
A: slack water
B: the rip tide
C: the stand of the tide
D: the reverse of the tide
2052: Under the chart numbering system used by DMA, the first
digit of a multi-digit number indicates _____________.
A: the general geographic area
B: the general scale of the chart
C: whether it is a major or minor chart
D: the projection used to construct the chart
2053: When outbound from a U.S. port, a buoy displaying a flashing
red light indicates ____________.
A: a sharp turn in the channel to the right
B: the port side of the channel
C: a junction with the preferred channel to the left
D: a wreck to be left on the vessel's starboard side
2054: The diagram is of a fixed C of E lock and dam. What
navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the position
indicated by the letter B?
A: One red light
B: Two green lights
C: Three green lights
D: No lights
2056: This illustration represents a fixed C of E lock and dam.
What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the
position indicated by the letter C?
A: One red light
B: Two green lights
C: Three green lights
D: No lights
Error reading USCG question 2058
What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the
position indicated by the letter D in the illustration?
A: One red light
B: Two green lights
C: Three green lights
D: No lights
Error reading USCG question 2059
What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the
position indicated by the letter E in the illustration?
A: One red light
B: Two red lights
C: Two green lights
D: Three green lights
2060: What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the
starboard quarter?
A: 045ø
B: 090ø
C: 135ø
D: 225ø
2061: Fog is likely to occur when there is little difference
between the dew point and the _____________.
A: relative humidity
B: air temperature
C: barometric pressure
D: absolute humidity
Error reading USCG question 2062
What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the
position indicated by the letter F in the illustration?
A: One red light
B: Two red lights
C: Two green lights
D: Three green lights
2066: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is
high water and the wickets are down so that there is an
unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s)
will be shown at B if the lock walls and piers are not
awash?
A: One red light
B: Two red lights
C: Three red lights
D: No lights
2067: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of
10 miles and is 11 feet high. If the visibility is 5 miles
and your height of eye is 20 feet, at what
approximate distance will you sight the light?
A: 6.3 miles
B: 7.4 miles
C: 8.4 miles
D: 9.0 miles
2068: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is
high water and the wickets are down so that there is an
unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s)
will be shown at D if the lock walls and piers are not
awash?
A: One red light
B: Two red lights
C: Three red lights
D: One amber light
Error reading USCG question 2069
trap is open what will be displayed at the lock to indicate
this condition?
A: A flashing amber light
B: A white circular disc
C: A red diamond
D: Two amber lights
2070: What is the relative bearing of an object on the port beam?
A: 045ø
B: 090ø
C: 180ø
D: 270ø
Error reading USCG question 2072
trap is open what will be displayed at the lock to indicate
this condition?
A: An amber light under a red light
B: A white square
C: A green triangle
D: A yellow pentagon
2073: Chart legends printed in capital letters show that the
associated landmark is _____.
A: a radio transmitter
B: a government facility or station
C: inconspicuous
D: conspicuous
2074: When approaching a lock and at a distance of not more than
a mile, vessels desiring a single lockage shall sound
which signal?
A: One long blast followed by one short blast
B: One short blast followed by one long blast
C: Two short blasts
D: Two long blasts
2075: Information about major breakdowns, repairs, or other
emergency operations with regard to weirs and (or) wicket
dams, on the western rivers, may be obtained by consulting
the _____________________.
A: Light List Vol. V
B: U.S. Coast Pilot
C: Broadcast Notice to Mariners
D: Sailing Directions
2076: You should plot your dead reckoning position ___________.
A: from every fix or running fix
B: from every estimated position
C: every three minutes in pilotage waters
D: only in pilotage waters
2078: If a towboat requires a double lockage it shall give which
sound signal at a distance of not more than one mile from
the lock?
A: One short blast followed by two long blasts
B: One long blast followed by one short blast
C: Two long blasts followed by one short blast
D: One long blast followed by two short blasts
2079: Permission to enter the riverward chamber of twin locks is
given by the lockmaster and consists of which sound signal?
A: One short blast
B: Two short blasts
C: One long blast
D: Two long blasts
2080: You are on course 030ø T. The relative bearing of a
lighthouse is 45ø. What is the true bearing?
A: 015ø
B: 075ø
C: 255ø
D: 345ø
2081: You are taking bearings on two known objects ashore. The
BEST fix is obtained when the angle between the lines of
position is _____________.
A: 30ø
B: 45ø
C: 60ø
D: 90ø
2082: You are holding position above Gallipolis Lock and Dam when
you hear two long blasts of the horn from the lock. This
indicates that you should ___________.
A: enter the riverward lock
B: hold position until two more upbound tows have locked
through
C: enter the landward lock
D: hold position until the lower gates are closed
2083: Information about major breakdowns, repairs, or other
emergency operations with regard to weirs and (or) wicket
dams, on the western rivers, may be obtained by consulting
the _____________________.
A: U.S. Coast Pilot
B: Broadcast Notice to Mariners
C: Sailing Directions
D: Light List Vol. V
2084: You are approaching Gallipolis Lock and Dam. The traffic
signal light is flashing red. You should ___________.
A: hold your position and not attempt to enter the lock
B: approach the lock slowly under full control
C: proceed at normal speed to enter the lock
D: None of the above
2085: Information about major breakdowns, repairs, or other
emergency operations with regard to weirs and (or) wicket
dams, on the western rivers, may be obtained from the
______.
A: Broadcast Notice to Mariners
B: Light List Vol. V
C: U.S. Coast Pilot
D: Sailing Directions
2086: You are downbound on the Ohio River locking through Greenup.
The chamber has been emptied and the lower gates are open.
You hear one short blast of the whistle from the lock. You
should _________.
A: leave the lock
B: hold up until another tow enters the adjacent lock
C: tie off to the guide wall until the river is clear of
traffic
D: hold in the lock chamber due to a malfunction with the gate
2087: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of
20 miles and is 52 feet (16 meters) high. If the visibility
is 20 miles and your height of eye is 20 feet (6 meters), at
what approximate distance will you sight the light?
A: 33.0 nm
B: 20.0 nm
C: 13.5 nm
D: 8.5 nm
2088: Information about major breakdowns, repairs, or other
emergency operations with regard to weirs and (or) wicket
dams, on the western rivers, may be obtained by consulting
the ___________________.
A: Sailing Directions
B: Light List Vol. V
C: U.S. Coast Pilot
D: Broadcast Notice to Mariners
2089: Permission to leave the riverward chamber of twin locks is
given by the lockmaster and consists of which sound signal?
A: One short blast
B: Two short blasts
C: One long blast
D: Two long blasts
2090: You are underway in an area where the charted depth is 8
fathoms. You compute the height of tide to be -4.0 feet.
The draft of your vessel is 5.0 feet (15.2 meters). You
determine the depth of the water beneath your keel to be
__________.
A: 39 feet (11.9 meters)
B: 43 feet (13.1 meters)
C: 47 feet (14.3 meters)
D: 57 feet (17.4 meters)
2091: The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is
____________.
A: unpredictable
B: generally constant
C: generally too weak to be of concern
D: predicted in Tidal Current Tables
2092: Descending boats, while awaiting their turn to enter a lock,
shall NOT block traffic from the lock. They shall be above
the lock by at LEAST _____________.
A: 100 feet
B: 200 feet
C: 300 feet
D: 400 feet
2093: Information about major breakdowns, repairs, or other
emergency operations with regard to weirs and (or) wicket
dams, on the western rivers, may be obtained from the
______.
A: Light List Vol. V
B: List of Lights
C: Broadcast Notice to Mariners
D: Sailing Directions
2097: Information about major breakdowns, repairs, or other
emergency operations with regard to weirs and (or) wicket
dams, on the western rivers, may be obtained by consulting
the ___________________.
A: Sailing Directions
B: Broadcast Notice to Mariners
C: Light List Vol. V
D: None of the above
2098: Which magnetic compass corrector(s) can be set while the
vessel is on a heading of magnetic east or magnetic west?
A: Quadrantal spheres
B: Heeling magnets
C: Fore-and-aft magnets
D: Athwartships magnets
2099: You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The
range line is 309ø T. You are steering 306ø T. The range
appears as shown in illustration D047NG and is closing.
Which action should you take?
A: Continue on the present heading until the range is in
line, then alter course to the left.
B: Continue on course until the range is closed, then
alter course to the right.
C: Immediately alter course to the right to bring the range
in line.
D: Immediately alter course to 309ø T.
2100: You are underway in a vessel with a draft of 7.0 feet
(2.1 meters). The charted depth for your position is 9
fathoms. You compute the height of tide to be +3.0 feet
(0.9 meters). You determine the depth of the water beneath
your keel to be __________.
A: 32 feet (9.8 meters)
B: 41 feet (12.6 meters)
C: 50 feet (15.3 meters)
D: 64 feet (19.6 meters)
2101: Information about major breakdowns, repairs, or other
emergency operations with regard to weirs and (or) wicket
dams, on the western rivers, may be obtained by consulting
the _____________________.
A: Broadcast Notice to Mariners
B: Light List Vol. V
C: U.S. Coast Pilot
D: All of the above
2102: The subregions of the United States Gulf and East Coasts
are numbered 11, 12, 13 within the chart numbering system.
Which chart number indicates a chart for either the Gulf or
East Coast?
A: 21214
B: 11314
C: 14313
D: 14114
2103: The description "Racon" beside an illustration on a chart
would mean a _____.
A: radar calibration beacon
B: circular radiobeacon
C: radar conspicuous beacon
D: radar transponder beacon
2104: A white buoy marked with an orange rectangle indicates ____.
A: mid-channel
B: a fish net area
C: general information
D: an anchorage
2105: A white buoy with an orange rectangle on it is used to
indicate ________________.
A: danger
B: a controlled area
C: an exclusion area
D: general information
2110: You are underway in a vessel with a draft of 6.0 feet. You
are in an area where the charted depth of the water is 4
fathoms. You would expect the depth of water beneath your
keel to be approximately ________.
A: 12 feet
B: 18 feet
C: 24 feet
D: 30 feet
2111: Vessels regularly navigating Ohio and Mississippi rivers
above Cairo, Illinois, and their tributaries, shall at all
times have on board a copy of ________________.
A: Tide Tables
B: U.S. Coast Pilot
C: U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Navigation Regulations (Blue
Book)
D: Sailing Directions
2112: Vessels regularly navigating rivers above Cairo, Illinois,
shall at all times have on board a copy of ________________.
A: U.S. Coast Pilot
B: U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Regulations (Blue Book)
C: Nautical Almanac for the year
D: Light List Vol. V
2113: Vessels regularly navigating rivers above Cairo, Illinois,
shall at all times have on board a copy of ________________.
A: U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Regulations (Blue Book)
B: Nautical Almanac for the year
C: Sailing Directions
D: Light List Vol. V
2114: Vessels regularly navigating rivers above Cairo, Illinois,
shall at all times have on board a copy of ________________.
A: Sailing Directions
B: Nautical Almanac for the year
C: U.S. Coast Pilot
D: U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Regulations (Blue Book)
Book: 3 Question: 2115 Status: Valid Correct Answer: A
Question: Vessels regularly navigating rivers above Cairo, Illinois,
2116: Vessels regularly navigating rivers above Cairo, Illinois,
shall at all times have on board a copy of the ____________.
A: Nautical Almanac for the year
B: U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Regulations (Blue Book)
C: Sailing Directions
D: All of the above
2119: Which stock number indicates a DMAHTC chart designed for
fixing positions at sea and DR plotting while on a long
voyage?
A: WOAGN520
B: PILOT16
C: 16BCO16212
D: WOPZC5245
2120: If a chart indicates the depth of water to be 6 fathoms and
your draft is 6.0 feet, what is the depth of the water under
your keel? (Assume the actual depth and charted depth to be
the same)
A: 6.0 feet
B: 26.5 feet
C: 30.0 feet
D: 56.5 feet
2121: In plotting a running fix, how many fixed objects are needed
to take your lines of position from?
A: Three
B: Two
C: One
D: None
2122: A position that is obtained by using two or more
intersecting lines of position taken at nearly the same
time, is a(n) ___________.
A: fix
B: running fix
C: estimated position
D: dead-reckoning position
2124: You must draw a plotting sheet covering latitudes 45ø N to
49ø N and longitudes 179ø E to 178ø W. If the distance
between latitude 45ø N to 49ø N is 20 inches, what is the
distance between the meridians of 1ø of longitude?
A: 2.9 inches
B: 3.2 inches
C: 3.4 inches
D: 3.7 inches
2125: On charts of U.S. waters, a magenta marking is NOT used for
marking a ______________.
A: radiobeacon
B: lighted buoy
C: 5-fathom curve
D: prohibited area
2126: Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and
names the rock using vertical letters. This indicates the
_____________.
A: rock is visible at low water springs only
B: rock is a hazard to deep draft vessels only
C: rock is dry at high water
D: exact position of the rock is doubtful
2127: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is
high water and the wickets are down so that there is an
unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s)
will be shown at B if the lock walls and piers are not
awash?
A: No lights
B: One red light
C: Two red lights
D: Three red lights
2128: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is
high water and the wickets are down so that there is an
unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s)
will be shown at B if the lock walls and piers are not
awash?
A: Three red lights
B: Two red lights
C: One red lights
D: No lights
2129: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is
high water and the wickets are down so that there is an
unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s)
will be shown at B if the lock walls and piers are not
awash?
A: No lights
B: Three red lights
C: Two red lights
D: One red light
2130: You are underway and pass by a lighthouse. Its light, which
was white since you first sighted it, changes to red. This
means _______.
A: the light is characterized as alternately flashing
B: the lighthouse has lost power and has switched to emergency
lighting
C: it is the identifying light characteristic of the lighthouse
D: you have entered an area of shoal water or other hazard
2131: The white lights in a vertical line on a multiple-span
bridge indicate _________________.
A: the main channel
B: the draw span is inoperable
C: the river is obstructed under that span
D: scaffolding under the span is reducing the vertical
2132: What is the definition of height of tide?
A: The vertical difference between the heights of low and high
water
B: The vertical difference between a datum plane and the ocean
bottom
C: The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of
the water at any time
D: The vertical distance from the surface of the water to the
2133: From May through September a row of flashing amber (yellow)
lights across the Illinois River at Peoria would indicate
that _____________________.
A: dredging is in progress
B: wicket dams are lowered
C: wicket dams are raised
D: None of the above
2134: The Moon and Sun are in line over your meridian. Tomorrow
when the Sun is over your meridian, the Moon will be _____.
A: over the meridian too
B: about 12ø east of the meridian
C: about 6ø west of the meridian
D: about 11ø west of the meridian
2135: From May through September a row of flashing amber (yellow)
lights across the Illinois River at Peoria would indicate
that _____________________.
A: wicket dams are raised
B: wicket dams are lowered
C: construction is in progress
D: dredging is in progress
2136: From May through September a row of flashing amber (yellow)
lights across the Illinois River at Peoria would indicate
that ______________________.
A: wicket dams are lowered
B: wicket dams are raised
C: dredging is in progress
D: construction is in progress
2137: From May through September a row of flashing amber (yellow)
lights across the Illinois River at Peoria would indicate
that _____________________.
A: construction is in progress
B: dredging is in progress
C: wicket dams are raised
D: wicket dams are lowered
2138: From May through September a row of flashing amber (yellow)
lights across the Illinois River at Peoria would indicate
that _____________________.
A: dredging is in progress
B: wicket dams are lowered
C: construction is in progress
D: wicket dams are raised
2139: From May through September a row of flashing amber (yellow)
lights across the Illinois River at Peoria would indicate
that _____________________.
A: wicket dams are lowered
B: wicket dams are raised
C: construction is in progress
D: None of the above
2140: The visible range marked on charts for lights is the ______.
A: minimum distance at which the light may be seen with
infinite visibility
B: minimum distance at which the light may be seen based on a
12 mile distance to visible horizon
C: maximum distance the light may be seen restricted by the
height of the light and the curvature of the earth
D: maximum distance at which a light may be seen in clear
2141: What lights would you see on the Illinois water way when any
wickets of the dam or bear traps are open, or partially
open, which may cause a set in the current conditions in the
upper lock approach?
A: Red over green
B: Green over red
C: Red over amber (yellow)
D: Green over amber (yellow)
2142: Which lights would you see on the Illinois waterway when any
wickets of the dam or bear traps are open, or partially
open, which may cause a set in the current conditions in the
upper lock approach?
A: Green over amber (yellow)
B: Red over amber (yellow)
C: Red over blue
D: Green over red
2143: What lights would you see on the Illinois water way when any
wickets of the dam or bear traps are open, or partially
open, which may cause a set in the current conditions in the
upper lock approach?
A: Red over amber (yellow)
B: Green over amber (yellow)
C: Red over Green
D: Green over Red
2144: Yesterday your chronometer read 02h 59m 58s at the 1500 GMT
time tick. Today the chronometer reads 03h 00m 02s at the
1500 GMT time tick. What is the chronometer error?
A: 02s fast
B: 03h 00m 02s fast
C: +3s
D: -3s
2145: What lights would you see on the Illinois water way when any
wickets of the dam or bear traps are open, or partially
open, which may cause a set in the current conditions in the
upper lock approach?
A: Green over red
B: Red over blue
C: Green over amber (yellow)
D: Red over amber (yellow)
2146: What lights would you see on the Illinois water way when any
wickets of the dam or bear traps are open, or partially
open, which may cause a set in the current conditions in the
upper lock approach?
A: Green over red
B: Red over blue
C: Red over amber (yellow)
D: None of the above
2147: What lights would you see on the Illinois waterway when any
wickets of the dam or bear traps are open, or partially
open, which may cause a set in the current conditions in the
upper lock approach?
A: Green over blue
B: Red over amber (yellow)
C: Red over green
D: None of the above
2150: On a mercator chart, 1 nautical mile is equal to _________.
A: 1 minute of longitude
B: 1 degree of longitude
C: 1 minute of latitude
D: 1 degree of latitude
2152: Permanent magnetism is found in _______________.
A: hard iron
B: soft iron
C: vertical iron only
D: horizontal iron only
2158: Permanent magnetism is caused by ________________.
A: operation of electrical equipment and generators on board
ship
B: the earth's magnetic field affecting the ship's hard iron
during construction
C: the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field
acting on the horizontal soft iron
D: the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field acting
2159: Induced magnetism is found in ______________.
A: hard iron
B: soft iron
C: vertical iron only
D: horizontal iron only
2160: Information for updating nautical charts is primarily found
in the __________.
A: Notice to Mariners
B: Coast Pilots
C: nautical chart catalogs
D: Sailing Directions
2161: Yesterday your chronometer read 03h 01m 56s at the 1500 GMT
time tick. Today your chronometer read 03h 01m 58s at the
1500 GMT time tick. What is the chronometer error?
A: 03h 01m 58s fast
B: 01m 58s fast
C: +2s
D: -2s
2162: The new Moon cannot be seen because the Moon is _________.
A: in the opposite direction of the Sun
B: below the horizon
C: between the Earth and the Sun
D: at quadrature
2163: The letter C in illustration D006NG represents the ________.
A: visible horizon
B: geoidal horizon
C: celestial horizon
D: sensible horizon
2164: The line connecting the points of the earth's surface where
there is no dip is the _____________.
A: agonic line
B: magnetic equator
C: isodynamic
D: isopor
2165: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is
high water and the wickets are down so that there is an
unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s)
will be shown at B if the lock walls and piers are not
awash?
A: Three red lights
B: Two red lights
C: One red light
D: One amber light
2166: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is
high water and the wickets are down so that there is an
unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s)
will be shown at B if the lock walls and piers are not
awash?
A: One amber light
B: Three red lights
C: Two red lights
D: One red light
2167: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is
high water and the wickets are down so that there is an
unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s)
will be shown at B if the lock walls and piers are not
awash?
A: One red light
B: Two red lights
C: Three red lights
D: One amber light
2168: By convention, the north pole of a magnet is painted
_____________.
A: red
B: blue
C: white
D: black
2169: To make sure of getting the full advantage of a favorable
current, you should reach an entrance or strait at what time
in relation to the predicted time of the favorable current?
A: 30 minutes before the predicted time
B: One hour after the predicted time
C: At the predicted time
D: 30 minutes before flood, one hour after ebb
2170: The temperature at which the air is saturated with water
vapor and below which condensation of water vapor will occur
is referred to as the __________.
A: precipitation point
B: vapor point
C: dew point
D: absolute humidity
2171: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is
high water and the wickets are down so that there is an
unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s)
will be shown at B if the lock walls and piers are not
awash?
A: One amber light
B: One red light
C: Two red lights
D: Three red lights
2174: By convention, the Earth's north magnetic pole is colored
_________.
A: red
B: white
C: blue
D: black
2175: Diagram Number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is
high water and the wickets are down so that there is an
unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, which light(s)
will be shown at D if the lock walls and piers are not
awash?
A: One amber light
B: One red light
C: Two red lights
D: Three red lights
2176: Diagram Number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is
high water and the wickets are down so that there is an
unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s)
will be shown at D if the lock walls and piers are not
awash?
A: Three red lights
B: Two red lights
C: One red light
D: One amber light
2177: Diagram Number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is
high water and the wickets are down so that there is an
unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s)
will be shown at D if the lock walls and piers are not
awash?
A: One amber light
B: Three red lights
C: Two red lights
D: One red light
2178: The Flinders bar and the quadrantal spheres should be tested
for permanent magnetism at what interval?
A: They are not subject to permanent magnetism; no check is
necessary.
B: Semiannually
C: Annually
D: Every five years
2179: A vessel is heading magnetic northwest and its magnetic
compass indicates a heading of 312ø. What action should be
taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the quadrantal spheres are all of the way out, replace
them with smaller spheres.
B: If the quadrantal spheres are all of the way out, remove one
of the spheres.
C: If the quadrantal spheres are all of the way out, move the
spheres in.
D: All of the above
2180: Relative humidity is defined as ___________.
A: the maximum vapor content the air is capable of holding
B: the minimum vapor content the air is capable of holding
C: the ratio of the actual vapor content at the current
temperature to the air's vapor holding capability
D: the relation of the moisture content of the air to
2181: Diagram Number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is
high water and the wickets are down so that there is an
unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s)
will be shown at D if the lock walls and piers are not
awash?
A: One red light
B: Two red lights
C: Three red lights
D: No lights
2182: Diagram Number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is
high water and the wickets are down so that there is an
unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s)
will be shown at D if the lock walls and piers are not
awash?
A: No lights
B: One red light
C: Two red lights
D: Three red lights
2183: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is
high water and the wickets are down so that there is an
unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s)
will be shown at D if the lock walls and piers are not
awash?
A: Three red lights
B: Two red lights
C: One red light
D: No light
2184: By convention, the south seeking ends of a compass' magnets
are colored ______________.
A: blue
B: red
C: white
D: black
2186: You have completed the magnetic compass adjustments on
magnetic east and magnetic south. The vessel is now
steady on magnetic west but the compass reads 266ø.
What action should be taken?
A: Adjust the compass with the athwartships magnets until the
compass reads 268ø.
B: Adjust the compass with the fore-and-aft magnets until the
compass reads 270ø.
C: Adjust the compass with the quadrantal spheres until the
compass reads 274ø.
D: Adjust the compass with the fore-and-aft magnets until the
2187: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is
high water and the wickets are down so that there is an
unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s)
will be shown at D if the lock walls and piers are not
awash?
A: No lights
B: Three red lights
C: Two red lights
D: One red lights
2188: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass
indicates a heading of 003ø. What action should be taken to
remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the red ends are to starboard the athwartships magnets
should be lowered.
B: If the blue ends are forward the fore-and-aft magnets should
be raised.
C: If the red ends are to starboard and the tray is at the top
add some athwartships magnets.
D: If the blue ends are aft the fore-and-aft magnets should be
2189: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass
indicates a heading of 003ø. What action should be taken to
remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the blue ends are to port and the athwartships tray is at
the bottom, you should add some more magnets.
B: If the blue ends are to port and the athwartships tray is at
the top, you should add some more magnets.
C: If the red ends are to port, you should lower the
athwartships tray.
D: If the red ends are to port and the tray is at the bottom,
2190: Clouds are classified according to their __________.
A: size
B: moisture content
C: altitude and how they were formed
D: location in a front
2191: The chart indicates the variation was 3ø45' E in 1988, and
the annual change is increasing 6'. If you use the chart in
1991 how much variation should you apply?
A: 3ø27' E
B: 3ø27' W
C: 3ø45' E
D: 4ø03' E
2192: Off Fire Island, NY, with winds from the southwest, the
average wind-driven current flows in a direction of _______.
A: 256ø
B: 170ø
C: 076ø
D: 014ø
2194: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass
indicates a heading of 003ø. What action should be taken to
remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the red ends of the magnets are forward you should lower
the fore-and-aft magnets.
B: If the blue ends of the magnets are forward you should lower
the fore-and-aft magnets.
C: If the blue ends of the magnets are to port and the
athwartships tray is at the bottom you should reverse the
magnets.
D: If the blue ends of the magnets are to port and the
2196: A vessel is heading magnetic northwest and its magnetic
compass indicates a heading of 312ø. What action should be
taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the quadrantal spheres are all the way out, replace them
with smaller spheres.
B: If the quadrantal spheres are all the way in, replace them
with larger spheres.
C: If the quadrantal spheres are all of the way out, move the
spheres in.
D: If the quadrantal spheres are all the way out, replace them
2198: Opposition occurs when _____________________.
A: the Sun, Earth, and Moon are at right angles
B: the Sun's declination is 0ø and is moving south
C: an inferior planet is at the maximum angle to the line of
sight to the Sun
D: the Earth is between a planet and the Sun
2199: Denebola is found in what constellation?
A: Hydrus
B: Leo
C: Centaurus
D: Aquila
2200: Cloud formations are minimal when the ____________.
A: surface temperature and temperature aloft are equal
B: surface temperature and temperature aloft differ greatly
C: barometric pressure is very low
D: relative humidity is very high
2202: You have completed the magnetic compass adjustments on
magnetic east and magnetic south. The vessel is now
steady on magnetic west but the compass reads 276ø.
What action should be taken?
A: Adjust the compass with the athwartships magnets until the
compass reads 264ø.
B: Adjust the compass with the fore-and-aft magnets until the
compass reads 273ø.
C: Adjust the compass with the quadrantal spheres until the
compass reads 270ø.
D: Adjust the compass with the athwartships magnets until the
2203: You get underway from the shipyard in Chester, PA, at 1515
DST (ZD +4) on 6 August 1983, enroute to sea. You will be
turning for eight knots. What current can you expect at
Fourteen Foot Bank Light?
A: Slack
B: 1.3 knots ebbing
C: 1.7 knots ebbing
D: 0.5 knot ebbing
2207: Yesterday your chronometer read 11h 59m 58s at the 1200 GMT
time tick. Today your chronometer reads 00h 00m 00s at the
1200 time tick. What is the chronometer rate?
A: Nil
B: 12h
C: +2s
D: -2s
2209: You have completed the magnetic compass adjustments on
magnetic east and magnetic south. The vessel is now steady
on magnetic west but the compass reads 266ø. You should
now adjust the compass until it reads __________.
A: 268ø
B: 270ø
C: 274ø
D: Do not adjust the compass, just record the error.
2210: A dead reckoning (DR) plot ________________.
A: ignores the effect of surface currents
B: is most useful when in sight of land
C: must be plotted using magnetic courses
D: may be started at an assumed position
2211: What is the length of a nautical mile?
A: 1,850 meters
B: 6,076 feet
C: 5,280 feet
D: 2,000 yards
2212: Which information is found in the chart title?
A: Number of the chart
B: Edition date
C: Variation information
D: Survey information
2214: By convention, the Earth's south magnetic pole is colored
_________.
A: blue
B: black
C: white
D: red
2215: You are required to enter a lock on your voyage.
Information on the lock regulations, signals, and radio
communications can be found in ________________.
A: the publication "Key to the Locks"
B: Bowditch
C: Corps of Engineers Information Bulletin
D: Coast Pilot
2216: A vessel is heading magnetic northwest and its magnetic
compass indicates a heading of 317ø. What action should be
taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: Move the quadrantal spheres out.
B: Move the quadrantal spheres in.
C: If the spheres are in as far as possible replace them with
smaller spheres.
D: If the spheres are out as far as possible replace them with
2219: A vessel is heading magnetic northwest and its magnetic
compass indicates a heading of 317ø. What action should be
taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the quadrantal spheres are in as far as possible replace
them with larger spheres.
B: If the quadrantal spheres are in as far as possible replace
them with smaller spheres.
C: If the quadrantal spheres are in as far as possible move the
quadrantal spheres out.
D: If the spheres are in as far as possible remove one of the
2220: A dead reckoning (DR) plot ___________________.
A: must utilize magnetic courses
B: must take set and drift into account
C: should be replotted hourly
D: should be started each time the vessel's position is fixed
2222: By convention, the south pole of a magnet is painted
_____________.
A: red
B: blue
C: white
D: black
2224: By convention, the north seeking ends of a compass' magnets
are colored ______________.
A: black
B: blue
C: red
D: white
2226: Upper limb observations of the Moon are used more frequently
than those of the Sun because of the location of the Moon
in the sky and the _________________.
A: lesser distance between the Earth and the Moon
B: phase of the Moon
C: rapid change in declination of the Moon
D: effects of augmentation and horizontal parallax
2229: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass
indicates a heading of 003ø. What action should be taken to
remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the red ends are to port the athwartships magnets should
be raised.
B: If the blue ends are to port the athwartships magnets should
be raised.
C: If the red ends are forward the fore-and-aft magnets should
be lowered.
D: If the blue ends are forward the fore-and-aft magnets should
2230: A nautical mile is a distance of approximately how much
greater than or less than a statute mile?
A: 1/4 less
B: 1/7 less
C: 1/4 greater
D: 1/7 greater
2232: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass
indicates a heading of 003ø. Which action should be taken
to remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the red ends are to starboard you should raise the
athwartships tray.
B: If the red ends are to starboard, and the athwartships tray
is at the bottom, you should remove some magnets.
C: If the red ends are to port, and the athwartships tray is at
the top, you should reverse the magnets.
D: If the red ends are to port, and the athwartships tray is at
2234: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass
indicates a heading of 003ø. What action should be taken to
remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: Move the quadrantal spheres closer to the compass
B: Raise the heeling magnet if the red end is up
C: Remove some of the Flinders bar
D: Raise or lower the athwartshipa magnets
2236: Which is TRUE of a downbound power-driven vessel, when
meeting an upbound vessel on the Western Rivers?
A: She has the right of way.
B: She shall propose the manner of passage.
C: She shall initiate the maneuvering signals.
D: All of the above
2237: A lighted buoy to be left to starboard, when entering a
U.S. port from seaward, shall have a __________.
A: light characteristic of Morse (A)
B: white light
C: red light
D: red
2238: A vessel is heading magnetic northwest and its magnetic
compass indicates a heading of 312ø. What action should be
taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the quadrantal spheres are all of the way out replace
them with larger spheres.
B: If the quadrantal spheres are all of the way in replace them
with larger spheres.
C: If the quadrantal spheres are all of the way in, move the
spheres out.
D: If the quadrantal spheres are all of the way out, move the
2239: A flashing green light displayed at a single lock means that
the lock is ___________.
A: ready for entrance
B: ready for entrance, but gates cannot be closed completely
C: being made ready for entrance
D: not ready for entrance
2240: If you observe a buoy off station you should __________.
A: fill out and mail CG Form 2692 to the nearest Coast Guard
office
B: appear in person at the nearest Coast Guard office
C: notify Coast Guard Headquarters in Washington, DC
D: immediately contact the nearest Coast Guard office by
2241: The letter C in illustration D006NG represents the _____.
A: visible horizon
B: geoidal horizon
C: sensible horizon
D: celestial horizon
2242: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass
indicates a heading of 356ø. Which action should be taken
to remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the red ends of the magnets are to port you should lower
the athwartships tray.
B: If the red ends of the magnets are aft you should raise the
fore-and-aft tray.
C: If the blue ends of the magnets are to port, and the
athwartships tray is at the top, you should remove some of
the magnets.
D: If the blue ends of the magnets are aft you should raise the
2243: Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?
A: Radar station
B: Radar transponder beacon
C: Aero light
D: Radiobeacon
2244: Capella is found in what constellation?
A: Gemini
B: Auriga
C: Libra
D: Crab
2246: The speed of an ocean current is dependent on _________.
A: the density of the water
B: the air temperature
C: the presence of a high pressure area near it
D: underwater soil conditions
2248: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass
indicates a heading of 356ø. What action should be taken to
remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the red ends of the magnets are to port you should raise
the athwartships tray.
B: If the red ends of the magnets are to port, and the
athwartships tray is at the top, you should add some
more magnets.
C: If the red ends of the magnets are to starboard you should
lower the athwartships tray.
D: If the red ends of the magnets are to starboard, and the
2250: The most important information to be obtained from a
barometer is the _____________.
A: difference between the reading of the two pointers, which
shows wind direction
B: last two figures of the reading of the pointer, such as .87,
.76, or .92
C: present reading of the pressure, combined with the changes
in pressure observed in the recent past
D: weather indications printed on the dial (such as "cold, wet,
2251: Which statement concerning the chartlet in illustration
D010NG is TRUE? (Soundings and heights are in meters)
A: Maury lightship is visible for 17 miles.
B: The bottom to the south-southeast of the lightship is soft
coral.
C: There is a dangerous eddy southeast of Beito Island.
D: There is a 12-meter deep west of Beito Island and inside the
2252: The vertical angle between the horizontal and the magnetic
line of force is the _______________.
A: elevation
B: magnetic angle
C: vertical angle
D: dip
2254: A rock and sand structure extending from the bank of the
river toward the channel is known as a ____________.
A: wingdam
B: towhead
C: cutoff
D: landwall
2255: The height of tide is the _______________________.
A: depth of water at a specific time due to tidal effect
B: difference between the depth of the water at high tide and
the depth of the water at low tide
C: difference between the depth of the water and the high water
tidal level
D: difference between the depth of the water and the area's
2256: The constellation that contains Polaris is _____________.
A: Orion
B: Cassiopeia
C: Ursa Minor
D: Corona Borealis
2258: The primary use of apparent time in marine navigation is
to ________.
A: calculate sunrise or sunset
B: determine zone time
C: enter an almanac
D: determine the time of meridian transit
2259: A vessel is heading magnetic northwest and its magnetic
compass indicates a heading of 317ø. What action should be
taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the quadrantal spheres are out as far as possible
replace them with smaller spheres.
B: If the quadrantal spheres are in as far as possible remove
one of the spheres.
C: If the quadrantal spheres are in as far as possible replace
them with smaller spheres.
D: If the quadrantal spheres are out as far as possible, move
2260: A device trailed astern of a vessel to measure distance
traveled through the water is a(n) _______________________.
A: ammeter
B: patent log
C: trim tab
D: drogue
2261: You determine your vessel's position by taking a range and
bearing to a buoy. Your position will be plotted as a(n)
___________.
A: running fix
B: fix
C: dead-reckoning position
D: estimated position
2262: The Milky Way is an example of a ________________.
A: cluster
B: galaxy
C: nova
D: nebula
2264: The revision date of a chart is printed on which area of the
chart?
A: Top center
B: Lower-left corner
C: Part of the chart title
D: Any clear area around the neat line
2266: It is difficult to determine which limb of the Moon is fully
illuminated ________________.
A: when the Moon is low in the sky at rising or setting
B: at the new Moon phase
C: when taking Moon sights during daylight
D: when the terminator is nearly vertical
2268: What condition exists at perigee?
A: The Earth is farthest from the Sun.
B: The Earth, Sun, and Moon are in line.
C: The Earth, Sun, and Moon are at right angles.
D: The Moon is closest to the Earth.
2269: One of the factors which affects the circulation of ocean
currents is ________.
A: humidity
B: varying densities of water
C: vessel traffic
D: the jet stream
2270: The lubber's line of a magnetic compass _______________.
A: always shows true north direction
B: indicates the vessel's heading
C: is always parallel to the vessel's transom
D: is located on the compass card
2271: What is the definition of height of tide?
A: The vertical distance from the surface of the water to the
ocean floor
B: The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of
the water at any time
C: The vertical difference between a datum plane and the ocean
bottom
D: The vertical difference between the heights of low and high
2272: Mars will not be visible _________________.
A: at elongation angles near 180ø
B: from quadrature to opposition
C: at conjunction
D: at opposition
2274: A vessel is heading magnetic east and its magnetic compass
indicates a heading of 086ø. What action should be taken
to remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the red ends of the magnets are to port you should lower
the athwartships tray.
B: If the blue ends of the magnets are to port, and the
athwartships tray is at the top, you should reverse
the magnets.
C: If the red ends of the magnet are aft, and the fore-and-aft
tray is at the top, you should add some more magnets.
D: If the red ends of the magnets are aft you should lower the
2276: A vessel is heading magnetic east and its magnetic compass
indicates a heading of 086ø. Which action should be taken
to remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the blue ends of the magnets are aft, and the
fore-and-aft tray is at the top, you should add some
magnets.
B: If the blue ends of the magnets are aft you should lower the
fore-and-aft tray.
C: If the blue ends of the magnets are aft, and the
fore-and-aft tray is at the top, you should reverse the
magnets.
D: If the blue ends of the magnets are forward, and the
2277: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of
20 miles and is 52 feet high. If the visibility is 12.0
miles and your height of eye is 20 feet, at what
approximate distance will you sight the light?
A: 21.5 miles
B: 20.0 miles
C: 13.7 miles
D: 12.0 miles
2278: Superior conjunction occurs when ___________________.
A: the Sun is at maximum declination north or south
B: a planet crosses the external plane of the ecliptic
C: the Sun is between the Earth and a planet
D: two planets are in line
2279: Antares is found in what constellation?
A: Scorpio
B: Corvus
C: Libra
D: Corona Borealis
2280: Which would influence a magnetic compass?
A: Electrical wiring
B: Iron pipe
C: Radio
D: All of the above
2282: You have completed the magnetic compass adjustments on
magnetic east and magnetic south. The vessel is now steady
on magnetic west but the compass reads 276ø. You should now
adjust the compass until it reads __________.
A: 264ø
B: 270ø
C: 273ø
D: Do not adjust the compass, just record the error.
2284: Bellatrix is found in what constellation?
A: Canis Minor
B: Gemini
C: Taurus
D: Orion
2286: Which light signal indicates that you have permission to
enter a lock on the Ohio River?
A: Steady red
B: Flashing amber
C: Steady green
D: Flashing green
2288: A mean sun is used as the reference for solar time for three
reasons. Which reason is NOT a cause for use of a mean sun?
A: The motion of the apparent sun is along the ecliptic.
B: Measurement of time is along the celestial equator.
C: The speed of the Earth's revolution is not constant.
D: There are variations in the Earth's rotational speed.
2289: The constellation that contains the pointer stars is
_________________.
A: Orion
B: Ursa Major
C: the Southern Cross
D: Pegasus
2290: Magnets in the binnacles of magnetic compasses are used to
reduce the effect of ___________.
A: deviation
B: variation
C: local attraction
D: All of the above
2292: The points on the earth's surface where the magnetic dip is
90² are ________________.
A: along the magnetic equator
B: connected by the isoclinal line
C: the isopors
D: the magnetic poles
2294: What celestial body may sometimes be observed in daylight?
A: New Moon
B: Saturn
C: Sirius
D: Venus
2296: A variable star is one that ________________.
A: exhibits a change in magnitude
B: has a changing declination
C: is increasing in SHA
D: is also known as a red giant
2298: The period of rotation of the Moon on its axis is
_______________.
A: about 19 years
B: 365 days
C: about 27.3 days
D: 24 hours
2299: What condition exists at apogee?
A: The Earth is closest to the Sun.
B: The Moon is farthest from the Sun.
C: The Earth is farthest from the Moon.
D: The Moon is between the Earth and the Sun.
2300: When a magnetic compass is not in use for a prolonged period
of time it should _____________.
A: be shielded from direct sunlight
B: be locked into a constant heading
C: have any air bubbles replaced with nitrogen
D: have the compensating magnets removed
2301: The letter C in illustration D006NG represents the _____.
A: celestial horizon
B: geoidal horizon
C: visible horizon
D: sensible horizon
2304: The Moon is subject to four types of libration. Which of
the following is NOT one of these types of libration?
A: Libration in longitude
B: Diurnal libration
C: Vertical libration
D: Libration in latitude
2306: In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy showing a quick
white light with 9 flashes every 15 seconds. Which of the
four topmarks shown in illustration D031NG would be fitted
to the buoy?
2308: The points where the Sun is at 0² declination are known as
_________.
A: solstices
B: equinoxes
C: perigee
D: apogee
2309: The plane of the ecliptic is inclined to the plane of the
celestial equator by what angle?
A: 00ø23'
B: 23ø27'
C: 45ø00'
D: 90ø00'
2310: Which weather instrument measures atmospheric pressure?
A: Beaufort scale
B: Anemometer
C: Sling psychrometer
D: Barometer
2312: Mars is only seen at two phases, one of which ___________.
A: is the full phase
B: is conjunction
C: occurs only at sunset or sunrise
D: occurs at or near 0² elongation
2314: A vessel is heading magnetic east and its magnetic compass
indicates a heading of 086ø. What action should be taken
to remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the blue ends of the magnets are forward you should raise
the fore-and-aft tray.
B: If the blue ends of the magnets are aft you should lower the
fore-and-aft tray.
C: If the blue ends of the magnets are aft, and the
fore-and-aft tray is at the top, you should add some
magnets.
D: If the blue ends of the magnets are aft, and the
2316: Elongation becomes zero at _______________.
A: opposition
B: west quadrature
C: apogee
D: inferior conjunction
2317: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of
13 miles and is 36 feet high (11.0 meters). If the
visibility is 7.0 miles and your height of eye is 25 feet
(7.6 meters), at what approximate distance will you sight
the light?
A: 10.0 miles
B: 12.9 miles
C: 14.2 miles
D: 17.0 miles
2318: Miaplacidus is found in what constellation?
A: Puppis
B: Hydrus
C: Centaurus
D: Carina
2319: In low latitudes, the new Moon will always rise at about
_________.
A: sunrise
B: 1200 LMT
C: sunset
D: 2400 LMT
2320: The type of current which will have the greatest effect on
the course made good for your vessel is _____________.
A: one flowing in the same direction as your course steered
B: one flowing in the opposite direction as your course steered
C: one that flows at nearly right angles to your course steered
D: a rotary current in which the direction of current flow
2322: You have completed the magnetic compass adjustments on
magnetic east and magnetic south. The vessel is now
steady on magnetic north but the compass reads 356ø.
Which action should be taken?
A: Use the fore-and-aft magnets and adjust the compass until
it reads 358ø.
B: Use the athwartships magnets and adjust the compass until it
reads 358ø.
C: Use the fore-and-aft magnets and adjust the compass until
it reads 000ø.
D: Use the quadrantal spheres and adjust the compass until it
2324: Deneb is found in what constellation?
A: Cygnus
B: Pegasus
C: Ursa Major
D: Andromeda
2326: A double star is a star that _________________.
A: has a declination equal to twice that of the Sun
B: comprises two stars that appear close together
C: is twice as bright as a single star
D: suddenly becomes much brighter and then fades
2328: Universal time (UTI) is another name for _______________.
A: sidereal time
B: Greenwich mean time
C: ephemeris time
D: atomic time
2329: In low latitudes, a last quarter moon will always rise at
about _____________.
A: sunrise
B: 1200 LMT
C: sunset
D: 2400 LMT
2330: You are heading in a northerly direction when you come
across an easterly current. Your vessel will __________.
A: be pushed to starboard
B: be pushed to port
C: decrease in engine speed
D: remain on course
2332: Magnetic dip is a measurement of the angle between the
________.
A: geographic pole and the magnetic pole
B: lubber's line and true north
C: horizontal and the magnetic line of force
D: compass heading and the magnetic heading
2334: Other than the Sun and Moon, the brightest object in the
sky is ______________.
A: Sirius
B: Canopus
C: Venus
D: Jupiter
2335: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of
13 miles and is 36 feet high. If the visibility is 17 miles
and your height of eye is 25 feet, at what approximate
distance will you sight the light?
A: 10.0 miles
B: 12.9 miles
C: 14.2 miles
D: 17.0 miles
2336: The period of revolution of the Moon is ______________.
A: 24 hours
B: about 27.3 days
C: 365 days
D: about 19 years
2338: A group of stars which appear close together and form a
striking configuration such as a person or animal is a
_________________.
A: cluster
B: shower
C: constellation
D: galaxy
2340: What is a "Special Warning"?
A: An urgent message concerning a vessel in distress
B: A weather advisory about unusual meteorological or
oceanographic phenomena hazardous to vessels
C: A broadcast disseminating an official government
proclamation affecting shipping
D: A radio navigational warning concerning a particularly
2341: Which statement concerning illustration D010NG is correct?
(Soundings and heights are in meters)
A: Maury Lightship swings about her anchor on a circle with a
21-meter diameter.
B: The position of the lightship is indicated by the center of
the star on the symbol's mast.
C: The sunken wreck southwest of Beito Island shows the hull or
superstructure above the sounding datum.
D: There is a 12-meter deep hole inside the 5-meter curve just
2342: What happens because of augmentation?
A: The Moon appears larger as the elevation increases.
B: The Sun appears larger when viewed against the darker
background of the horizon.
C: The horizon appears elevated when observing a bright Sun
or Moon at low altitudes.
D: The Moon appears larger at the full Moon.
2344: The Moon is subject to four types of libration. Which of
the following is NOT one of these types of libration?
A: Libration in latitude
B: Diurnal libration
C: Physical libration
D: Horizontal libration
2345: You should plot your dead reckoning position __________.
A: from every estimated position
B: every three minutes in pilotage waters
C: only in pilotage waters
D: from every fix or running fix
2346: The first point of Aries is the point where the Sun is at
________.
A: maximum declination north
B: maximum declination south
C: 0ø declination going to northerly declinations
D: 0ø declination going to southerly declinations
2348: Under the IALA cardinal system, a mark with a quick light
showing 9 flashes every 15 seconds indicates that the safest
water is on the ________.
A: north side of the mark
B: west side of the mark
C: east side of the mark
D: south side of the mark
2349: The summer solstice is the point where the Sun is at
_______________.
A: maximum declination north
B: maximum declination south
C: 0ø declination going to northerly declinations
D: 0ø declination going to southerly declinations
2350: The principal advantage of NAVTEX radio warnings is that
__________.
A: they can be used by mariners who do not know Morse code
B: only an ordinary FM radio is necessary to receive these
warnings
C: information on a given topic is only broadcast at specified
times
D: they cover a broad spectrum of the radio band allowing
2351: A position obtained by applying ONLY your vessel's course
and speed to a known position is a _________________.
A: running fix
B: probable position
C: fix
D: dead-reckoning position
2352: When a superior planet is at 90² elongation, it is also at
_________.
A: conjunction
B: opposition
C: quadrature
D: transit
2353: A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning
position results in a(n) __________.
A: estimated position
B: assumed position
C: fix
D: running fix
2354: A vessel is heading magnetic east and its magnetic compass
indicates a heading of 093ø. What action should be taken to
remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the blue ends of the magnets are to port you should raise
the athwartships tray.
B: If the red ends of magnets are to port you should lower the
athwartships tray.
C: If the red ends of the magnets are aft you should lower the
fore-and-aft tray.
D: If the blue ends of the magnets are forward you should raise
2356: As observed from the Earth, the angle between lines
from the Earth to the Sun and the Earth to an inferior
planet is known as __________.
A: elongation
B: conjunction
C: opposition
D: quadrature
2358: Altair is found in what constellation?
A: Hercules
B: Cygnus
C: Aquila
D: Capricorn
2360: What U.S. agency is responsible for NAVAREA warnings?
A: Coast Guard
B: National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
C: National Ocean Service
D: National Imagery and Mapping Agency
2361: The range of tide is the ___________.
A: maximum depth of the water at high tide
B: duration of time between high and low tide
C: distance the tide moves out from the shore
D: difference between the heights of high and low tide
2362: You have completed the magnetic compass adjustments on
magnetic east and magnetic south. The vessel is now steady
on magnetic north but the compass reads 004ø. Which action
should be taken?
A: Use the Flinders bar and adjust the compass until it reads
B: Use the fore-and-aft magnets and adjust the compass until
it reads 000ø.
C: Use the athwartships magnets and adjust the compass until
it reads 002ø.
D: Use the athwartships magnets and adjust the compass until
2363: In illustration D051NG, the position labeled C was plotted
because ___________.
A: the vessel's speed changed
B: the vessel's course changed form due North to due East
C: running fixes are better estimates of true position than
dead-reckoning positions
D: All of the above are correct
2364: The immediate surroundings of what constellation contain
the most first magnitude stars?
A: Libra
B: Cassiopeia
C: Pegasus
D: Orion
2366: The major problem with Moon sights is the ________________.
A: rapid changes in GHA and declination introduce errors into
the calculations
B: lack of a well defined limb during certain phases and
positions in the sky
C: approximations used in the solution caused by the variable
horizontal parallax
D: augmentation effect caused by the relatively short distance
2369: Which magnetic compass corrector(s) CANNOT be set on a
heading of magnetic east or magnetic west?
A: Heeling magnet
B: Flinders bar
C: Fore-and-aft magnets
D: All of the above can be set on magnetic east or magnetic
2370: In the United States, short-range radio navigational
warnings are broadcast by the ____________.
A: Coast Guard
B: Corps of Engineers
C: NOAA
D: harbor master of the nearest port
2372: In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy showing a quick
white light showing 6 flashes followed by one long flash at
15 second intervals. Which of the four topmarks illustrated
in diagram D031NG would be fitted to this buoy?
2373: The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of
the water is the _________________.
A: actual water depth
B: range of tide
C: charted depth
D: height of tide
2374: The largest of the navigational planets is _____________.
A: Mars
B: Venus
C: Jupiter
D: Saturn
2375: The shortest distance between any two points on earth
defines a __________.
A: small circle
B: great circle
C: rhumb line
D: hyperbola
2376: A large group of stars revolving around a center is known as
a __________________.
A: cluster
B: shower
C: constellation
D: galaxy
2378: Which light signal indicates that you may approach the lock?
A: Flashing red
B: Flashing amber
C: Steady amber
D: Steady green
2379: The winter solstice is the point where the Sun is at
______________.
A: maximum declination north
B: maximum declination south
C: 0ø declination going to northerly declinations
D: 0ø declination going to southerly declinations
2380: The navigation regulations applicable to a U.S. inland
waterway can be found in the _________.
A: Notices to Mariners
B: Channel Reports
C: Sailing Directions
D: Coast Pilots
2381: The difference between the heights of low and high tide is
the _____.
A: period
B: distance
C: depth
D: range
2382: What causes geocentric parallax?
A: The varying distance between the Earth and Moon.
B: The change in the Moon's position relative to the stars when
viewed from the Earth's surface, as compared to the Earth's
center.
C: The rapid change in declination of the Moon causes a
rotational oscillation of its axis.
D: The nearness of the Moon causes an apparent increase in
2384: On U.S. charts, you can tell if a named feature such as a
rock (i.e. Great Eastern Rock in Block Island Sound) is
submerged by the __________.
A: color of ink used to print the name
B: style of type used to print the name
C: dashed circle around the feature
D: magenta circle around the feature
2386: The path that the Sun appears to take among the stars is the
___________.
A: zodiac
B: Tropic of Cancer in the Northern Hemisphere
C: ecliptic
D: line of apsides
2387: You are on a voyage from New Orleans to Boston and
navigating off the Florida coast. You will get the greatest
benefit from the Gulf Stream if you navigate __________.
A: about 5 miles east of Cape Canaveral
B: about 15 miles east of Daytona
C: along the 50-fathom curve
D: about 20 miles east of Jupiter Inlet
2388: The reference point for determination of GMT is the passage
of the mean sun over what line?
A: First point of Aries
B: Observer's meridian
C: 0ø longitude
D: 180ø longitude
2389: The autumnal equinox is the point where the Sun is at _____.
A: maximum declination north
B: maximum declination south
C: 0ø declination going to northerly declinations
D: 0ø declination going to southerly declinations
2390: You are in a channel in U.S. waters near an industrial
plant with a load/discharge facility for barges. You hear a
siren being sounded at the facility. What does this
indicate?
A: There is danger at the facility due to a fire or cargo
release.
B: A towboat with a hazardous cargo barge is being moved to or
from the facility.
C: The facility is warning a barge to shut down transfer
operations due to weather conditions (electrical storms,
tornado, etc.).
D: A barge at the facility has commenced loading or discharging
2392: The point where the Sun is at maximum declination north or
south is _________________.
A: aphelion
B: perihelion
C: an equinox
D: a solstice
2394: A vessel is heading magnetic east and its magnetic compass
indicates a heading of 093ø. What action should be taken to
remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the red ends of the magnets are aft, and the fore-and-aft
tray is at the top, you should remove some magnets.
B: If the red ends of the magnet are aft, and the fore-and-aft
tray is at the bottom, you should reverse the magnets.
C: If the red ends of the magnets are aft you should raise the
fore-and-aft tray.
D: If the blue ends of the magnets are forward you should
2396: Perihelion is the point where the Sun _____________________.
A: is nearest to the Earth
B: is farthest from the Earth
C: is on the opposite side of the Earth from the Moon
D: and Moon and Earth are in line
2397: The letter D in illustration D006NG represents the _______.
A: sensible horizon
B: celestial horizon
C: visible horizon
D: geometrical horizon
2399: Which statement about the time diagram shown is TRUE?
A: The Greenwich date is one day later than your date.
B: The diagram is valid only if you are in the southern
hemisphere.
C: The LHA of the Sun is approximately 40ø.
D: The diagram represents a morning Sun sight.
2400: You are in a channel in U.S. waters near an industrial plant
with a load/discharge facility for barges. You see an
emergency rotating flashing light on the facility light up.
What does this indicate?
A: A barge at the facility has commenced transferring a
hazardous cargo.
B: A barge carrying a hazardous cargo is mooring or unmooring
at the facility.
C: The facility is warning a barge to shut down transfer
operations due to weather conditions (electrical storm,
tornado, hurricane, etc.).
D: There is danger at the facility due to a fire or cargo
2402: You have completed the magnetic compass adjustments on
magnetic east and magnetic south. The vessel is now steady
on magnetic north but the compass reads 356ø. You should
now adjust the compass until it reads __________.
A: 358ø
B: 000ø
C: 002ø
D: 004ø
2404: The dividing meridian between zone descriptions +7 and +8 is
___________.
A: 105ø00' W
B: 112ø30' W
C: 117ø00' W
D: 120ø30' W
2406: The dividing meridian between zone descriptions +4 and +5
is ________.
A: 67ø30' W
B: 90ø00' W
C: 67ø30' E
D: 75ø00' E
2408: What is the equivalent of 42 min. 48 sec. in arc units?
A: 21ø24'
B: 18ø16'
C: 11ø19'
D: 10ø42'
2409: You are approaching the first of two drawbridges that span a
narrow channel. The second drawbridge is close to the first.
Which signals should you sound?
A: Sound the request-for-opening signal for the first
bridge only, who will notify the second bridge of your
approach
B: Sound the request-for-opening signal twice in
succession to indicate you must pass through both bridges
C: Sound the request-for-opening signal, pause for about 10
seconds, then sound two prolonged blasts.
D: Sound the request-for-opening signal and, after the
2410: A facility used for the discharge of a cargo of a particular
hazard, such as chlorine, butane or ethane, must have what
to warn water traffic of an immediate danger during fire or
cargo release?
A: An emergency boat and crew
B: A siren or rotating flashing light
C: Flashing red lights located one-half mile upstream and
downstream of the facility
D: Buoys with flashing lights controlled from shore, located
2412: The permanent magnetism of a vessel may change in polarity
due to ________________.
A: being moored for a long time on one heading
B: being struck by lighting
C: steaming from the north magnetic hemisphere to the south
magnetic hemisphere
D: loading a homogenous magnetic cargo such as steel plate,
2414: You must construct a Mercator plotting sheet on a piece
of paper measuring 20" by 28". The area includes latitude
38ø S to 43ø S and longitude 178ø E to 175ø W. Allow a
one-half inch neat line on all sides. What is the maximum
distance between each degree of longitude that will permit
the area of the plotting sheet to be drawn within the stated
limitations?
A: 2.6 inches
B: 2.9 inches
C: 3.2 inches
D: 3.5 inches
2416: An orange and white buoy indicating a vessel-exclusion area
will be marked with what symbol?
A: Open-faced diamond
B: Diamond with a cross
C: Circle
D: Square
2417: Most modern Loran-C receivers automatically detect station
blink which _____________.
A: triggers alarm indicators to warn the operator
B: indicates the station is transmitting normally
C: causes the receiver to shift automatically to another Loran
chain
D: automatically shuts down the receiver
2418: While proceeding downriver, you sight a red
triangular-shaped daymark on the left bank. Under the U.S.
Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers this is a
______.
A: special purpose signal
B: passing daymark
C: mark with no lateral significance
D: crossing daymark
2419: A backlash below a lock is defined as a _____________.
A: current setting your vessel on the wall
B: current setting into the lock chamber
C: an eddy working along the lower guide wall
D: current setting counterclockwise
2420: You are on course 355ø T and take a relative bearing
of a lighthouse of 275ø. What is the true bearing of the
lighthouse?
A: 080ø
B: 085ø
C: 280ø
D: 270ø
2422: The dimmest stars that could be reasonably used for
navigational purposes are of what magnitude?
A: First
B: Third
C: Sixth
D: Tenth
2423: IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from
seaward, the starboard side of a channel would be marked by
a _____________.
A: red conical buoy
B: green conical buoy
C: red can buoy
D: green can buoy
2424: Under the IALA-B Buoyage System, when entering from seaward
a lateral system buoy to be left to starboard may display
which topmark in illustration D046NG?
2425: A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of
________________.
A: fixed objects on shore
B: buoys at a distance
C: buoys close by
D: All of the above
2426: You are in charge of a power-driven vessel crossing a river
on the Western Rivers. You must keep out of the way of
_____________________.
A: a sail vessel descending the river
B: a power-driven vessel ascending the river
C: a vessel restricted in its ability to maneuver crossing the
river
D: All of the above
2428: If your vessel were proceeding up river (ascending), the
port side of the channel would be marked according to the
U. S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers by
_____________.
A: green can buoys
B: red can buoys
C: green nun buoys
D: red nun buoys
2429: The lock chamber is 600 feet X 110 feet. Your towboat is
150 feet X 35 feet. Which of these tows will require a
double lockage?
A: A set-over single
B: 4 standard barges abreast next to your boat's head and 3
jumbo abreast in the lead
C: 6 jumbo (3 abreast and 2 long) with a standard on each side
of your boat
D: 9 jumbo barges
2430: You are on course 222ø T and take a relative bearing
of a lighthouse of 025ø. What is the true bearing to
the lighthouse?
A: 197ø
B: 247ø
C: 315ø
D: 335ø
2432: A time diagram is a diagram of the celestial sphere as
observed from above the ___________________.
A: south celestial pole
B: north celestial pole
C: observer's meridian
D: Greenwich meridian
2434: A vessel is heading magnetic east and its magnetic compass
indicates a heading of 093ø. What action should be taken to
remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the red ends of the magnets are aft you should lower the
fore-and-aft tray.
B: If the red ends of the magnets are forward, and the
fore-and-aft tray is at the bottom, you should remove some
magnets.
C: If the red ends of the magnets are to port you should raise
the athwartships tray.
D: If the red ends of the magnets are to port, and the
2435: What is a lighted safe water mark fitted with to aid in its
identification?
A: A red and white octagon
B: Red and white retroreflective material
C: A sequential number
D: A spherical topmark
2436: Aphelion is the point where the Sun _____________________.
A: and Moon and Earth form a right angle
B: and Moon and Earth are in line
C: crosses the celestial equator
D: is farthest from the Earth
2437: When daylight savings time is kept, the times of tide and
current calculations must be adjusted. One way of doing
this is to _________________.
A: add 15ø to the standard meridian when calculating the time
differences
B: apply no correction as the times at the reference stations
are adjusted for daylight savings time
C: add one hour to the times listed for the reference stations
D: subtract one hour from the times listed for the subordinate
2438: The radar control that reduces weak echoes out to a limited
distance from the ship is the __________.
A: sensitivity time control (sea-clutter control)
B: receiver gain control
C: brilliance control
D: fast time constant (differentiator)
2439: Which statement about the time diagram in illustration
D008NG is TRUE?
A: You are in east longitude.
B: The Sun is setting for you.
C: Your date is different from the Greenwich date.
D: The GHA is approximately 160ø.
2440: You are on course 357ø T and take a relative bearing
of a lighthouse of 180ø. What is the true bearing to
the lighthouse?
A: 003ø
B: 227ø
C: 177ø
D: 363ø
2442: You have completed the magnetic compass adjustments on
magnetic east and magnetic south. The vessel is now steady
on magnetic north but the compass reads 004ø. You should
now adjust the compass until it reads __________.
A: 356ø
B: 358ø
C: 000ø
D: 002ø
2444: What is the equivalent of 0ø48' in time units?
A: 2 min. 12 sec.
B: 2 min. 42 sec.
C: 3 min. 02 sec.
D: 3 min. 12 sec.
2446: What is the equivalent of 47 min. 20 sec. in arc units?
A: 8ø27'
B: 11ø50'
C: 13ø42'
D: 13ø56'
2448: What is the equivalent of 37 min. 32 sec. in arc units?
A: 4ø47'
B: 6ø38'
C: 7ø41'
D: 9ø23'
2449: You are approaching a drawbridge that will open at any time
upon request. Which signal should you sound to request the
bridge be opened?
A: Two short blasts
B: One short, one prolonged, one short blast
C: One prolonged, one short blast
D: Two prolonged blasts
2450: You are on course 180ø T and take a relative bearing
of a lighthouse of 225ø. What is the true bearing of the
lighthouse?
A: 045ø
B: 135ø
C: 180ø
D: 270ø
2452: The permanent magnetism of a vessel may change in strength
due to _________________.
A: the nature of the cargo being carried
B: changes in heading
C: major structural repair
D: All of the above
Error reading USCG question 2454
wickets are down and there are open weirs due to high water,
what light(s) will be shown at C if the lock walls and piers
are not awash?
A: One red light
B: Two red lights
C: Three red lights
D: One amber light
2456: An orange and white buoy marking an area where operating
restrictions are in effect will be marked with which symbol?
A: Open-faced diamond
B: Diamond with a cross
C: Circle
D: Rectangle
2458: In the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers,
the light characteristic of group flashing (2) is used for
lights on _______.
A: the right descending bank
B: the left descending bank
C: preferred channel buoys
D: daymarks with no lateral significant
2459: The controlling depth of the river is ___________.
A: the minimum depth of the river prescribed in the channel
maintenance program
B: the edge of a dredged channel
C: the highest level to which the river may rise without
flooding
D: the least available water in a channel which limits the
2460: You are on course 344ø T and take a relative bearing
of a lighthouse of 270ø. What is the true bearing to the
lighthouse?
A: 016ø
B: 074ø
C: 090ø
D: 254ø
2462: Under ideal viewing conditions, the dimmest star that can be
seen with the unaided eye is of what magnitude?
A: First
B: Third
C: Fourth
D: Sixth
2464: Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, when entering from seaward
a lateral system buoy to be left to port may display which
topmark in illustration D046NG?
2466: On the Western Rivers, a vessel crossing a river must
______.
A: only keep out of the way of a power-driven vessel descending
the river
B: keep out of the way of any vessel descending the river
C: keep out of the way of a power-driven vessel ascending or
descending the river
D: keep out of the way of any vessel ascending or descending
2468: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western
Rivers, the buoys marking the starboard side of the channel
when going upstream will be ______________.
A: black
B: red
C: green
D: yellow
2469: A tow that is properly aligned to pass through a narrow
opening between two bridge piers is "________________".
A: on course
B: headed fair
C: holding on
D: in shape
2470: You are on course 344ø T and take a relative bearing
of a lighthouse of 090ø. What is the true bearing to
the lighthouse?
A: 016ø
B: 074ø
C: 254ø
D: 270ø
2472: The Sun is closest to the Earth in what month?
A: October
B: July
C: April
D: January
2474: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass
indicates a heading of 356ø. What action should be taken to
remove this error during compass adjustment?
A: If the blue ends of the magnets are to port, and the
athwartships tray is at the top, you should remove some of
the magnets.
B: If the blue ends of the magnets are to starboard, and the
athwartships tray is at the bottom, you should remove some
magnets.
C: If the red ends of the magnets are to starboard, and the
athwartships tray is at the bottom, you should reverse the
magnets.
D: If the blue ends of the magnets are to starboard, you should
2476: At meridian transit, the diagram used by a navigator to
illustrate the angles involved is based on the ____________.
A: celestial equator as observed from above the south celestial
pole
B: celestial equator as observed from above the north celestial
pole
C: plane of the observer's meridian
D: plane of the Greenwich meridian
2478: On 23 August 1981 you observe a back sight of the upper limb
of the Sun as seen through the sextant's scope. The sextant
altitude (hs) is 116²42.8'. The height of eye is 56 feet
and the index error is 2.0' on the arc. What is the
observed altitude (Ho)?
A: 63²42.0'
B: 63²38.0'
C: 63²19.4'
D: 62²49.6'
2479: The equation of time measures the _______________.
A: difference between local apparent time and Greenwich
apparent time
B: longitude in time units
C: difference between sidereal time and local time at the
Greenwich meridian
D: time between the passage of the mean sun and the apparent
2480: You are on course 277ø T and take a relative bearing
of a lighthouse of 045ø. What is the true bearing to
the lighthouse?
A: 038ø
B: 232ø
C: 315ø
D: 322ø
2481: The letter D in illustration D006NG represents __________.
A: celestial horizon
B: sensible horizon
C: geometrical horizon
D: visible horizon
2482: When a vessel changes course from one cardinal heading to
another cardinal heading while adjusting the compass,
which action should be taken?
A: The course change should be made rapidly to prevent
transient induced magnetism while passing the intercardinal
headings.
B: After the new heading is reached, the vessel should steam
on that course for at least two minutes before the
adjustment.
C: During the course change, you should gently tap the compass
to remove any error caused by friction on the pivot bearing.
D: After steadying on the new heading, the compass card
2483: A white buoy with an orange rectangle on it is used to
indicate __________________.
A: general information
B: an exclusion area
C: danger
D: a controlled area
2484: What is the equivalent of 1ø53' in time units?
A: 3 min. 16 sec.
B: 5 min. 28 sec.
C: 6 min. 43 sec.
D: 7 min. 32 sec.
2486: What is the equivalent of 23 min. 20 sec. in arc units?
A: 16ø40'
B: 12ø32'
C: 9ø28'
D: 5ø50'
2488: In which publication could you find information concerning
the minimum lighting required for bridges on U.S. waters?
A: Chart No. 1.
B: Code of Federal Regulations
C: Mississippi River Systems Light List
D: Notice to Mariners
2489: You are approaching a drawbridge and must pass through
during a scheduled closure period. What signal should you
sound?
A: Five short blasts
B: Two prolonged, two short blasts
C: Three prolonged blasts
D: Three short blasts, two prolonged blasts
2490: A vertex of the navigational triangle is NOT located at
the _________.
A: elevated pole
B: celestial body
C: zenith
D: coaltitude
2492: A star that suddenly becomes several magnitudes brighter and
then gradually fades is a __________________.
A: double star
B: variable star
C: nova
D: nebula
2494: You must construct a Mercator plotting sheet on a piece
of paper measuring 24" by 30". The area includes latitude
28ø N to 35ø N and longitude 175ø E to 178ø W. Allow a
three-quarter inch neat line on all sides. What is the
maximum distance between each degree of longitude that will
permit the area of the plotting sheet to be drawn within the
stated limitation?
A: 3.40 inches
B: 3.22 inches
C: 3.03 inches
D: 2.91 inches
2496: An orange and white buoy marking a danger area will have
what symbol on it?
A: Open-faced diamond
B: Diamond with a cross
C: Circle
D: Square
2498: The light characteristic of flashing is used in the Aids
to Navigation System on the Western Rivers for lights on
_____________.
A: the right descending bank
B: the left descending bank
C: preferred channel buoys
D: daymarks with no lateral significance
2499: The "head of the bend" is the ____________.
A: top or upstream beginning of a bend
B: bottom or downstream beginning of a bend
C: midpoint or center radius of a bend
D: center line or apex of a bend
2500: When correcting the sextant altitude to apparent altitude
you are correcting for inaccuracies in the reading and ____.
A: for inaccuracies in the reference level
B: the equivalent reading at the center of the body
C: the equivalent reading from the center of the Earth
D: the bending of the rays of light from the body
2502: The major factor that causes the color difference between
a red star (Betelgeuse) and a blue star (Rigel) is ________.
A: its surface temperature
B: the elevation above the horizon
C: the mass of the star
D: the contrast to nearby stars
2504: Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, when entering from seaward
a lateral system buoy to be left to starboard may display
which topmark in illustration D046NG?
2505: At the approaches to Savannah, GA, with the wind coming out
of the west, the wind-driven current will be flowing
approximately ___________.
A: 280ø
B: 260ø
C: 100ø
D: 080ø
2506: Which is TRUE on the Western Rivers when a vessel downbound
with a following current is meeting an upbound vessel?
A: She has the right of way only if she is a power-driven
vessel.
B: She has the right of way only if she has a tow.
C: She does not have the right of way, since the other vessel
is not crossing the river.
D: She must wait for a whistle signal from the upbound vessel.
2508: Normal pool elevation is the height in feet of the section
of river above a dam. This height is measured from
_______.
A: low steel on the Huey P. Long Bridge
B: mean sea level
C: the local water table
D: the minimum dam control level
2509: All persons or vessels within the lock area, including the
lock approach channels, come under the authority of the
___________.
A: dockmaster
B: dock captain
C: lockmaster
D: lock foreman
2510: When correcting apparent altitude to observed altitude, you
do NOT apply a correction for _____.
A: the equivalent reading to the center of the body
B: the equivalent reading from the center of the Earth
C: the bending of the rays of light from the body
D: inaccuracies in the reference level
2512: In the time diagram in illustration D005NG ________.
A: you are in east longitude
B: your time is about 1000
C: your date is a day earlier than the date at Greenwich
D: you must be in the Northern Hemisphere for it to be accurate
2513: Most modern Loran-C receivers automatically detect station
blink which _____________.
A: indicates the station is transmitting normally
B: automatically shuts down the receiver
C: causes the receiver to shift automatically to another Loran
chain
D: triggers alarm indicators to warn the operator
2514: Sidereal time is NOT used ____________________.
A: as the basis for star charts
B: to enter a star finder
C: in sight reduction using Pub 249
D: in sight reductions of planet observations
2516: Apparent time is based on _________________.
A: a fictitious sun moving along the celestial equator
B: the visible sun moving along the ecliptic
C: the Moon's motion in relation to the Sun
D: the movement of the first point of Aries
2518: In low latitudes, the full Moon will always rise at about
___________.
A: sunrise
B: 1200 LMT
C: sunset
D: 2400 LMT
2519: The standard time meridian for zone description -12 is
_____________.
A: 165.0ø E
B: 172.5ø E
C: 180.0ø
D: 172.5ø W
2520: When correcting the sextant altitude to apparent altitude
you are correcting for inaccuracies in the reference level
and _____.
A: the equivalent reading to the center of the body
B: the equivalent reading from the center of the Earth
C: for inaccuracies in the instrument
D: the bending of the rays of light from the body
2522: The letter H in illustration D006NG represents the ________.
A: celestial horizon
B: geoidal horizon
C: visible horizon
D: refractive horizon
2524: What is the equivalent of 2ø 35' in time units?
A: 10 min. 20 sec.
B: 9 min. 10 sec.
C: 7 min. 06 sec.
D: 6 min. 43 sec.
2525: Daylight savings time is a form of zone time that adopts the
time _____________.
A: two zones to the west
B: two zones to the east
C: one zone to the west
D: one zone to the east
2526: What is the equivalent of 10 min. 52 sec. in arc units?
A: 0ø47'
B: 1ø12'
C: 2ø43'
D: 3ø52'
2527: In the doldrums you can expect _______________.
A: steady, constant winds
B: frequent rain showers and thunderstorms
C: steep pressure gradients
D: low relative humidity
Error reading USCG question 2528
What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the
position indicated by the letter A in the illustration?
A: One red light
B: Two red lights
C: Two green lights
D: No light
2529: A bridge over a navigable waterway is being repaired. There
is a traveller platform under the bridge's deck that
significantly reduces the vertical clearance. If required
by the CG district commander, how will this be indicated at
night?
A: Illumination by flood lights
B: A quick flashing red light at each lower corner
C: A strobe light visible both up and downstream
D: Fixed amber lights under the extreme outer edges of the
2530: The distance between any two meridians measured along a
parallel of latitude _________________.
A: increases in north latitude and decreases in south latitude
B: decreases as DLO increases
C: increases with increased latitude
D: decreases with increased latitude
2532: You must construct a Mercator plotting sheet on a piece
of paper measuring 28" by 32". The area includes latitude
32ø S to 39ø S and longitude 005ø E to 003ø W. Allow a
one-half inch neat line on all sides. What is the maximum
distance between each degree of longitude that will permit
the area of the plotting sheet to be drawn within the stated
limitations?
A: 3.38 inches
B: 3.62 inches
C: 3.79 inches
D: 3.95 inches
2534: You must construct a Mercator plotting sheet on a piece
of paper measuring 26" by 30". The area includes latitude
28ø15' N to 35ø45' N and longitude 174ø00' E to 178ø00' W.
Allow a three-quarter inch neat line on all sides. What is
the maximum distance between each degree of longitude that
will permit the area of the plotting sheet to be drawn
within the stated limitation?
A: 2.76 inches
B: 2.92 inches
C: 3.06 inches
D: 3.19 inches
2536: A revised print of a chart is made ___________________.
A: after every major hydrographic survey of the area covered by
the chart
B: when there are numerous corrections to be made or the
corrections are extensive
C: when a low-stock situation occurs and minor corrections are
made
D: every two years to update the magnetic variation information
2538: The light characteristic of composite group flashing (2 + 1)
is used in the Aids to Navigation System on the Western
Rivers for lights on _____________.
A: the right descending bank
B: the left descending bank
C: preferred-channel buoys
D: daymarks with no lateral significance
2539: Under the IALA cardinal system, a mark with quick white
light showing 3 flashes every 10 seconds indicates that the
safest water in the area is on the ___________.
A: north side of the mark
B: west side of the mark
C: east side of the mark
D: south side of the mark
2540: The distance between any two meridians measured along
a parallel of latitude and expressed in miles is the ______.
A: difference in longitude
B: mid-longitude
C: departure
D: meridian angle
2542: Which magnetic compass corrector(s) CANNOT be set while the
vessel is on a heading of magnetic north or magnetic south?
A: Athwartships magnets
B: Heeling magnet
C: Flinders bar
D: All of the above can be set on magnetic north or magnetic
2544: At McAlpine L & D, normal upper pool elevation is 420.0
feet MSL, equal to 12.0 feet on the upper gage. The
vertical clearance at the Clark Memorial Highway bridge is
72.6 feet above normal pool. What is the clearance if the
gage reads 27.2 feet?
A: 25.4 feet
B: 57.4 feet
C: 60.6 feet
D: 72.6 feet
2546: A structure, usually made of stone, or cement pilings, which
extends from the bank at approximately right angles to the
current is called a ____________.
A: dike
B: revetment
C: cutoff
D: crib
2548: On the Mississippi River, gage zero is the gage reading
measured from the ____________.
A: National Geodetic Vertical Datum
B: low water reference plane
C: the lowest recorded river depth
D: the highest recorded river depth
2549: Corps of Engineer locks monitor which frequency for initial
calls to the locks?
A: 156.6 MHz (channel 12)
B: 156.65 MHz (channel 13)
C: 156.7 MHz (channel 14)
D: 156.8 MHz (channel 16)
2560: A plane that cuts the Earth's surface at any angle and
passes through the center will always form _______________.
A: the equator
B: a great circle
C: a small circle
D: a meridian
2562: In the time diagram in illustration D005NG __________.
A: the GHA of the Sun is approximately 330ø
B: your date is one day later than the date at Greenwich
C: the LHA of the Sun is approximately 120ø
D: you are in west longitude
2566: When the time is based on the movement of the visible Sun
along the ecliptic the time is known as _______________.
A: real time
B: visible time
C: apparent time
D: mean time
2567: When outbound from a U.S. port, a buoy displaying a
flashing red light indicates ____________.
A: a sharp turn in the channel to the right
B: a wreck to be left on the vessel's starboard side
C: a junction with the preferred channel to the left
D: the port side of the channel
2569: The mean sun used to measure time moves ___________________.
A: along the ecliptic at 15² per hour
B: along the celestial equator at 15² per day
C: along the ecliptic at 15² per day
D: along the celestial equator at 15² per hour
2570: A plane that cuts the Earth's surface and passes through the
poles will always form _________________.
A: the equator
B: a loxodromic curve
C: a small circle
D: a meridian
2572: The dividing meridian between zone descriptions -4 and -5
is ________.
A: 60ø00' E
B: 67ø30' E
C: 75ø00' E
D: 60ø00' W
2574: What is the equivalent of 2ø52' in time units?
A: 9 min. 23 sec.
B: 11 min. 28 sec.
C: 11 min. 56 sec.
D: 12 min. 18 sec.
2576: What is the equivalent of 8 min. 56 sec. in arc units?
A: 0ø28'
B: 0ø46'
C: 1ø12'
D: 2ø14'
2578: You must draw a plotting sheet covering latitudes 49ø N to
53ø N and longitudes 179ø E to 178ø W. If the distance
between latitude 49ø N to 53ø N is 16 inches, what is the
distance between the meridians of 1ø of longitude?
A: 2.12 inches
B: 2.33 inches
C: 2.56 inches
D: 2.81 inches
2579: A phase correction may be applicable to correct the sextant
altitude correction of ________________.
A: any star
B: the Sun
C: third magnitude stars only
D: some planets
2580: The angle at the pole measured through 180ø from the prime
meridian to the meridian of a point is known as ___________.
A: the departure
B: the polar arc
C: longitude
D: Greenwich hour angle
2582: You must construct a Mercator plotting sheet on a piece
of paper measuring 32" by 36". The area includes latitude
31ø S to 37ø S and longitude 005ø W to 002ø E. Allow a
three-quarter inch neat line on all sides. What is the
maximum distance between each degree of longitude that will
permit the area of the plotting sheet to be drawn within
the stated limitations?
A: 4.00 inches
B: 4.11 inches
C: 4.25 inches
D: 4.36 inches
2583: You are in the Northern Hemisphere and a tropical wave is
located 200 miles due west of your position. Where will the
wave be located 24 hours later?
A: In the same place
B: Closer and to the west
C: Closer and to the east
D: Farther away to the west
2584: You must construct a Mercator plotting sheet on a piece
of paper measuring 30" by 36". The area includes latitude
30ø45' S to 37ø15' S and longitude 004ø00' E to 005ø00' W.
Allow a one inch neat line on all sides. What is the
maximum distance between each degree of longitude that will
permit the area of the plotting sheet to be drawn within the
stated limitation?
A: 3.09 inches
B: 3.22 inches
C: 3.41 inches
D: 3.58 inches
2585: The letter D in illustration D006NG represents _______.
A: visible horizon
B: geometrical horizon
C: sensible horizon
D: celestial horizon
2586: A chart has extensive corrections to be made to it. When
these are made and the chart is again printed, the
chart issue is a _____________.
A: first edition
B: new edition
C: revised edition
D: reprint
2587: Given are the courses and speeds of 4 vessels. The navigator
of which vessel would be required to know the actual time of
meridian transit in order to take an accurate observation
at LAN?
A: C 166ø T, Sp 24 knots
B: C 013ø T, Sp 7 knots
C: C 291ø T, Sp 25 knots
D: C 112ø T, Sp 4 knots
2588: You are approaching an open drawbridge and sound the proper
signal. You receive no acknowledgment from the bridge.
Which action should you take?
A: Approach with caution and proceed through the open draw.
B: Approach under full control to a position no closer than 400
yards from the bridge and await a signal from the bridge.
C: Hold in the channel as a vessel is closing the bridge from
the other direction.
D: Resound the opening signal and do not pass through
2589: Under the IALA cardinal system, a mark with a quick white
light showing 6 flashes followed by one long flash indicates
that the safest water is on the ___________.
A: north side of the mark
B: west side of the mark
C: east side of the mark
D: south side of the mark
2590: A plane perpendicular to the polar axis will never form
what line on the Earth's surface?
A: Great circle
B: Equator
C: Small circle
D: Meridian
2592: A deadhead is a(n) _____________.
A: tree or log awash in a nearly vertical position
B: crew member who refuses to work
C: upstream end of a land wall
D: buoy that is adrift
2594: At McAlpine L & D, normal upper pool elevation is 420.0
feet (130.8 meters) MSL, equal to 12.0 feet (3.7 meters) on
the upper gage. The vertical clearance at the Clark
Memorial Highway bridge is 72.6 feet (22.1 meters) above
normal pool. What is the clearance if the gage reads 10.6
feet (3.2 meters)?
A: 84.6 feet (25.8 meters)
B: 83.2 feet (25.4 meters)
C: 74.0 feet (22.6 meters)
D: 62.0 feet (18.9 meters)
2596: The abbreviation L.W.R.P. on the navigation maps means
___________.
A: low water reference plane
B: low winter runoff point
C: least water river plane
D: land wall reference point
2597: You determine your vessel's position by taking a range and
bearing to a buoy. Your position will be plotted as a(n)
___________.
A: fix
B: running fix
C: estimated position
D: dead-reckoning position
2598: A vessel is proceeding downstream in a narrow channel on the
Western Rivers when another vessel is sighted moving
upstream. Which vessel has the right of way?
A: The vessel moving upstream against the current
B: The vessel moving downstream with a following current
C: The vessel located more towards the channel centerline
D: The vessel with the least amount of maneuverability
2600: A parallel of latitude other than the equator is a
_______________.
A: great circle
B: loxodromic curve
C: small circle
D: gnomonic curve
2602: The lunar day is also known as the __________________.
A: lunitidal interval
B: vulgar establishment of the port
C: nodal day
D: tidal day
2604: A sidereal day is approximately how much shorter than a
solar day?
A: 4 minutes
B: 8 minutes
C: 12 minutes
D: 16 minutes
2606: The measurement of local time is based on the passage of the
Sun over the _________________.
A: upper branch of the observer's meridian
B: lower branch of the observer's meridian
C: upper branch of the Greenwich meridian
D: lower branch of the Greenwich meridian
2608: You should plot your dead reckoning position __________.
A: from every estimated position
B: every three minutes in pilotage waters
C: from every fix or running fix
D: only in pilotage waters
2609: The letter A in illustration D006NG represents the ________.
A: geoidal horizon
B: celestial horizon
C: visible horizon
D: sensible horizon
2610: A line on the Earth parallel to the equator is a
_______________.
A: gnomonic curve
B: small circle
C: meridian
D: great circle
2612: The dividing meridian between zone descriptions -7 and -8
is __________.
A: 112ø30' E
B: 118ø30' E
C: 120ø00' E
D: 116ø30' W
2614: What is the equivalent of 4ø36' in time units?
A: 9 min. 12 sec.
B: 14 min. 36 sec.
C: 15 min. 36 sec.
D: 18 min. 24 sec.
2616: What is the equivalent of 4 min. 04 sec. in arc units?
A: 60ø16'
B: 8ø08'
C: 2ø08'
D: 1ø01'
2618: You must draw a plotting sheet covering latitudes 38ø N to
43ø N and longitudes 179ø E to 178ø W. If the distance
between each degree of longitude is 5 inches, what is the
distance between latitude 38ø N and latitude 43ø N?
A: 29.0 inches
B: 29.6 inches
C: 32.1 inches
D: 32.8 inches
2619: In low latitudes, a first quarter Moon will always rise at
about ______________.
A: sunrise
B: 1200 LMT
C: sunset
D: 2400 LMT
2620: The navigator is concerned with three systems of
coordinates. Which system is not of major concern?
A: Terrestrial
B: Ecliptic
C: Celestial horizon
D: Celestial equator
2624: You must construct a Mercator plotting sheet on a piece
of paper measuring 30" by 32". The area includes latitudes
31ø10' S to 37ø40' S and longitudes 007ø00' W to 001ø00' E.
Allow a one-half inch neat line on all sides. What is the
maximum distance between each degree of longitude that will
permit the area of the plotting sheet to be drawn within the
stated limitation?
A: 3.69 inches
B: 3.52 inches
C: 3.38 inches
D: 3.26 inches
2625: Stormy weather is usually associated with regions of _____.
A: high barometric pressure
B: changing barometric pressure
C: low barometric pressure
D: steady barometric pressure
2626: What information is found in the chart title?
A: Date of the first edition
B: Date of the edition and, if applicable, the revision
C: Information on the sounding datum
D: Information on which IALA buoyage system applies
2627: Stormy weather is usually associated with regions of
_________.
A: high barometric pressure
B: low barometric pressure
C: steady barometric pressure
D: changing barometric pressure
2628: A drawbridge may use visual signals to acknowledge a
vessel's request to open the draw. Which signal indicates
that the draw will NOT be opened immediately?
A: A flashing amber light
B: A fixed red light
C: A white flag raised and lowered vertically
D: A flashing white light
2629: Under the buoyage system, which topmark in illustration
D022NG is used on a special mark?
2630: In the celestial equator system of coordinates what is NOT
equivalent to the longitude of the Earth system of
coordinates?
2631: The magnitude of three stars is indicated. Which star is
the brightest?
A: Canopus - 0.9
B: Vega + 0.1
C: Antares + 1.2
D: Cannot be determined; magnitude indicates size not
2632: A section of the river that is narrower than usual and is
often navigable from bank to bank is a _______________.
A: chute
B: stabilized channel
C: slough
D: navigable pass
2634: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western
Rivers, a preferred-channel buoy is _______________.
A: horizontally-banded red and green
B: vertically-striped red and white
C: solid red
D: solid green
2636: You are ascending a river and exchanging navigational
information via radiotelephone with a descending vessel.
If the descending vessel advises you to "watch for the set"
above point X, what would you expect to encounter above
point X?
A: An increase in current velocity
B: Slack water
C: Shallow water
D: A sideways movement of your vessel
2638: A vessel crossing a river on the Western Rivers has the
right of way over _______________.
A: vessels ascending the river
B: vessels descending the river
C: all vessels ascending and descending the river
D: None of the above
2639: Under the U. S. Aids to Navigation System used on the
Western Rivers, aids to navigation lights on the right
descending bank show _________.
A: white or green lights
B: white or red lights
C: green lights only
D: white lights only
2640: In the celestial equator system of coordinates what is the
equivalent to the meridians of the Earth system of
coordinates?
A: Horizon
B: Hour circles
C: Vertical circles
D: Parallel of declination
2642: Local sidereal time is equal to the ______________.
A: GHA of Aries minus 180ø
B: SHA of Aries
C: LHA of Aries
D: right ascension of Aries plus 180ø
2644: The sidereal day begins _____________________.
A: when the sun is over the first point of Aries
B: when the first point of Aries is over 180ø longitude
C: when the first point of Aries is over the upper branch of
the reference meridian
D: at 0000 on 1 January (Sidereal Date)
2646: During daylight savings time the meridian used for
determining the time is located farther _______________.
A: east
B: west
C: east in west longitude and west in east longitude
D: west in west longitude and east in east longitude
2648: The 3-cm radar as compared to a 10-cm radar with similar
specifications will ____________.
A: give better range performance in rain, hail, etc.
B: display small targets in a mass of dense sea clutter at a
greater range
C: have less sea return in choppy rough seas
D: display a more maplike presentation for inshore navigation
2649: The letter C in illustration D006NG represents the ________.
A: geoidal horizon
B: celestial horizon
C: visible horizon
D: sensible horizon
2650: In the celestial equator system of coordinates what is
equivalent to the colatitude of the Earth system of
coordinates?
A: Coaltitude
B: Zenith distance
C: Polar distance
D: Declination
2651: Low pressure disturbances which travel along the
intertropical convergence zone are called _____________.
A: tropical waves
B: tropical disturbances
C: permanent waves
D: tidal waves
2652: The dividing meridian between zone descriptions -10 and -11
is ________.
A: 135ø30' E
B: 145ø00' E
C: 150ø00' E
D: 157ø30' E
2654: What is the equivalent of 5ø54' in time units?
A: 20 min. 16 sec.
B: 23 min. 36 sec.
C: 25 min. 54 sec.
D: 30 min. 27 sec.
2656: What is the equivalent of 0 min. 16 sec. in arc units?
A: 0ø32'
B: 0ø16'
C: 0ø04'
D: 0ø01'
2658: You must draw a plotting sheet covering latitudes 45ø N to
49ø N and longitudes 179ø E to 178ø W. If the distance
between each degree of longitude is 5 3/4 inches, what is
the distance between latitude 45ø N and latitude 49ø N?
A: 33.1 inches
B: 33.3 inches
C: 33.6 inches
D: 33.9 inches
2659: IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from
seaward, the port side of a channel would be marked by a
____________.
A: black can buoy
B: red conical buoy
C: black conical buoy
D: red can buoy
2660: In the celestial equator system of coordinates what is
equivalent to the longitude of the Earth system of
coordinates?
A: Zenith distance
B: Azimuth angle
C: Declination
D: Greenwich hour angle
2662: You must construct a Mercator plotting sheet on a piece of
paper measuring 24" by 28". The area includes latitude
37ø S to 42ø S and longitude 175ø E to 179ø W. Allow a one
inch neat line on all sides. What is the maximum distance
between each degree of longitude that will permit the area
of the plotting sheet to be drawn within the stated
limitations?
A: 3.33 inches
B: 3.41 inches
C: 3.67 inches
D: 3.82 inches
2664: The Light List shows a lighted aid to navigation on the
right bank. This means that the light can be seen on the
port side of a vessel _______________.
A: crossing the river
B: descending the river
C: ascending the river
D: proceeding towards sea
2666: The following boats are approaching a lock. Which has
priority for locking?
A: An 85-foot yacht
B: Corps of Engineer towboat running empty-headed
C: "Delta Queen" (passenger vessel)
D: An integrated chemical tow
2668: You are approaching a drawbridge and have sounded the
request-for-opening signal. The bridge has responded
with five short blasts. What reply should you sound?
A: None; No reply is required
B: Five short blasts
C: Two prolonged blasts
D: One prolonged, one short blast
2669: Under the IALA Buoyage System, which topmark in illustration
D023NG will be displayed on a safe water mark?
2670: The angle that is measured westward from the first
point of Aries to the hour circle of the body along
the celestial equator is the _________________.
A: Greenwich sidereal angle
B: local sidereal time
C: sidereal hour angle
D: azimuth angle
2672: When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the
upper light is in line above the lower light, you should
__________.
A: continue on the present course
B: come left
C: come right
D: wait until the lights are no longer in a vertical line
2673: A bluff bar is a bar ___________________.
A: extending out from a bluff alongside the river
B: that tends to give a false indication of its position
C: that has a sharp drop off into deep water
D: that is perpendicular to the current
2674: In the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers,
a preferred channel buoy to be left to port while proceeding
downstream will ________.
A: have the upper band red
B: show a red or white light if lighted
C: have a characteristic of composite group flashing if
lighted
D: All of the above
2675: When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the
upper light is in line above the lower light, you should
_________.
A: come left
B: continue on the present course
C: come right
D: wait until the lights are no longer in a vertical line
2676: The place where a channel moves from along one bank of the
river over to the other bank of the river is called a
_______.
A: draft
B: cutoff
C: draw
D: crossing
2678: A vessel crossing a river on the Western Rivers, must keep
out of the way of a power-driven vessel _______________.
A: descending the river with a tow
B: ascending the river with a tow
C: ascending the river without a tow
D: All of the above
2679: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western
Rivers, a daymark on the right descending bank will
________.
A: be green
B: have an odd number
C: indicate the gage reading
D: have yellow retroreflective markings
2680: The angle measured eastward from the vernal equinox along
the celestial equator often expressed in time units is the
___________________.
A: Greenwich sidereal time
B: right ascension
C: local sidereal time
D: sidereal hour angle
2682: Sidereal time is used by navigators when ________________.
A: used with the equation of time
B: used in the form of LHA Aries
C: calculating the time of moonrise
D: determining local apparent time
2683: A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of
________________.
A: buoys close at hand
B: fixed known objects on shore
C: fixed objects
D: All of the above
2684: The maximum difference between mean time and apparent time
is __________.
A: equal to the longitude expressed in time units
B: about 16 minutes
C: the difference between the GHA of mean sun and the first
point of Aries
D: 15ø of arc
2686: The standard time meridian for description +12 is
____________.
A: 172.5ø E
B: 180.0ø
C: 172.5ø W
D: 165.0ø W
2687: The letter B in illustration D006NG represents the ________.
A: celestial horizon
B: visible horizon
C: sensible horizon
D: geoidal horizon
2688: The 10-cm radar as compared to a 3-cm radar of similar
specifications will ____________.
A: be more suitable for river and harbor navigation
B: provide better range performance on low lying targets
during good weather and calm seas
C: have a wider horizontal beam width
D: have more sea return during rough sea conditions
2689: The letter D in illustration D006NG represents __________.
A: geometrical horizon
B: visible horizon
C: celestial horizon
D: sensible horizon
2690: Right ascension is primarily used by the navigator for
__________.
A: calculating amplitudes
B: calculating great circle sailings by the Agiton method
C: entering the Air Navigation Tables (Selected Stars) Pub 249
D: plotting on star finders
2692: The dividing meridian between zone descriptions -2 and -3 is
_____________.
A: 15ø30' E
B: 30ø00' E
C: 37ø30' E
D: 45ø00' E
2694: What is the equivalent of 10ø48' in time units?
A: 2 min. 39 sec.
B: 20 min. 12 sec.
C: 43 min. 12 sec.
D: 50 min. 12 sec.
2695: You are plotting a running fix in an area where there is a
determinable current. How should this current be treated in
determining the position?
A: The drift should be added to the ship's speed.
B: The current should be ignored.
C: The course and speed made good should be determined and used
to advance the LOP.
D: The set should be applied to the second bearing.
2696: You must draw a plotting sheet covering latitudes 52ø S
to 56ø S and longitudes 179ø W to 175ø E. If the distance
between latitude 52ø S to 56ø S is 24 inches, what is the
distance between the meridians of 1ø of longitude?
A: 3.2 inches
B: 3.5 inches
C: 4.0 inches
D: 4.2 inches
2698: You must draw a plotting sheet covering latitudes 38ø N to
41ø N and longitudes 179ø E to 178ø W. If the distance
between each degree of longitude is 4 inches, what is the
distance between latitude 38ø N and latitude 41ø N?
A: 15.00 inches
B: 15.49 inches
C: 15.75 inches
D: 16.25 inches
2700: In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to
the meridian angle of the celestial equator system?
A: Azimuth angle
B: Zenith distance
C: Colatitude
D: Altitude
2702: You must draw a plotting sheet covering latitudes 46ø N to
48ø N and longitudes 179ø E to 178ø W. If the distance
between each degree of longitude is 2 7/8 inches, what is
the distance between latitude 46ø N and 48ø N?
A: 8.4 inches
B: 8.1 inches
C: 7.9 inches
D: 7.7 inches
2703: Which publication indicates the HYDROLANTS or HYDROPACS
issued since the previous working day?
A: Broadcast Notice to Mariners
B: Local Notice to Mariners
C: Daily Memorandum
D: Summary of Corrections
2704: The Light List shows a lighted aid to navigation on the
right bank. This means that the light can be seen on the
starboard side of a vessel _____________.
A: proceeding from seaward
B: crossing the river
C: ascending the river
D: descending the river
2705: Information about the direction and velocity of rotary tidal
currents is found in the _____.
A: Tidal Current Tables
B: Mariner's Guide
C: Tide Tables
D: Nautical Almanac
2706: The following types of vessels are awaiting lockage on the
upper Mississippi. Which type of vessel is normally passed
through the lock first?
A: Pleasure craft
B: Commercial towboats
C: Commercial passenger vessels
D: Commercial fishing vessels
2707: You will find information about the duration of slack water
in the _____.
A: Tidal Current Tables
B: Tide Tables
C: American Practical Navigator
D: Sailing Directions
2708: You are approaching a drawbridge and have sounded the proper
whistle signal requesting it to open. You hear a signal of
one prolonged and one short blast from the bridge. Which
action should you take?
A: Anchor or use an alternate route because the bridge is out
of service for an extended period of time.
B: Approach to a point not closer than 400 yards (360
meters) from the bridge and await further signals.
C: Hold in the channel as the bridge will open within 15
minutes.
D: Approach under full control to pass through the bridge.
2709: Under the IALA-B Buoyage System, when entering from seaward
a lateral system buoy to be left to port may display which
topmark in illustration D046NG?
2710: In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to
the local hour angle of the celestial equator system?
A: Altitude
B: Azimuth
C: Zenith distance
D: Colongitude
2711: Information about currents on the Pacific Coast of the U. S.
are found in the _____.
A: Tidal Current Tables
B: Nautical Almanac
C: Tide Tables
D: Ocean Current Tables
2712: A bold reef is a reef ____________.
A: with part of it extending above the water
B: that can be detected by water turbulence
C: that drops off sharply
D: perpendicular to the current
2714: A current moving across a lock entrance toward the river or
toward the dam is called a(n) _________.
A: cutoff
B: outdraft
C: lockwash
D: springpool
2716: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western
Rivers, passing daymarks on the left descending bank are
________.
A: green squares
B: green diamonds
C: red diamonds
D: red triangles
2718: A power-driven vessel operating in a narrow channel with a
following current, on the Western Rivers, is meeting an
upbound vessel. Which statement is TRUE?
A: The downbound vessel has the right-of-way.
B: The downbound vessel must initiate the required maneuvering
signals.
C: The downbound vessel must propose the manner and place of
passage.
D: All of the above
2719: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western
Rivers, passing daymarks on the right descending bank are
__________.
A: red diamond-shaped panels with red reflector borders
B: red triangular-shaped panels with red reflector borders
C: green square-shaped panels with green reflector borders
D: green triangular-shaped panels with green reflector borders
2720: When pushing barges ahead close to a steep revetment where
there is no current, what is MOST likely to occur?
A: The stern of the towboat will tend to sheer away from the
revetment.
B: Your speed over the ground will increase.
C: The head of the tow will tend to sheer away from the
revetment.
D: All of the above
2721: You are plotting a running fix. How many fixed objects are
needed to take your lines of position from?
A: One
B: Two
C: Three
D: None
2722: The paths of intended travel between three or more points
is the _______________.
A: course
B: track
C: bearing
D: course over the ground
2724: What condition indicates that your radar needs maintenance?
A: Serrated range rings
B: Indirect echoes
C: Multiple echoes
D: Blind sector
2725: A position that is obtained by using two or more
intersecting lines of position taken at nearly the same
time, is a(n) ___________.
A: estimated position
B: dead-reckoning position
C: running fix
D: fix
2726: A daymark used as a special mark is indicated by what letter
in illustration D045NG?
2729: While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you
hear the echo of the ships fog horn 5.5 seconds after the
signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?
A: 3825 ft (1166 meters)
B: 3450 ft (1052 meters)
C: 3072 ft (936 meters)
D: 2475 ft (754 meters)
2730: When attempting an upstream landing while pushing empty
barges ahead in a hard onshore wind, the approach is best
made _______________.
A: with bow out, stern in
B: with bow in, stern out
C: parallel to the dock, as close in as possible
D: parallel to the dock, as far out as possible
2737: A lateral system buoy displaying a quick light ____________.
A: should be passed close aboard on either side
B: indicates that special caution is required
C: is used at a channel bifurcation or junction
D: is painted with red and white vertical stripes
2738: While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you
hear the echo of the ship's fog horn 3 seconds after the
signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?
A: 1100 yards
B: 872 yards
C: 550 yards
D: 792 yards
2739: A daymark used to indicate the starboard side of the
channel when approaching from seaward will have the shape
indicated by what letter in illustration D045NG?
2740: When one upbound vessel is overtaking another vessel and
both are pushing a tow ahead, what reaction may you
expect?
A: Both towheads will tend to drift apart, and the overtaking
vessel will be slowed down.
B: Both towheads will tend to drift together, and the
overtaking vessel will be slowed down.
C: Both towheads will tend to drift apart, and the overtaken
vessel will be slowed down.
D: Both towheads will tend to drift together, and the overtaken
2741: A general chart could have a scale of _____.
A: 1:200,000
B: 1:1,000,000
C: 1:50,000
D: not more than 1:25,000
2742: A white diamond daymark with an orange border is a(n) _____.
A: special mark
B: information or regulatory mark
C: lateral aid on the intracoastal waterway
D: safe water mark
2744: The standard atmospheric pressure measured in inches of
mercury is _____________.
A: 29.92
B: 500.0
C: 760.0
D: 1013.2
2746: What is used to measure wind velocity?
A: Psychrometer
B: Barometer
C: Wind sock
D: Anemometer
2750: When pushing a tow and approaching barges tied off to the
shore, you should _______________.
A: increase speed so you will pass faster
B: decrease speed while passing so you won't create a suction
C: do nothing different as the barges should be tied off
properly
D: move to the opposite side of the channel from the barges and
2752: A daymark used to indicate the safe water in a channel will
have the shape indicated by which letter in illustration
D045NG?
2760: You are pushing a tow ahead, at high speed, near the right
hand bank of a canal. The forces affecting your towboat and
tow will tend to ______.
A: push both the head of the tow and the stern of the towboat
away from the right hand bank
B: push the head of the tow away from, and pull the stern of
the towboat into, the right hand bank
C: pull both the head of the tow and the stern of the towboat
into the right hand bank
D: pull the head of the tow into, and push the stern of the
2762: You take a bearing of 176ø of a lighthouse. Which bearing
of another object would give the best fix?
A: 079ø
B: 151ø
C: 176ø
D: 292ø
2764: You are in a channel inbound from sea. A daymark used to
mark a channel junction when the preferred channel is to
port will have the shape indicated by what letter in
illustration D045NG?
2766: In low latitudes, the high(s) of the diurnal variation of
pressure occur(s) at __________________.
A: noon
B: noon and midnight
C: 1000 and 2200
D: 1600
2768: Which type of daymark is used to mark the starboard side of
the channel when entering from sea?
A: Red and white octagon
B: Black and white diamond
C: Red triangle
D: Green square
2769: If your vessel must pass through a draw during a scheduled
closure period, what signal should you sound to request the
opening of the draw?
A: One prolonged blast followed by one short blast
B: Three short blasts
C: One prolonged blast followed by three short blasts
D: Five short blasts
2770: What is most likely to happen when you push a multiple tow
into a countercurrent?
A: Going upstream you will make better speed with no danger
involved.
B: Going downstream you will be slowed down but will keep
control of the tow.
C: There is a good chance you will break up the tow.
D: No danger exists as long as you steer a straight course
2772: The direction in which a vessel should be steered between
two points is the _________________.
A: course
B: heading
C: bearing
D: course over the ground
2774: Your radar is set on a true motion display. Which of the
following will NOT appear to move across the PPI scope?
A: Echoes from a buoy
B: Own ship's marker
C: Echo from a ship on the same course at the same speed
D: Echo from a ship on a reciprocal course at the same speed
2776: For a well made and well maintained sextant, the maximum
value of which correction is usually so small that it can be
ignored?
A: Personal correction
B: Instrument correction
C: Phase
D: Dip correction
2777: A sailing chart could have a scale of _____.
A: not more than 1:25,000
B: 1:35,000
C: 1:100,000
D: 1:700,000
2778: A special daymark is a _______________.
A: red-and-white octagon
B: daymark with a yellow stripe on it
C: green square
D: yellow diamond
2779: The buoy indicated by the letter B in illustration D044NG is
a _____________.
A: nun
B: can
C: spar
D: pillar
2780: You are pushing a tow ahead and passing close to another
towboat which is pushing ahead in the same direction (you
are overtaking). After the towheads pass close alongside
___________.
A: you will gain speed
B: both boats will gain speed
C: the tows will tend to drift apart
D: the tows will tend to drift together
2782: Your radar is set on a true motion display. Which of the
following will appear to move across the PPI scope.
A: Own ship's marker
B: Echo from a ship at anchor
C: Echoes from land masses
D: All of the above
2788: The Light List indicates that a dayboard is a type KGW.
You should _____________.
A: see a green and white diamond
B: leave it to port when southbound on the Atlantic Coast ICW
C: pass it close aboard on either side
D: look for another daymark to form the range
2789: In fog, when homing on a radiobeacon from a large
navigational buoy, you should ______________.
A: alter course as soon as the fog signal is heard
B: apply the conversion angle to the received signal's bearing
C: disconnect the calibration cam (if so equipped)
D: ensure that the bearing moves aft
2790: A towboat has the same draft as the barges it is pushing
ahead. If the distance from the stern of the towboat to the
head of the tow is 800 feet, where is the approximate
location of the pivot point of the unit?
A: At the head of the tow
B: 250 feet from the head of the tow
C: 400 feet from the head of the tow
D: 600 feet from the head of the tow
2791: The letter B in illustration D006NG represents the _______.
A: sensible horizon
B: geoidal horizon
C: celestial horizon
D: visible horizon
2792: You take a bearing of 142ø and 259ø of two objects. Which
bearing of a third object will give the best fix?
A: 081ø
B: 238ø
C: 201ø
D: 234ø
2794: The standard atmospheric pressure in millibars is _________.
A: 760.0
B: 938.9
C: 1000.0
D: 1013.2
2796: The correction tables in the Nautical Almanac for use with
Moon sights do NOT include the effects of ________________.
A: instrument error
B: augmentation
C: semidiameter
D: parallax
2798: A can buoy is indicated by which letter in illustration
D044NG?
2800: Where is the pivot point of a towboat with a tow ahead?
A: One-third the length of the combined unit forward of the
towboat
B: One-third the length of the combined unit back from the
head
C: At the head of the towboat
D: One-half the length of the combined unit
2801: Mean high water is used _____.
A: as the reference for soundings on the Gulf coast of the U.S.
B: to indicate the shoreline where there is a large tidal
fluctuation
C: as the reference plane for bottom contour lines
D: as the sounding datum for rivers, lakes, etc. regulated by
2802: The pictures shown in illustration D011NG represent the
geographic location of a vessel and the radar presentation
at the same time. Which statement is TRUE?
A: Ship No. 1 does not paint as an individual target due to the
effect of pulse length.
B: The small island is not detected due to shadow effect of the
mountain.
C: A target bearing of the headland to the south-southeast is
corrected by adding one-half of the beam width.
D: Ship No. 2 is not detected due to the reflective mass of the
2803: Some locations maintain a zone time of -13. What are the
Greenwich time and date if the zone time and date are 0152,
10 January?
A: 1252, 9 January
B: 1452, 9 January
C: 0052, 11 January
D: 1452, 11 January
2804: The altitude at LAN may be observed by starting several
minutes in advance and continuing until a maximum altitude
occurs. This procedure should not be used ____________.
A: when the declination and latitude are of different names
B: when the declination is greater than and the same name as
the latitude
C: if the vessel is stopped or making bare steerageway
D: on a fast vessel on northerly or southerly headings
2805: You are entering port and have been instructed to anchor, as
your berth is not yet available. You are on a SW'ly
heading, preparing to drop anchor, when you observe the
range lights depicted in illustration D047NG on your
starboard beam. You should _____________.
A: drop the anchor immediately as the range lights mark an area
free of obstructions
B: drop the anchor immediately as a change in the position of
the range lights will be an indication of dragging anchor
C: NOT drop the anchor until the lights are in line
D: ensure your ship will NOT block the channel or obstruct the
2809: The diurnal variation of pressure is not visible in the
middle latitudes in winter because ______________.
A: it is masked by the pressure changes of moving weather
systems
B: the decreased gravitational effect from the sun causes the
variation to fade
C: the decreased average temperature is less than the critical
temperature
D: the increased Coriolis force disperses the pressure
2810: When steering a tow downstream around the shape of a sand
bar, and staying on the proper side of the buoys, an
operator should be cautious of _________________.
A: eddies under the bar
B: swift current under the bar causing loss of control
C: cross-currents pushing the tow away from the bar
D: cross-currents pushing the tow into the bar
2812: A line of position from a celestial observation is a segment
of a __________________.
A: circle of equal altitude
B: parallel of declination
C: parallel of altitude
D: vertical circle
2814: In low latitudes the range of the diurnal variation of
pressure is up to ________________.
A: 0.5 millibar
B: 3.0 millibars
C: 6.0 millibars
D: 10.0 millibars
2816: The length of a wave is the length _____________.
A: of the wave's crest
B: of the wave's trough
C: measured from crest to trough
D: measured from crest to crest
2818: You take bearings of 313ø T and 076ø T on two objects.
Which bearing of a third object will give the best fix?
A: 048ø T
B: 101ø T
C: 142ø T
D: 187ø T
2819: The time interval between successive wave crests is called
________.
A: wave period
B: wavelength
C: frequency
D: significant wave height
2820: A towboat is pushing barges ahead at a dangerously fast
speed when ______________.
A: the towboat vibrates when backing down
B: the roostertail exceeds the height of the main deck
C: a strain is placed on the face wires
D: water comes over the foredeck of the lead barges
2821: The height of tide is the ___________________.
A: difference between the depth of the water at high tide and
the depth of the water at low tide
B: depth of water at a specific time due to tidal effect
C: difference between the depth of the water and the area's
tidal datum
D: difference between the depth of the water and the high water
2822: While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs,
you hear the echo of the ships fog horn 2 seconds after the
signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?
A: 360 yards
B: 320 yards
C: 280 yards
D: 140 yards
2824: When you turn on the fast time constant (differentiator)
control of a radar it will _____________.
A: enhance weak target echoes and brighten them on the PPI
B: reduce clutter over the entire PPI by shortening the echoes
C: only suppress weak targets to a limited distance from the
ship (sea clutter)
D: reduce the beam width to provide a map-like presentation for
2826: You take a bearing of 043ø and 169ø of two objects. What
bearing of a third object will give the best fix?
A: 356ø
B: 102ø
C: 144ø
D: 201ø
2828: The daily recurring pattern of pressure changes most
noticeable in low latitudes is the ______________.
A: daily lapse reading
B: diurnal variation of pressure
C: pressure tendency
D: synoptic pressure
2829: A spar buoy is indicated by which letter in illustration
D044NG?
2830: The proper way to approach a downstream lock where there is
an outdraft is to be ___________.
A: wide out from the land wall, keeping the stern in at all
times
B: wide out from the land wall, keeping the stern out at all
times
C: close in to the land wall, keeping the stern in at all times
D: close in to the land wall, keeping the stern out at all
2831: A coastal chart could have a scale of _____.
A: not more than 1:25,000
B: 1:35,000
C: 1:100,000
D: 1:500,000
2832: The Light List indicates that a dayboard is a type MR.
You should _____.
A: leave it on either side
B: look for the other dayboard forming the range
C: look for an all red daymark
D: check to enter the correct channel at this junction daymark
2834: Mariners should be careful about taking RDF bearings on
commercial stations broadcasting entertainment programs.
What condition would probably NOT affect such a bearing?
A: The actual broadcast antenna may be remote from the
broadcast station.
B: The shorter wave length of the broadcast band tends to
re-radiate from the vessel's structure.
C: Many of these stations are inland causing land effect when
the signal crosses the coastline.
D: The operating frequency may differ from the calibrated
2836: The correction tables in the front of the Nautical Almanac
for use with Sun sights do NOT include the effects of _____.
A: mean refraction
B: parallax
C: semidiameter
D: irradiation
2838: You take a bearing of 191ø and 313ø to two objects. Which
bearing of a third object will give the best fix?
A: 001ø
B: 069ø
C: 209ø
D: 356ø
2839: Privately maintained aids to navigation included in the
Light List ___________.
A: are painted white and must use a white light if lighted
B: must be conspicuously marked by a signboard with the words
"PRIVATE AID"
C: must conform to the standards of the U.S. Aids to Navigation
System
D: are not permitted in or along first-class waterways and may
2840: The lockmaster has given you permission to tie off on the
lower guide wall to wait your turn to lock through. What
should you be most concerned with?
A: A downbound vessel
B: An upbound vessel
C: Current reaction when the lock chamber is being emptied
D: Current reaction when the lock chamber is being filled
2841: You are required to enter a lock on your voyage.
Information on the lock regulations, signals, and radio
communications can be found in _________________.
A: Coast Pilot
B: Corps of Engineer Information Bulletin
C: Bowditch
D: the publication "Key to the Locks"
2842: The drawspan of a floating drawbridge may be marked with
__________.
A: two white lights
B: a yellow diamond
C: flashing blue lights
D: three red lights on each side of the draw
2843: A position obtained by applying ONLY your vessel's course
and speed to a known position is a _____________________.
A: fix
B: running fix
C: dead-reckoning position
D: probable position
2844: The signal from a ramark will show on the PPI as a _______.
A: coded signal on the same bearing and at a greater range then
the transponder
B: circle surrounding the transponder
C: radial line from the transponder to the center of the PPI
D: dashed circle at the same range as the transponder
2846: Which type of daymark is used to mark the port side of the
channel when entering from sea?
A: Red and white octagon
B: Black and white diamond
C: Red triangle
D: Green square
2848: While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you
hear the echo of the ships fog horn 6 seconds after the
signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?
A: 1200 yards
B: 1100 yards
C: 1000 yards
D: 900 yards
2849: You take a bearing of 086ø of a lighthouse. What bearing of
another object would give the best fix?
A: 000ø
B: 066ø
C: 112ø
D: 271ø
2850: What is used to help prevent damage to barges, locks, and
landings when you are locking or landing a tow?
A: Dock cushions
B: Springers
C: Landing bars
D: Bumpers (fenders)
2851: You determine your vessel's position by taking a range and
bearing to a buoy. Your position will be plotted as a(n)
_____________.
A: dead-reckoning position
B: estimated position
C: running fix
D: fix
2852: A daymark warning of a danger will have the shape indicated
by what letter in illustration D045NG?
2854: The distance in miles between the circle of equal altitude
for the observed altitude (Ho) and the circle of equal
altitude for the computed altitude (Hc) is the __________.
A: equation of time
B: zenith distance
C: intercept
D: zenith angle
2858: While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs,
you hear the echo of the ships fog horn 2 1/2 seconds after
the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?
A: 225 yards
B: 460 yards
C: 750 yards
D: 910 yards
2859: The buoy indicated by the letter C in illustration D044NG is
a ________.
A: nun
B: can
C: spar
D: pillar
2860: On the Mississippi and Ohio Rivers, there is a special type
of fog known as steam fog. It is caused by ___________.
A: warm air passing over much colder water
B: cold air passing over much warmer water
C: a rapid cooling of the ground on a clear night
D: rain coming out of a warm air mass aloft
2862: When slanted letters are used to spell the name of a
charted object you know the ___________.
A: object is only a hazard to vessels drawing in excess of 20
feet
B: position is approximate or doubtful
C: object is always visible
D: object may cover and uncover with the tide
2864: You are swinging ship to calibrate the RDF. The RDF gyro
bearing is 308ø at the same time the visual bearing is 310ø
pgc. The gyro error is 2ø E. At the time of the bearing
the heading was 270ø pgc. Which statement is TRUE?
A: There is calibration correction on a heading of 272ø T.
B: The correction is +2ø on an RDF bearing of 040ø relative.
C: The correction is -2ø when the vessel is on course 272ø T.
D: There is no calibration correction on an RDF bearing of
2866: Some locations maintain a zone time of -13. What are the
zone time and date if the Greenwich time and date are 2152,
10 January?
A: 1052, 9 January
B: 0852, 10 January
C: 1052, 10 January
D: 1052, 11 January
2868: You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The
range line is 309ø T. You are steering 306ø T and have the
range in sight as shown. Which action should you take?
A: Continue on the present heading until the range is in
line then alter course to the right.
B: Immediately alter course to the right to bring the range
in line.
C: Immediately alter course to the left to bring the range
in line.
D: Immediately alter course to 309ø T if the range is closing.
2869: A pillar buoy is indicated by which letter in illustration
D044NG?
2870: Steam fog is most likely to occur on the Mississippi and
Ohio Rivers in ____________.
A: spring, around late evening
B: spring, around early evening
C: fall, around early morning
D: fall, around midday
2872: When using a directional loop antenna to take an RDF
bearing, the sense antenna is used to __________.
A: determine which station of a group of sequenced stations is
transmitting
B: increase the sensitivity of the receiver
C: resolve the 180ø ambiguity
D: eliminate the induced currents caused by signal re-radiation
2874: What daymark has no lateral significance?
A: Red triangle
B: Red and white octagon
C: Green and white diamond
D: Green square
2875: A harbor chart could have a scale of _____.
A: not more than 1:25,000
B: 1:35,000
C: 1:150,000
D: not less than 1:500,000
2876: On 13 November 1981 you observe a back sight of the upper
limb of the Sun as seen through the sextant's scope. The
sextant altitude (hs) is 109ø23.6'. The height of eye is 66
feet, and the index error is 2.0ø off the arc. What is the
observed altitude (Ho)?
A: 71ø01.2'
B: 70ø57.2'
C: 70ø45.4
D: 70ø26.4'
2877: Private aids to navigation in or along navigable waters of
the United States may be listed in the __________.
A: Sailing Directions
B: Light List
C: List of Private Aids
D: Aids to Navigation Manual
2878: Given are the courses and speeds of 4 vessels. The
navigator of which vessel would be required to know the
actual time of meridian transit in order to take an accurate
observation at LAN?
A: C 356ø T, Sp 5 knots
B: C 099ø T, Sp 17 knots
C: C 192ø T, Sp 23 knots
D: C 278ø T, Sp 6 knots
2880: While upbound through Memphis, the weather report on the TV
news indicates that a cold front will cross western Kentucky
and Tennessee the next morning. What weather should
accompany this front?
A: Light, southerly winds; high humidity and possibly fog
B: Overcast with steady, light rain or drizzle
C: Gusting winds shifting to the northwest with thunderstorms
D: Scattered clouds with light to moderate southeasterly winds
2882: While upbound through Memphis, the weather report on TV news
indicates that a warm front is stationary over the Kentucky
- Missouri - Tennessee areas. What weather conditions
should you expect?
A: Strong, gusting winds from the NW with thundershowers
B: Light winds from the northeast with clear skies
C: A "blue norther"
D: Southerly winds with steady rain; fog or overcast
2884: The pictures shown in illustration D011NG represent the
geographic location of a vessel and the radar presentation
at the same time. Which statement is TRUE?
A: Ship No. 1 does not appear as an individual target due to
the effect of beam width.
B: Small island is not detected due to the multiple echo effect
from the mountain.
C: A tangent bearing of the headland to the south-southeast is
corrected by subtracting one-half of the beam width.
D: Ship No. 2 is not detected due to the side lobe effect of
2886: On mid-ocean waters, the height of a wind-generated wave
is not affected by the ____________.
A: water depth exceeding 100 feet
B: fetch
C: wind's velocity
D: duration of the wind
2887: The letter B in illustration D006NG represents the _______.
A: visible horizon
B: sensible horizon
C: geoidal horizon
D: celestial horizon
2888: You are swinging ship to calibrate the RDF. The RDF gyro
bearing is 054ø at the same time the visual bearing is 055ø
pgc. The gyro error is 1ø E. At the time of the bearings,
the heading was 139ø pgc. Which statement about the
calibration is TRUE?
A: One degree must be added to all RDF bearings.
B: One degree must be subtracted from an RDF bearing of 055ø T.
C: One degree must be added to all RDF bearings of 276ø
relative.
D: One degree must be subtracted from RDF bearings when on a
2889: On 29 June 1981 you observe a back sight of the lower limb
of the Moon as seen through the sextant's scope. The
sextant altitude (hs) is 114²16.9'. The height of eye is 36
feet, and the index error is 2.0' off the arc. The
horizontal parallax is 60.5'. What is the observed altitude
(Ho)?
A: 66²23.8'
B: 66²04.4'
C: 66²00.4'
D: 65²53.8'
2890: While passing through Memphis, the weather report on the TV
news indicates that a cold front is crossing western
Kentucky and Tennessee. Tomorrow's weather will be
dominated by a high pressure area. What weather should you
expect tomorrow?
A: Light, southerly winds; high humidity and possibly fog
B: Moderate winds from the northwest, clear visibility and
cooler temperatures
C: Low overcast; mild temperatures with light, steady rain or
drizzle
D: Scattered clouds with light, southeasterly winds; high
2891: Twenty-three meters equals __________.
A: 17.50 feet
B: 75.46 feet
C: 96.00 feet
D: 104.99 feet
2892: The Light List indicates that a dayboard is a type NB.
You should ______________.
A: see a black triangle
B: look for another daymark forming a range
C: expect a daymark of no lateral significance
D: check to enter the correct channel at the junction daymark
2894: Fetch is the ________________.
A: distance a wave travels between formation and decay
B: stretch of water over which a wave-forming wind blows
C: time in seconds required for two crests to pass a given
point
D: measurement of a wave's steepness
2895: A white buoy with an orange rectangle on it is a(n) _______.
A: junction buoy
B: safe water buoy
C: informational buoy
D: All of the above
2896: You are navigating in pilotage waters. The maximum time
between fixes should be about ____________.
A: 5 minutes
B: 30 minutes
C: 1 hour
D: 4 hours
2898: The adjustments to your sextant while correcting for the
error of collimation are made by turning two screws bearing
on the frame. How are these screws turned?
A: Tighten them both in steps, first one then the other
B: Loosen them both in steps, first one then the other
C: Tighten one first then loosen the other
D: Loosen one first then tighten the other
2899: You take a bearing of 043ø and 169ø of two objects. What
bearing of a third object will give the best fix?
A: 356ø
B: 073ø
C: 192ø
D: 309ø
2900: Who should be consulted for changing conditions of
controlling depths in major channels?
A: U.S. Coast Guard
B: National Imagery and Mapping Agency
C: National Ocean Survey
D: U.S. Army Corps of Engineers
2902: The direction a vessel is pointed at any given time is the
________.
A: course
B: track
C: heading
D: course over the ground
2904: Your radar displays your ship off center. As you proceed on
your course, your ship's marker moves on the PPI scope while
echoes from land masses remain stationary. What is this
display called?
A: Off center
B: True motion
C: Stabilized
D: Head up
2906: The accuracy of an azimuth circle can be checked by
________.
A: sighting a terrestrial range in line and comparing the
observed bearing against the charted bearing
B: aligning the relative bearing markings so that 000ø is on
the lubber's line and the line of sight passes over the
center of the compass
C: ensuring that the alignment marks on the inner face of the
circle are in line with those on the repeater on relative
bearings of 000ø and 090ø
D: comparing differences between the observed azimuth and the
2908: A daymark used to indicate the port side of the channel
when approaching from seaward is indicated by what letter in
illustration D045NG?
2909: A nun buoy is indicated by which letter in illustration
D044NG?
2910: You are taking bearings on two known objects ashore. The
BEST fix is obtained when the angle between the lines of
position is _______________.
A: 60ø
B: 45ø
C: 90ø
D: 30ø
2912: Error in RDF bearings may be induced by various conditions.
What would probably NOT affect an RDF bearing?
A: The great circle radio wave path to the transmitter being
parallel to a coastline
B: A skywave contaminating the ground wave
C: The ground wave crossing a land mass between the transmitter
and your vessel
D: Sunspot effect on bearings taken around noon
2913: The Daily Memorandum contains information on __________.
A: active weather disturbances such as hurricanes or tropical
storms
B: the latest navigational warnings
C: scheduled vessel arrivals and departures for a 24-hour
period
D: water levels at river ports where run-off affects tidal
2914: A daymark with red and green bands, with red uppermost,
will have the shape indicated by which letter in
illustration D045NG?
2916: You take a bearing of 191ø and 313ø to two objects. Which
bearing of a third object will give the best fix?
A: 022ø
B: 131ø
C: 211ø
D: 249ø
2918: Which agency maintains federal aids to navigation?
A: Corps of Engineers
B: Coast Guard
C: National Ocean Service
D: Maritime Administration
2920: Navigation charts of the Upper Mississippi River are
published by ___________.
A: National Ocean Survey
B: Lake Survey
C: Corps of Engineers, U.S. Army
D: U.S. Coast Guard
2922: The Light List indicates that a dayboard is a type TR-SY.
You should ______________.
A: look for a dayboard of type TR-TY to form a range
B: leave it to port when southbound on the Atlantic portions of
the ICW
C: pass it close aboard on either side
D: expect a daymark with no lateral significance
2923: You should plot your dead reckoning position ___________.
A: from every estimated position
B: from every fix or running fix
C: every three minutes in pilotage waters
D: only in pilotage waters
2924: You take a bearing of 264ø of a lighthouse. What bearing of
another object would give the best fix?
A: 289ø
B: 350û
C: 081ø
D: 120ø
2925: A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning
position results in a(n) _____________.
A: running fix
B: fix
C: assumed position
D: estimated position
2926: You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The range
line is 309ø T. You are steering 306ø T and have the range
in sight as indicated in illustration D047NG. The range
continues to open. Which action should you take?
A: Come left until the range closes then steer to the left of
306ø T.
B: Alter course to the right to 309ø T or more to bring the
range in line.
C: Continue on course but be prepared to come right if the
range continues to open.
D: Alter course to the left to close the range, then alter
2927: In illustration D051NG, the position labeled C was plotted
because _________.
A: the vessel's course changed from due North to due East
B: running fixes are better estimates of true position than
dead-reckoning positions
C: the vessel's speed changed
D: All of the above are correct
2928: You are in a buoyed channel at night and pass a lighted
buoy with an irregular characteristic. You should report
this to the ___________.
A: Coast Guard
B: harbor master
C: Corps of Engineers
D: National Ocean Service
2929: On 29 June 1981 you observe a back sight of the upper limb
of the Moon as seen through the sextant's scope. The
sextant altitude (hs) is 114²16.9'. The height of eye is 36
feet and the index error is 2.0' on the arc. The horizontal
parallax is 60.5'. What is the observed altitude (Ho)?
A: 66²31.6'
B: 66²31.0'
C: 66²28.8'
D: 66²26.0'
2930: How is a navigation light identified on an Army Corps of
Engineers navigation map?
A: Name and light characteristic
B: Name and miles A.H.P.
C: Light characteristic and miles A.H.P.
D: None of the above
2931: The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of
the water is the _________________.
A: range of tide
B: height of tide
C: actual water depth
D: charted depth
2932: If the main channel under a bridge is marked with lights of
the lateral system the adjacent bridge piers should be
marked with ________.
A: occulting white lights
B: fixed yellow lights
C: fixed white lights
D: flashing yellow lights
2936: Information on search and rescue procedures and special,
local communications used in Mexican waters will be found in
the ___________.
A: World Port Index
B: International Code of Signals (Pub 102)
C: Sailing Directions (Planning Guides)
D: Merchant Ship Search and Rescue Manual (MERSAR)
2937: The depth of the water is indicated on a chart as 32 meters.
This is equal to __________.
A: 11.50 fathoms
B: 12.62 fathoms
C: 17.50 fathoms
D: 104.99 fathoms
2938: You take a bearing of 176ø of a lighthouse. What bearing of
another object would give the best fix?
A: 000ø
B: 021ø
C: 189ø
D: 272ø
2939: The buoy indicated by the letter D in illustration D044NG is
a _______.
A: nun
B: can
C: spar
D: pillar
2940: On the Corps of Engineer's Navigation Maps, the channel is
___________.
A: midway between the banks
B: indicated by depths (in feet)
C: indicated by a broken line
D: not indicated
2941: During daylight savings time the meridian used for
determining the time is located farther _____________.
A: west in west longitude and east in east longitude
B: east in west longitude and west in east longitude
C: east
D: west
2944: The height of a wave is the vertical distance ____________.
A: from the still water plane to the crest
B: from the still water plane to the trough
C: from crest to trough
D: between water levels at one-quarter of the wave's length
2945: A position that is obtained by applying estimated current
and wind to your vessel's course and speed is a(n) ________.
A: estimated position
B: dead reckoning position
C: fix
D: None of the above
2947: A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at
different times and advanced to a common time is a(n)
___________.
A: fix
B: dead-reckoning position
C: running fix
D: estimated position
2948: What is used to eliminate the 180ø ambiguity when taking an
RDF bearing with a rotating loop antenna?
A: The null
B: Sense antenna
C: Calibration cam
D: Signal strength meter
2949: On 13 November 1981 you observe a back sight of the lower
limb of the Sun as seen through the sextant's scope. The
sextant altitude (hs) is 109²26.3'. The height of eye is 66
feet, and the index error is 2.0' on the arc. What is the
observed altitude (HO)?
A: 70²56.6'
B: 70²38.0'
C: 70²27.2'
D: 70²23.2'
2950: On an Army Corps of Engineers navigation map, each mile
A.H.P. on the Lower Mississippi River is marked by a
____________.
A: dashed red line
B: number showing mileage
C: navigation light
D: red circle
2952: The channel under a bridge is marked with lights of the
lateral system. The centerline of the channel shall be
marked on the bridge by ________.
A: an occulting white light
B: a yellow light
C: three fixed white lights
D: a flashing blue light
2954: You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The
range line is 309ø T. You are steering 306ø T. The range
appears as shown and is closing. Which action should you
take?
A: Continue on the present heading until the range is in
line then alter course to the left.
B: Immediately alter course to the right to bring the range
in line.
C: Continue on course until the range is closed, then
alter course to the right.
D: Immediately alter course to 309ø T.
2956: On 23 August 1981 you observe a back sight of the lower limb
of the Sun as seen through the sextant's scope. The sextant
altitude (hs) is 116²42.8'. The height of eye is 56 feet
and the index error is 2.0' off the arc. What is the
observed altitude (Ho)?
A: 63²42.0'
B: 63²38.0'
C: 63²19.4'
D: 63²06.2'
2958: Drawbridges equipped with radiotelephones display a _______.
A: day signal of a yellow diamond marked with the call sign
B: white sign with the number 16 and the call sign on it
C: black and white diamond marked with RT 16
D: blue and white sign showing the radio's channels
2959: Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid
must have a device to indicate the _________.
A: time of the next navigational satellite
B: distance to the next port
C: speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
D: None of the above
2960: What is NOT found in the Mississippi River System Light
List?
A: Distance that a lighted aid to navigation can be seen at
night
B: Distance between major points on the Mississippi River
C: A color plate showing the details of the aids to
navigation used on the Mississippi River
D: Times of Coast Guard broadcasts concerning river stages
2961: Which position includes the effects of wind and current?
A: Dead reckoning positions
B: Estimated positions
C: Leeway position
D: Set position
2962: While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you
hear the echo of the ship's fog horn 4 1/2 seconds after the
signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?
A: 405 yards
B: 628 yards
C: 730 yards
D: 825 yards
2964: The pictures shown in illustration D011NG represent the
geographic location of a vessel and the radar presentation
at the same time. Which statement is TRUE?
A: Ship No. 1 does not paint as an individual target due to the
side lobe affect.
B: The small island is not detected due to the limitation
caused by the pulse length.
C: A tangent bearing of the headland to the south-southeast
is corrected by subtracting one-half of the beam width.
D: Ship No. 2 is not detected due to the combined affects of
2965: Which symbol represents a 10-fathom curve?
A: ____ ____ ____
B: ... ____ ... ____
C: ____ . _____ . ____ . ____
D: ........
2966: You take a bearing of 264ø of a lighthouse. Which bearing
of another object would give the best fix?
A: 291ø
B: 059ø
C: 182ø
D: 239ø
2968: Some locations maintain a zone time of -13. What are the
zone time and date if the Greenwich time and date are
0152, 10 January?
A: 0052, 9 January
B: 0258, 9 January
C: 1452, 10 January
D: 0052, 11 January
2969: A red triangular daymark marks_______________.
A: the centerline of a navigable channel
B: the starboard side of a channel
C: a prominent object of navigational interest that has no
lateral significance
D: area of a channel where passing another vessel is permitted
2970: The Light List shows a lighted aid to navigation on the left
bank. This means that the light can be seen on the port
side of a vessel ___________.
A: ascending the river
B: descending the river
C: crossing the river
D: proceeding from seaward
2972: You are in a channel inbound from sea. A daymark used to
mark a channel junction when the preferred channel is to
starboard will have the shape indicated by what letter in
illustration D045NG?
2973: You should plot a dead reckoning position after every _____.
A: course change
B: speed change
C: fix or running fix
D: All of the above
2974: What daymark shape is used in the lateral system?
A: Semicircle
B: Triangle
C: Pentagon
D: Diamond
2975: The letter H in illustration D006NG represents the ________.
A: geoidal horizon
B: visible horizon
C: celestial horizon
D: refractive horizon
2976: A large navigational buoy (LNB) is painted _______________.
A: red
B: yellow
C: with red and white vertical stripes
D: with a distinct color and pattern unique to each buoy
2977: Which symbol represents a 2-fathom curve?
A: -- -- --
B: .. ____ .. ____ .. ____
C: ____ . ____ . ____ .
D: .. .. .. .. ..
2978: Where do you find the semidiameter correction to be used to
correct sextant observations of the stars?
A: It is included in the altitude corrections inside the front
cover of the Nautical Almanac.
B: Table 25 in Bowditch contains the correction.
C: A correction of -0.5 should be applied to all star sights.
D: No semidiameter correction is used.
2979: You take a bearing of 356ø of a lighthouse. What bearing of
another object would give the best fix?
A: 013ø
B: 082ø
C: 176ø
D: 201ø
2980: What volume of the Coast Guard Light List is used for the
Mississippi River system?
2981: The maritime radio system consisting of a series of coast
stations transmitting coastal warnings is called __________.
A: NAVTEX
B: HYDROLANT/HYDROPAC
C: NAVAREA
D: SAFESEA
2982: You take a bearing of 142ø and 259ø of two objects. What
bearing of a third object will give the best fix?
A: 019ø
B: 084ø
C: 166ø
D: 281ø
2984: What two shapes indicated in illustration D045NG are used to
indicate a preferred channel?
A: A and B
B: B and C
C: C and D
D: A and D
2986: Some places maintain a zone time of -13. What are the time
and date at Greenwich if the zone time and date are 2152,
10 January?
A: 1052, 9 January
B: 0852, 10 January
C: 1052, 10 January
D: 1052, 11 January
2988: The buoy indicated by the letter A in illustration D044NG is
a _______.
A: nun
B: can
C: spar
D: pillar
2989: On 13 November 1981 you observe a back sight of the upper
limb of the Moon as seen through the sextant's scope. The
sextant altitude (hs) is 110²31.2'. The height of eye is 46
feet and the index error is 2.0' off the arc. The
horizontal parallax is 61.3'. What is the observed altitude
(Ho)?
A: 70²41.4
B: 70²15.4'
C: 70²11.4'
D: 70²02.2
2990: In which source could you find the vertical clearance of a
bridge on the Ohio River?
A: Notice to Mariners
B: Light List of the Mississippi River System
C: Great Lakes Pilot
D: Coast Pilot of the Gulf of Mexico
2991: When using a radar in an unstabilized mode, fixes are
determined most easily from _________________.
A: objects that are close aboard
B: ranges
C: tangent bearings
D: center bearings
2994: You take a bearing of 313ø and 076ø of two objects. Which
bearing of a third object will give the best fix?
A: 014ø
B: 133ø
C: 255ø
D: 339ø
2998: While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs,
you hear the echo of the ships fog horn 3 1/2 seconds after
the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?
A: 640 yards
B: 480 yards
C: 315 yards
D: 143 yards
2999: When entering a channel from seaward, the numbers on buoys
________.
A: are the same as their Light List number
B: are marked in 6 inch figures with retroreflective material
C: increase with the even numbers to starboard
D: decrease with the odd numbers to starboard
3000: All aids to navigation listed in the Mississippi River
System Light List are shown as miles from a reference point
and on the _____________.
A: east or west bank
B: left or right descending bank
C: port or starboard side of the vessel
D: left or right ascending bank
3002: The diurnal variation of pressure is most noticeable ______.
A: above the polar circles
B: in a low pressure area
C: during periods of low temperatures
D: in the doldrums
3003: The height of tide is the ___________________.
A: difference between the depth of the water and the area's
tidal datum
B: depth of water at a specific time due to tidal effect
C: difference between the depth of the water and the high water
tidal level
D: difference between the depth of the water at high tide and
3004: While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you
hear the echo of the ship's fog horn 4 seconds after the
signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?
A: 209 yards
B: 363 yards
C: 480 yards
D: 730 yards
3005: The agonic line on an isomagnetic chart indicates the
___________.
A: magnetic equator
B: magnetic longitude reference line
C: points where there is no variation
D: points where there is no annual change in variation
3006: You are outbound in a channel marked by a range astern.
The range line is 309ø T. You are steering 127ø T and have
the range in sight as shown. What action should you take?
A: Come right to 129ø T.
B: Come left until the range comes in line then alter course
to 129ø T.
C: Come left until the range comes in line then alter course
to 125ø T.
D: Come right to close the range then when on the range
3008: You take a bearing of 086ø of a lighthouse. Which bearing
of another object would give the best fix?
A: 291ø
B: 261ø
C: 242ø
D: 196ø
3009: "Proceeding from seaward" for the purpose of the direction
of buoying offshore, lateral system buoys would be
proceeding ___________________.
A: northerly on the Atlantic Coast
B: easterly on the Gulf Coast
C: northerly on the Pacific Coast
D: None of the above
3010: A white buoy with a blue band is _______________.
A: an isolated danger mark
B: a hydrographic data collection buoy
C: a mooring buoy
D: marking a restricted area
3011: The survey information upon which a chart is based is
found ________.
A: at the top center of the next line
B: near the chart title
C: at the lower left corner
D: at any convenient location
3012: The drawspan of a floating drawbridge may be marked with
__________.
A: a yellow light showing Morse Code (B)
B: a yellow and white diamond
C: flashing blue lights
D: three red lights on each side of the draw
3013: A white buoy with an orange rectangle on it displays ______.
A: directions
B: dangers
C: exclusion areas
D: All of the above
3014: Given are the courses and speeds of 4 vessels. The
navigator of which vessel would be required to know the
actual time of meridian transit in order to take an
accurate observation at LAN?
A: C 356ø T, Sp 5.5 knots
B: C 162ø T, Sp 27 knots
C: C 095ø T, Sp 30 knots
D: C 268ø T, Sp 22 knots
3016: The radar control that shortens all echoes on the display
and reduces clutter caused by rain or snow is the ________.
A: sensitivity time control (sea clutter control)
B: receiver gain control
C: brilliance control
D: fast time constant (differentiator)
3018: You take a bearing of 356ø of a lighthouse. Which bearing
of another object would give the best fix?
A: 013ø
B: 178ø
C: 256ø
D: 342ø
3019: Where would you find information about the time of
high tide at a specific location on a particular day of
the year?
A: Tide Tables
B: Tidal Current Tables
C: Coast Pilot
D: Nautical Almanac
3020: A mooring buoy, if lighted, shows which color light?
A: Yellow
B: White
C: Blue
D: Any color except red or green
3021: Which information is found in the chart title?
A: Chart number
B: Chart sounding datum
C: Revision and edition date
D: Variation information
3022: A gree-and-red banded daymark, green band uppermost, will
have the shape shown at letter _________.
3023: You have steadied up on a range dead ahead in line with your
keel. After a few minutes the range, still dead ahead,
appears as shown. Which action do you take?
A: Alter heading to the left
B: Alter heading to the right
C: Increase speed
D: Maintain heading, keeping the range dead ahead
3024: Given are the courses and speeds of 4 vessels. The
navigator of which vessel would be required to know the
actual time of meridian transit in order to take an accurate
observation at LAN ?
A: C 018ø T, Sp 6 knots
B: C 079ø T, Sp 24 knots
C: C 101ø T, Sp 7 knots
D: C 349ø T, Sp 25 knots
3025: You determine your vessel's position by taking a range and
bearing to a buoy. Your position will be plotted as a(n)
___________.
A: estimated position
B: dead-reckoning position
C: fix
D: running fix
3026: A compass card without north-seeking capability that is used
for relative bearings is a(n) ________________.
A: bearing circle
B: pelorus
C: bearing bar
D: alidade
3028: The channel under a bridge is marked with aids from the
lateral system. The centerline of the channel is marked
on the bridge with _________.
A: a yellow triangle
B: three white lights
C: a black-and-white diamond
D: a red-and-white octagon
3029: On 13 November 1981 you observe a back sight of the lower
limb of the Moon as seen through the sextant's scope. The
sextant altitude (hs) is 110²31.2'. The height of eye is 46
feet and the index error is 2.0' on the arc. The horizontal
parallax is 61.3'. What is the observed altitude (Ho)?
A: 70²11.8'
B: 69²41.8'
C: 69²25.6'
D: 69²18.4'
3030: Isogonic lines are lines on a chart indicating __________.
A: points of equal variation
B: points of zero variation
C: the magnetic latitude
D: magnetic dip
3031: Which symbol in illustration D015NG would indicate a large
automated navigational buoy, such as those that have
replaced some lightships?
3032: The direction in which a vessel is steered is the course.
The path actually followed is the _____________.
A: route
B: track
C: heading
D: course over the ground
3033: A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar _________.
A: can use radar information from one object to fix the
position
B: should never use radar bearings
C: should only use radar bearings when the range exceeds the
distance to the horizon
D: must use information from targets forward of the beam
3035: A major advantage of the NAVTEX system when compared to
other systems is that ___________.
A: the information can be received on an ordinary FM radio
B: warnings are printed out for reading when convenient
C: broadcasts are at scheduled times
D: a low frequency band is used for long distance transmission
3036: Which daymark has no lateral significance?
A: Square; top half green and bottom half red
B: Black and white diamond
C: Red triangle
D: Green square
3037: The letter H in illustration D006NG represents the _______.
A: visible horizon
B: celestial horizon
C: geoidal horizon
D: refractive horizon
3038: In low latitudes, the low(s) of the diurnal variation of
pressure occur(s) at _____________.
A: noon
B: noon and midnight
C: 1000 and 2200
D: 0400 and 1600
3039: As you enter a U.S. channel from seaward the numbers on the
buoys ___________________.
A: increase with the can buoys being even numbered
B: increase with the can buoys being odd numbered
C: decrease with the can buoys being even numbered
D: increase in channels going to the north or west, and
3040: Which instrument is used to predict the approach of a low
pressure system?
A: Anemometer
B: Fathometer
C: Barometer
D: Thermometer
3041: The letter H in illustration D006NG represents the _____.
A: refractive horizon
B: geoidal horizon
C: celestial horizon
D: visible horizon
3042: How long would a steady wind need to blow in order to create
a wind driven current?
A: 2 hours
B: 6 hours
C: 12 hours
D: 18 hours
3052: The Sailing Directions contain information on ___________.
A: required navigation lights
B: lifesaving equipment standards
C: casualty reporting procedures
D: currents in various locations
3053: The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of
the water is the ___________________.
A: height of tide
B: range of tide
C: actual water depth
D: charted depth
3054: In illustration D051NG, the position labeled C was plotted
because _____________.
A: running fixes are better estimates of true position than
dead-reckoning positions are
B: the vessel's course changed from due North to due East
C: the vessel's speed changed
D: All of the above are correct
3055: A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning
position results in a(n) _________.
A: running fix
B: fix
C: estimated position
D: assumed position
3056: A position obtained by applying ONLY your vessel's course
and speed to a known position is a __________.
A: fix
B: dead-reckoning position
C: running fix
D: probable position
3057: IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from
seaward, the starboard side of a channel would be marked by
a ______________.
A: green conical buoy
B: green can buoy
C: red can buoy
D: red conical buoy
3060: What information is NOT found in the chart title?
A: Survey information
B: Scale
C: Date of first edition
D: Projection
3061: In a river subject to tidal currents, the best time to dock
a ship without the assistance of tugs is _________.
A: at flood tide
B: at high water
C: when there is a following current
D: at slack water